Log in
HomeClass Notes1,200,000CA670,000

BIO 1140 Lecture Notes - Lecture 9: Protein Structure, Troponin, Tryptophan

31 views7 pages
peardinosaur3
28 Dec 2017
School
University of Ottawa
Department
Biology
Course
BIO 1140
Professor
Caroline Petit- Turcotte

For unlimited access to Class Notes, a Class+ subscription is required.

Document Summary

True or false: cells can derive genes from any given protein: false. From a protein a cell cannot obtain dna. Dna flow goes this way dna > rna > protein. Some rna can be reverse transcribed to dna. Rna termination depends on rho proteins only in prokaryotes. Do(cid:374)"t ha(cid:448)e a (cid:374)u(cid:272)leus > (cid:373)rna is immediately mature, Immature mrna, pre-messenger rna, needs to be immediately translated processed and matured before it can leave nucleus to be. Have one polymerase rna that does everything in translated into protein. Specific rna polymerases depending on which rna you are trying to produce in nucleus cytosol. Transcription factors (proteins that are interacting with specific sequences on the dna) and their role is to recruit the. The polymerase joining the area where the transcription factors were and there was additional proteins that came and assembled and completed this complex of proteins and enzymes.

Get access

Grade+
$40 USD/m
Billed monthly
Grade+
Homework Help
Study Guides
Textbook Solutions
Class Notes
Textbook Notes
Booster Class
10 Verified Answers
Class+
$30 USD/m
Billed monthly
Class+
Homework Help
Study Guides
Textbook Solutions
Class Notes
Textbook Notes
Booster Class
7 Verified Answers

Related textbook solutions

Molecular Cell Biology
8 Edition,
Lodish
ISBN: 9781464183393
Biology: Science for Life with Physiology
6 Edition,
Belk
ISBN: 9780134555430
Biology
2nd Edition, 2013
Openstax
ISBN: 9781947172517
Concepts of Biology
OER Edition,
Openstax
ISBN: 9781938168116
Essentials of Biology
5 Edition,
Mader
ISBN: 9781259660269

Related Documents

BIO 1140
Final Exam
Study Guide
BIO 1140 Midterm: MIDTERM II TOPIC 7 REVIEW
redcicada247
BIO 1140 Lecture Notes - Lecture 16: Sigma Factor, Polyadenylation, Eukaryote
plumferret19
BIO 1140 Lecture 13: Transcription pt.1
ochreduck341

Related Questions

13

Which of the two major categories of the chemical reactions in photosynthesis is oxygen the INDIRECT product?

A

Glycolysis

B

Oxidative phosphorylation

C

Both light and dark

D

Light independent phase (LIP)

E

Light dependent phase (LDP)

14

You have a stomach flu characterized by vomiting. Which of the following systems is most responsible for the food in your stomach going the wrong way, e.g. vomiting? (Disregard this question and answer choice B)

A

Cardiac Muscle in the large intestine as discussed in class.

B

Smooth muscle in the gastrointestinal tract

C

Smooth muscle in the blood vessels

D

Skeletal muscle in the intestine

15

Proteins are made from which of the following smaller sub units?

A

Nucleotides

B

Amino acids that cannot enter the blood stream and go to cells

C

Monosaccharides

D

Fatty acids

E

Amino acids which can form new protein

16

Carbohydrates are digested in the gastrointestinal system into which of the following substances that is the smallest structure?

A

Polysaccharides that are produced by glucagon

B

Monosaccharides that are produced by insulin

C

Monosaccharides

D

Polysaccharide

17

Which of the following biomolecules has the longest digestion time? In other words, how long does it take for the biomolecule to be catabolized?

A

DNA

B

Lipid

C

Carbohydrate

D

Protein

18

You are sunburned after a long day at the beach. Which one is not an example of UV damage to your skin cells?

A

A mutation can occur in your ovaries

B

A mutation can occur in skin cell DNA that can lead to errors in transcription.

C

Errors can occur during DNA replication.

D

UV light can cause mutations in DNA of skins cells.

E

Thymine bases in your skin DNA bond with each other instead of across the double helix

19

This region, the ______________ (a) tells RNA polymerase where to bind to DNA while this region, the ______________ (b) tells RNA where to start transcription.

A

(a) promoter, (b) open reading frame

B

(a) start codon, (b) methionine

C

(a) promoter, (b) start site

D

(a) start site, (b) promoter

20

The genetic code is used to translate ______________ into ______________.

A

lipids, nucleotides

B

nucleotides,carbohydrates

C

nucleotides, lipids

D

nucleotides, amino acids

E

nucleosides, amino acids

21

Transcription of a gene has just completed. What are the next steps (in the correct order) to complete expression of that gene?

A

RNA polymerase makes a copy of DNA into mRNA.

B

mRNA is translated in the nucleus and ribosomal RNA moves into the cytoplasm.

C

Gene expression is completed after transcription.

D

mRNA moves into the cytoplasm and with tRNA they interact to form protein

E

Translation machinery moves into the nucleus and mRNA is translated into protein.

22

How is it that a mutation in DNA stored inside the nucleus of a cell can cause a disease affecting multiple organs?

A

This remains an unanswered question in science that scientists are still trying to figure out.

B

The mutated DNA is expressed in multiple cells through the process of transcription and translation, and the altered protein causes the disease wherever the DNA was expressed.

C

The mutated DNA is expressed in one cell and the altered protein travels to multiple organs to cause disease.

D

The mutated DNA is expressed and the mRNA takes the mutated information to other cells where the altered protein is made to cause disease in that organ.

23

The advantage of sickle cell anemia is which of the following?

A

It decreases the amount of oxygen in the blood cells so that mosquitoes carrying malaria will live

B

It decreases the amount of oxygen in the blood cells so that mosquitoe's blood form will die.

C

It allows the blood vessels to decrease the amount of blood going to the toes and feet.

D

There is none.

24

Which of the following is a purpose of cell division?

A

Cell reproduction

B

Growth

C

Repair

D

All of these

Which of the following did Erwin Chargaff observe?

A)

Base composition changes as the organism ages.

B)

Base composition of DNA does not vary from one species toanother.

C)

In all species the number of adenines equals the number ofguanines.

D)

In all species A + T = G + C.

E)

DNAs isolated from different tissues of the same species havethe same base composition.

The melting temperature (Tm) of a DNA duplex is:

A)

the temperature at which double-stranded nucleic acids degradeinto free nucleotides.

B)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA is toosingle-stranded to ever renature back to double strands.

C)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA is completelymelted.

D)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA has become 50%single-stranded.

E)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA begins to melt.

Given your knowledge and the descriptions of each of thesemethods, which of the following does NOT rely on the ability ofnucleic acids to hybridize with each other?

A)

Southern blotting for the detection of specific DNA fragmentsthat have been separated by gel electrophoresis.

B)

Colony blot hybridization to identify a specific sequence from acollection of sequences that have been inserted into bacteria.

C)

Northern blotting for the detection of specific RNA fragmentsthat have been separated by gel electrophoresis.

D)

A DNA oligonucleotide microarray incubated with probes made fromcDNA.

E)

Western blotting for the detection of specific proteins thathave been separated by gel electrophoresis.

Which of the following is a possible reason why DNA uses thymineinstead of uracil?

A)

Cytidine is deaminated to uracil so it would be difficult forany repair mechanism to differentiate between uracil that belongsin the sequence and uracil that resulted from deamination.

B)

Adenine is deaminated to uracil so it would be difficult for anyrepair mechanism to differentiate between uracil that belongs inthe sequence and uracil that resulted from deamination.

C)

When uracil is bound to a deoxyribose it will become morereactive, forming covalent bonds with other bases.

D)

None of the above.

Which of the following is an enzyme used in cloning to breakcovalent bonds?

A)

DNA ligase

B)

Restriction endonuclease

C)

Reverse transcriptase

D)

DNA polymerase I

E)

Alkaline phosphatase

Which of the following could you use to remove the 5' phosphatesafter cleavage of a plasmid with a single type of restrictionenzyme to ensure that the plasmid would not simply fuse backtogether upon addition of ligase?

A)

Reverse transcriptase

B)

Alkaline phosphatase

C)

DNA ligase

D)

DNA polymerase I

E)

Restriction endonuclease

Which of the following would you use to create a cDNA librarythat you would not use for a genomic library?

A)

Alkaline phosphatase

B)

Reverse transcriptase

C)

Restriction endonuclease

D)

DNA ligase

E)

DNA polymerase I

A plasmid vector typically has which of the followingfeatures?

A)

An origin of replication

B)

A selectable marker to ensure that the only bacteria growingcontain the intact or recombinant vector.

C)

Unique restriction sites for insertion of DNA.

D)

Small size to facilitate entry into the cell and biochemicalmanipulation of the DNA.

E)

All of the above are features of plasmid vectors.

Which of the following is FALSE of genomic or cDNAlibraries?

A)

Genes represented in cDNA libraries include control sequencesthat direct transcription.

B)

cDNA libraries contain cDNAs made from mRNA.

C)

Genomic libraries contain fragments of genomic DNA that aregenerated by partial digests with restriction enzymes.

D)

Genomic libraries usually contain large fragments and are likelyto be constructed in YAC or BAC vectors.

E)

cDNA libraries contain sequences from expressed genes only.

Which of the following is NOT a typical component of apolymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

A)

dNTPs

B)

DNA containing the sequences to be amplified

C)

DNA ligase to connect the fragments together

D)

Primers complementary to each end of the sequence to beamplified

E)

Heat stable Taq polymerase

How can a fusion protein be formed?

A)

Site-directed mutagenesis where a fragment is replaced with asynthetic sequence containing the altered DNA sequence.

B)

Two proteins can recombine in the bacterial cell to form a newhybrid protein.

C)

Portions of two different genes are ligated together to create anew hybrid gene. When expressed the gene product is a fusion of thetwo gene products.

D)

Using oligonucleotide-directed mutagenesis to introduce specificmutations that cause the expressed protein to fuse to otherproteins.

E)

A portion of the gene can be removed to form a shorter gene andtherefore a shorter protein.

Why is green fluorescent protein (GFP) so useful in visualizingfusion proteins in eukaryotes?

A)

The GFP protein recognizes and binds to fusion proteins allowingthe location of the fusion protein to be determined.

B)

The reaction is only dependent on the presence of GFP and oneother cofactor.

C)

It is easily cloned and expressed in bacterial cells.

D)

The presence of just a few molecules of GFP fusion proteins canbe sufficient for observing the proteins microscopically allowingthe study of its location and movements in the cell.

E)

It is derived from fire flies, which are easy to cultivate inthe lab.

You wish to determine the cellular location of a protein butunfortunately it is not particularly antigenic (can t develop astrong antibody response). How could you solve this problem?

A)

Create a fusion protein with an epitope tag that can bevisualized by incubation with fluorescently tagged antibody to theepitope.

B)

Create a fusion with green fluorescent protein (GFP).

C)

Express the protein as a fusion with biotin. The addition of GFPwill cause fluorescence.

D)

A and B might work.

E)

A, B, and C might work.

F)

None of the above will work.

A positive result for the yeast two-hybrid analysis means thefollowing:

A)

The proteins that you are studying can be made into fusionproteins, but do NOT interact with each other within the nucleus ofyeast.

B)

A fusion protein containing the Gal4p activation domain, hasbound to RNA polymerase resulting increase transcription ofnumerous genes, including the reporter gene, and formation ofcolonies.

C)

Two fusion proteins, one containing the Gal4p binding sitedomain and one containing the Gal4p activation domain, haveinteracted through their Gal4p domains resulting in transcriptionof the reporter gene.

D)

Two fusion proteins interact with each other and because of theGal4p binding site domain and the Gal4p activation domain containedin each fusion protein, the reporter genes are activated and thecells die resulting in no colonies.

E)

The colonies growing are expressing the two fusion proteins, butthe two proteins have not interacted with each other.

Which of the following is the approximate size of the humangenome?

A)

3 Gm

B)

300 Kb

C)

3 Mb

D)

3 Gb

E)

3 Mm

Which of the following is correct about the structure orlocation of genes?

Question 22 options:

A)

Prokaryotic genes typically possess their own regulatorysequences that only control expression of a single gene.

B)

Eukaryotic genes often encode introns that are spliced outbefore translation.

C)

Eukaryotic genes are mostly located at the telomeres and thecentromeres of chromosomes.

D)

Eukaryotic genes are typically arranged in operons.

E)

Prokaryotic genes often encode exons that are spliced out beforetranslation

13. The arms of a human and the wing of a bat are _________________ structures, composed of the same bones that have been modified for different functions.

a. analogous
b. vestigial
c. homologous
d. convergent

14. Xeroderma pigmentosum is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder. People who are homozygous for the disease-causing allele have skin that is damaged by exposure to ultraviolet radiation; this can lead to skin cancer at an early age. The mutation that causes this disorder is in a gene that functions:

a. to repair DNA by excising (removing) nucleotides damaged by UV light.
b. in lysosomes, to break down lipids that otherwise accumulate in the nervous system.
c. to produce the UV blocking pigment melanin in the skin cells
d. in red blood cells to carry oxygen to the skin.

15. The Amish are a religious sect descended from a small group of colonists who came to the United States over 200 years ago. Their religious beliefs have kept them isolated from society. The Amish have a much higher than average incidence of both polydactyly (extra fingers and toes) and dwarfism in their communities. This is most likely explained by:

a. inheritance of acquired characters.
b. the founder effect.
c. disruptive selection.
d. natural selection.

16. In the structure of DNA that Watson and Crick proposed, the sides of the "ladder" of the DNA molecule are always the same distance apart, making the molecule a constant width. This occurs because when the bases hydrogen bond to form the rungs of the "ladder", a:

a. purine always pairs with a pyrimidine.
b. purine always pairs with a purine.
c. pyrimidine always pairs with a pyrmidine.
d. The structure of the double helix is not determined by how the bases pair.

17. The RNA transcript of DNA that travels to the cytoplasm, carrying the instructions to make a protein, is called:

a. rRNA.
b. tRNA.
c. mRNA.
d. RNA polymerase.

18. When DNA is replicated, the error rate is approximately one error for every 10,000 nucleotides copied. However, that error rate is reduced to only 1 error for every 1 billion nucleotides. The DNA sequence is "corrected" by:

a. repeating S phase to see if the error rate is lower the second time around.
b. enzymes that proofread the DNA and repair errors.
c. messenger RNA during the process of transcription.
d. Any errors made during DNA replication cannot be corrected. If errors are detected after S phase, the cell is destroyed.

19. Mendel's principle of segregation says that:

a. when gametes are formed, each gamete receives only one allele for a particular gene.
b. some genes are dominant to others.
c. a testcross must be used to determine the genotype of an organism with a dominant phenotype.
d. all of the above

20. Tay-Sachs disease is lethal before reproductive age, but the allele persists in Louisiana French Canadians because:

a. it is a dominant allele.
b. new mutations causing this disease are common in that population.
c. it is not expressed in the phenotype of heterozygous individuals.
d. the disease is contagious and can be transmitted by nonheritable means.

21. Physical features that are similar in organisms which are not closely related to each other are most likely a result of ____________. A good example of this is the similarities seen between some marsupial and placental mammals.

a. natural selection.
b. adaptation to similar environments
c. convergent evolution
d. All of the above phrases can be used to correctly fill this blank.

22. In humans, which of the following sex chromosome compliments could be found in males?

a. XY
b. XX
c. Y

23. The proteins that are associated with eukaryotic chromosomes:

a. help to package the DNA within the nucleus.
b. are involved in gene expression, through binding with the DNA.
c. may be replicating or transcribing the DNA.
d. All of these are true of proteins that are associated with eukaryotic chromosomes.

24. A sequence of DNA nucleotides that contains the information to produce a single protein is a(n):

a. codon.
b. gene.
c. polypeptide.
d. anticodon.