BIOLOGY 2B03 Lecture Notes - Lecture 11: Hela, Terminal Deoxynucleotidyl Transferase, Substantia Nigra

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10 Dec 2015

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Identify regulated cell death or apoptosis as a normal part of the life cycle of the cell in multicellular organisms. Describe a genetic screen used to identify genes essential to apoptosis. Identify the proteins involved in apoptosis in cells of the nematode, c elegans, and in ammalian cells. Cell death is a normal part of life human. Regulated cell death, or apoptosis, is a normal part of the life cycle of the cell. It is estimated that between 50 billion and 70 billion cells die each day due to apoptosis in the average human adult. This means that more than a million cells are dying each second in the average human body. Over the course of a year, this is equivalent to the mass of an entire adult. Dr. robert horvitz said the number of cells in our bodies is really an equilibrium number.

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Question 9

Codominance is a form of inheritance in which two different allelesfor a gene are both expressed, and neither allele is dominant overthe other. One example of codominance is fur color in cattle; thealleles for red fur and white fur are codominant. If a homozygousred cow and a homozygous white bull mate, what would you expect tofind in their offspring?.912.l.16.2>

They will all have white fur.

Their fur will be a mixture of red and white hairs.

Their fur will be a lighter shade of red.

They will all have red fur.

Question 10

If a tRNA molecule has an anticodon which reads AUG, what will itmatch up with and what amino acid is it carrying?
.912.l.16.5>

	U		C		A		G
	UUU	Phenylalanine	UCU	Serine	UAU	Tyrosine	UGU	Cysteine	U
U	UUC	Phenylalanine	UCC	Serine	UAC	Tyrosine	UGC	Cysteine	C
	UUA	Leucine	UCA	Serine	UAA	Stop	UGA	Stop	A
	UUG	Leucine	UCG	Serine	UAG	Stop	UGG	Tryptophan	G
	CUU	Leucine	CCU	Proline	CAU	Hisitidine	CGU	Arginine	U
C	CUC	Leucine	CCC	Proline	CAC	Hisitidine	CGC	Arginine	C
	CUA	Leucine	CCA	Proline	CAA	Glutamine	CGA	Arginine	A
	CUG	Leucine	CCG	Proline	CAG	Glutamine	CGG	Arginine	G
	AUU	Isoleucine	ACU	Threonine	AAU	Asparagine	AGU	Serine	U
A	AUC	Isoleucine	ACC	Threonine	AAC	Asparagine	AGC	Serine	C
	AUA	Isoleucine	ACA	Threonine	AAA	Lysine	AGA	Arginine	A
	AUG	Methionine/Start	ACG	Threonine	AAG	Lysine	AGG	Arginine	G
	GUU	Valine	GCU	Alanine	GAU	Aspartate	GGU	Glycine	U
G	GUC	Valine	GCC	Alanine	GAC	Aspartate	GGC	Glycine	C
	GUA	Valine	GCA	Alanine	GAA	Glutamate	GGA	Glycine	A
	GUG	Valine	GCG	Alanine	GAG	Glutamate	GGG	Glycine	G

It is carrying arginine and will match with a CGU codon on themRNA.

It is carrying methionine and will match with a TAC codon on theDNA.

It is carrying methionine and will match with a UAC codon on themRNA.

It is carrying tyrosine and will match with a UAC codon on themRNA.

Question 11

While the DNA in a human skin cell was being replicated, a singlebase was miscopied. What will be the most likely result of this forthe cell in which it happened?.912.l.16.3>

All the proteins the cell creates from the miscopied strand willdo different jobs than the old ones.

If the new sequence codes for the same amino acid as theoriginal cell, it will function normally.

Both new DNA strands will end up together in a new cell, and theinaccurate one will be discarded.

Any miscopied DNA will be replaced with an accurate DNA copyonce the cell divides.

Question 12

A ferret's haploid number of chromosomes is 20. How would thenumber of chromosomes in the ferret's body cells compare to thenumber of chromosomes in its gametes?.912.l.16.17>

Its body cells would have 20 chromosomes, and its gametes wouldhave 40 chromosomes.

Its body cells and gametes would both have 40 chromosomes.

Its body cells and gametes would both have 20 chromosomes.

Its body cells would have 40 chromosomes, and its gametes wouldhave 20 chromosomes.

Question 13

A body cell is in the longest stage of its life cycle. The cellgrows, synthesizing proteins and increasing in size. Eventually,the cell will grow too large to carry out normal activities. Whichof the following is the best conclusion you can make about the lifecycle of this cell?.912.l.16.14>

The cell is close to the end of its life cycle, and a chemicalsignal will initiate cell death.

The cell is ready to undergo mitosis, and a chemical signal willsend the cell to prophase.

The cell is in the G1 phase of interphase, and a chemical signalwill send the cell to the S phase.

The cell is in the S phase of interphase, and a chemical signalwill move the cell to the G2 phase.

Question 14

While mRNA strands are being created a sequence is sometimesmiscopied. What is the best possible outcome for the cell shouldthis take place?.912.l.16.5>

The miscopied sequence codes for the same amino acids as theoriginal sequence.

The new sequence creates a protein that serves a differentfunction from the original.

The ribosomes will correct the mistake before the tRNA matchesan amino acid to it.

The mRNA will only be used to create non-critical proteins forthe cell.

Question 15

Over the last several decades, the scientific community hasgathered a large amount of information regarding genetics andgenetic variation. What are two main sources that lead toincreased genetic variation?.912.l.15.15>

Selective breeding

Gamete mutations

Recombination

Genetic drift

salmonlouse680

Messenger RNA (mRNA)...

a) Is a structural part of a ribosome

b) Brings amino acids to DNA

c) Carries genetic information from the nucleus to the cytoplasm

d) Is a structural part of a chromosome

e) Initiates and directs chemical reactions

Mr. Potato is homozygous dominant (KK), his son, Potato Jr. is heterozygous (Kk). Based on this information, what are the possible genotypes for Mrs. Potato? (Hint: use a Punnet Square).

a) Her genotype is definitely kk

b) Her genotype is either Kk or kk

c) Her genotype is either KK or Kk

d) Her genotype is either KK, or Kk, or kk

e) Mr. Potato cannot be Potato Jrâs biological father

12. Homologous chromosomes:

a) Are members of different chromosome pairs

b) Are genetically identical

c) Carry genetic information that influences the same traits (same genes but probably different alleles)

d) Are only inherited from the mother

e) Are only inherited from the father.

âFitnessâ in an evolutionary sense, refers to an individualâs:

a) Strength

b) Reproductive success

c) Aggressiveness

d) Size

e) Age at death

The fact that individuals who possess favorable traits are more likely to survive and reproduce than those who possess less favorable traits is the basis for the theory of...

a) uniformitarianism.

b) natural selection.

c) the inheritance of acquired characteristics.

d) catastrophism.

e) the fixity of species.

Even with strong selection, genetic variation of a population can be maintained because:

a) Selection only affects one gene at a time.

b) The effects of many alleles are hidden from selection by the effects of other alleles

c) Mutation constantly adds new alleles at an extremely fast rate.

d) Populations always go extinct before their gene frequencies are dramatically altered.

e) Only a and c

Gene Flow is defined as the:
a) Production of new alleles
b) New musical group in which Adam Levine will be the leading vocalist
c) Exchange of genes between populations
d) differential reproductive success of individuals
e) Process by which a DNA base gets extracted out of the nucleus to initiate the process of protein synthesis.

The basic unit of DNA is a molecule called a: a) Nucleotide

b) Base
c) Thymine
d) Prokaryoticcell e) mRNA

How many bases code for one amino acid? a) one

b) two
c) it depends on what amino acid it is d) three
e) four

Hemophilia is a condition that affects: a) more females than males
b) more males than females
c) females and males equally

d) only children born prematurely
e) individuals with a missing portion of chromosome number 5

A clear example of directional selection is:
a) Darwin finches with deeper and thicker beaks associated to a severe drought b) Sickle cell anemia in regions in which Malaria is endemic
c) Achondroplasticdwarfism
d) Fly halteres becoming fully developed wings after modification of a hox gene e) all of the above

Meiosis is evolutionarily significant because:
a) New combination of alleles can arise through independent assortment and crossing over

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b) It is the mechanism by which body tissues are repaired
c) It creates somatic cells that are crucial for our body organs to maintain us alive d) It allows forensics to determine the cause of death of unidentified people
e) none of the above

Homologous chromosomes:

a) Are exact copies of each other and contain exactly the same genetic material
b) Are members of different chromosome pairs
c) Are only inherited from the father
d) carry genetic information that influences the same traits (the same genes), however, each of the homologous chromosomes can contain different versions of the same gene (different alleles).

e) carry genetic information that influences different traits because each of the homologous chromosomes contains completely different genes at very different loci

How many chromosome pairs occur in a normal human somatic cell?

a) 46 b) 23 c) 22 d) 24 e) 45

What is the scientific method? Use bullet points to describe the 4 major components.

How is a hypothesis different from a theory?

List the four major components (described during class) necessary for natural selection to occur [AKA Darwinâs Four Postulates] (PDF1-3).

27. Who was Thomas Malthus? In what way(s) Malthus was influential for Darwinâs Theory of Natural Selection? Hint: populations vs resources.

29. What amino acids are being coded for by the gene segment provided below? Nucleotide triplets and their corresponding amino acids are:
ACA= Cysteine; AAA=Phenylalanine; TGG=Threonine; CCT=Glycine; GAT=Leucine; ATA=Tyrosine; AGG=Serine; TCT=Arginine

a) Threonine, serine, glycine, tyrosine, leucine, phenylalanine, arginine, cysteine.

b) Tyrosine, leucine, glycine, threonine, arginine, threonine, serine, cysteine.

c) Arginine, cysteine, serine, glycine, threonine, leucine, phenylalanine, tyrosine.

d) Phenylalanine, leucine, tyrosine, glycine, serine, threonine, cysteine, arginine.

e) Phenylalanine, leucine, tyrosine, glycine, threonine, phenylalanine, arginine, serine.

Highlight or bold the answer you select for multiple choice or type in your answer in the blank space provided.

1. Which of the following is not true of the nervous system?

Consists of central and peripheral systems

(b) Central nervous system is composed of brain and spinal cord

(d) Meninges are membranes that cover brain and spinal cord

(e) Normally free of microbes

2. Which of the following is a common cause of meningitis in nonimmunized young children?

(a) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(b) Escherichia coli

(d) Haemophilus influenzae

(e) None of the above

3. A complication of infection with this organism (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome) can occur if the organism becomes widely distributed in the body, leading to endotoxin shock and death. The organism is:

(a) Haemophilus influenzae type A

(b) Neisseria meningitidis

(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

4. Which of the following bacterial meningitis diseases currently is the most common type in the U.S., with increased incidences in infants and in the 15- to 24-year-old age group, and has three types or strains of the infectious microbe?

(a) Haemophilus meningitis

(b) Listeriosis

(d) Meningococcal meningitis

(e) a and c

5. Before development of a vaccine against this microbe, the disease it caused accounted for two-thirds of bacterial meningitis cases during the first year of life but is still the number one leading cause of mental retardation in patients who survive serious disease due to permanent central nervous system disorders. What is the microorganism?

(a) Haemophilus influenzae type B

(b) Haemophilus influenzae type A

(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

6. Which of the following bacteria that may cause meningitis is Gram-positive and therefore does not cause endotoxin shock in infected individuals?

(a) Escherichia coli

(b) Neisseria meningitidis

(d) Haemophilus influenzae type B

(e) None of these

7. Avid swimmers and hot tub enthusiasts sometimes acquire an opportunistic infection caused by Naegleria fowleri that results in a meningoencephalitis. This organism is a (an):

(a) Protist

(b) Helminth

(d) Amoeba

(e) a and d

8. Which of the following in NOT true about listeriosis?

(a) Foodborne transmission is the most common source of infection.

(b) It is a leading cause of bacterial meningitis today.

(d) It is sometimes acquired as a zoonosis.

(e) Individuals with impaired immune systems are highly susceptible to this disease.

9. Viral meningitis is usually always fatal if untreated, unlike bacterial meningitis, which is always self-limiting and nonfatal. True or false?

10. Which of the following is acid-fast and causes Hansen's disease?

(a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

(b) Clostridium tetani

(d) Haemophilus influenzae

(e) Mycobacterium leprae

11. An immunofluorescent antibody test (IFAT) has replaced the older test for the presence of inclusions in neurons (Negri bodies) for the detection of infections caused by:

(a) Neisseria meningitidis

(b) Enteroviruses

(d) Rabies virus

(e) Haemophilus influenza

12. The viruses that cause encephalitis are most likely to be:

(a) Togaviruses

(b) Enteroviruses

(d) Rabies virus

(e) Hepatitis viruses

13. What do the following viral encephalitis diseases have in common: eastern equine encephalitis, western equine encephalitis, Venezuelan equine encephalitis, St. Louis encephalitis, West Nile fever?

(a) They are all caused by the same virus.

(b) They are have the horse as a common intermediate host.

(d) Birds are never involved in the life cycle of the viruses that cause these diseases.

(e) Both a and d.

14. The only bacterium known to damage peripheral nerves is:

(a) Naegleria fowleri

(b) Mycobacterium leprae

(d) Neisseria meningitidis

(e) Haemophilus influenzae

15. All of the following are true about Clostridium tetani, the causative agent of tetanus, EXCEPT:

(a) They are spore-forming rods.

(b) They are part of the normal bowel microflora of horses, cattle, and humans.

(d) Their toxin elicits muscle stiffness, spasms, and paralysis in the victim.

(e) They require oxygen to survive.

16. A vaccine that was developed in 1933 has proven effective in reducing the incidence of disease caused by:

(a) Clostridium botulinum

(b) Mycobacterium leprae

(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

17. The most common form of disease caused by Clostridium botulinum is:

(a) Infant

(b) Wound

(d) Foodborne

(e) None of these

18. The endospores of this organism are the most heat-resistant known; it is:

(a) Clostridium tetani

(b) Clostridium botulinum

(d) Streptococcus thermicos

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

19. All of the following are true about Clostridium botulinum, the causative agent of botulism, EXCEPT:

(a) Their ability to form toxin depends on infection with a bacteriophage.

(b) They can produce one of eight different toxins, all of which cause human disease.

(d) Although their endospores are highly heat-resistant, their toxin can be inactivated by only a few minutes' boiling.

(e) All of the above are true.

20. All of the following are true about poliomyelitis EXCEPT:

(a) Most poliovirus infections are inapparent or mild and nonparalytic.

(b) Polio can be caused by three strains of picornaviruses.

(c) The Salk vaccine contains live, attenuated polioviruses while the Sabin vaccine contains formalin-inactivated polioviruses.

(d) Transmission is by the fecal-oral route and pharyngeal secretions.

(e) Poliomyelitis has afflicted man for thousands of years.

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BIOLOGY 2B03 Lecture Notes - Lecture 11: Hela, Terminal Deoxynucleotidyl Transferase, Substantia Nigra

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