ECO101H1 Lecture Notes - Lecture 13: Glossary Of Partner Dance Terms, Open Economy, Parsec

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Externalities when third parties are affected by the production or consumption of a good (impact of them into consideration) Shift of curve depends on which side is affected. Market based policy: pigouvian taxes internalise the externality, cap and trade in the context of environmental regulation, market based policy will arrive at the optimal level of pollution. Free-rider problem: once a public good is provided, you can not be prevented from using it -> Efficient level of production: mb for society > mc. Gdp: value of output that is produced domestically. Cpi = value of basket measured in current prices/value of basket in base year x 100. Unemployment rate = number of people unemployed/number of people in the labor force x 100. Interest rate = nominal i = real i + inflation. Function that describes the desired expenditure by households, firms at each level of real income. Equilibrium gdp: desired ae = real gdp (y)

Related Questions

1.Ceteris paribus, if the U.S. federal government reduces its budget deficit which of the following will be observed?

Answer

	a.	The aggregate demand curve will shift to the right.
	b.	The economy will always approach potential GDP.
	c.	The marginal propensity to consume will increase.
	d.	The average price level will increase.
	e.	The aggregate demand curve will shift to the left.

2. If the government wants to close a GDP gap, it can:

Answer

	a.	lower government spending on social security.
	b.	adopt contractionary fiscal policies to control inflation.
	c.	increase its budget deficit.
	d.	repay its borrowings.
	e.	raise both direct and indirect tax rates.

3. Suppose the short-run equilibrium level of income exceeds the full employment level of income and there is high inflation. Hence, the government decides to implement a fiscal policy that will act to reduce national output and price level. This can be accomplished by:

Answer

	a.	lowering average tax rates such that aggregate supply is increased.
	b.	increasing government spending such that aggregate expenditures are increased.
	c.	increasing transfer payments such that aggregate expenditures decline.
	d.	raising taxes and government spending by the same amount such that aggregate supply is decreased and aggregate demand is increased.
	e.	decreasing government spending such that aggregate demand is reduced.

4. A drop in investment spending caused by increased government budget deficits is referred to as:

Answer

	a.	the multiplier effect.
	b.	crowding out.
	c.	an expansionary gap.
	d.	the paradox of thrift.
	e.	the Ricardian equivalence.

5. Discretionary fiscal policy is best defined as:

Answer

	a.	the deliberate manipulation of the money supply to expand the economy.
	b.	the deliberate change in tax laws and government spending to change equilibrium income.
	c.	the policy action taken by the Congress to reduce the federal budget deficit.
	d.	the arbitrary fluctuation in tax laws and budget requirements.
	e.	the automatic change in certain fiscal instruments when real GDP changes.

6. Which of the following can be considered as an automatic stabilizer in the economy?

Answer

	a.	Money supply
	b.	Disposable income
	c.	Real exchange rate
	d.	Real interest rate
	e.	Unemployment insurance

7. Which of the following is true about automatic stabilizers?

Answer

	a.	When income rises, automatic stabilizers increase/boost spending.
	b.	Automatic stabilizers are a part of discretionary fiscal policy.
	c.	An automatic stabilizer is any program that responds to fluctuations in the business cycle in a way that moderates the effects of those fluctuations.
	d.	Any kind of trade policy adopted by the government will be considered as an automatic stabilizer.
	e.	The interest rate is an example of an automatic stabilizer.

8. Increased budget deficits

Answer

	a.	can cause interest rates to increase and hence decrease net exports
	b.	have no effect on net exports
	c.	can cause interest rates to decrease and hence increase net exports
	d.	never impose additional interest costs on the government

9. The Ricadian Equivalence implies that when financing additional government expenditures

Answer

	a.	there is no difference between increasing current taxes or borrowing now and increasing taxes in the future because consumption will decrease either way.
	b.	there is no difference between increasing current taxes or borrowing now and increasing taxes in the future because consumption will increase either way.
	c.	increasing borrowing is the best option
	d.	increasing current taxes is the best option

10. Assuming no effects on aggregate supply, if the government increases government spending and decreases taxes in an attempt to prevent a possible recession, aggregate demand will shift to the ____, the price level will either remain constant or ____, and the level of real GDP will ____.

Answer

	a.	right; decrease; increase
	b.	right; decrease; decrease
	c.	left; decrease; decrease
	d.	left; increase; increase
	e.	right; increase; increase

11. For a hypothetical economy, the MPS is 0.08 and the MPI is 0.17. If government spending increases by $35 and taxes increase by $35, what will be the net effect on equilibrium income?

Answer

	a.	A decrease of $35
	b.	An increase of $105
	c.	An increase of $35
	d.	A decrease of $105
	e.	A decrease of $15

12.12. The term fiscal policy refers to

Answer

	a.	the adjustment of the GDP for inflation.
	b.	the purchase and sale of U.S. government securities to regulate the money supply.
	c.	the use of government spending and taxation to influence the level of economic growth and inflation.
	d.	the use of fines to penalize unfair business practices.
	e.	a policy action by Congress to overrule unpopular budget cuts by the president.

13. If aggregate demand intersects aggregate supply in the vertical range of the aggregate supply curve, then, other things equal, an increase in government spending will

Answer

	a.	raise the price level and leave real GDP unchanged.
	b.	raise real GDP by the amount indicated by the government spending multiplier and leave the price level unchanged.
	c.	raise both real GDP and the price level by a multiple of the initial spending increase.
	d.	have no effect on real GDP or on the price level, because all private investment will be crowded out.
	e.	lower real GDP by an amount equal to the spending increase and reduce inflation.

14. Which of the following is not a means to finance government spending?

Answer

	a.	Government subsidies
	b.	Government debt
	c.	Capital gains taxes
	d.	Personal income taxes
	e.	Money creation

15. An automatic stabilizer is

Answer

	a.	a change in government spending aimed at achieving a policy goal.
	b.	an element of fiscal policy that automatically changes in value as real GDP changes.
	c.	an element of monetary policy that automatically changes in value as real GDP changes.
	d.	a decrease in tax rates as the economy moves into a recession.
	e.	a deliberate change in taxation aimed at increasing real GDP.

16. Budget deficits tend to grow during recessions because

Answer

	a.	real GDP growth is zero, which causes neither tax receipts nor government expenditures to grow.
	b.	real GDP growth is positive, which reduces both tax receipts and transfer payments.
	c.	real GDP growth is negative, which reduces transfer payments in relation to tax receipts.
	d.	real GDP growth is negative, which reduces tax receipts in relation to government expenditures.
	e.	real GDP growth is positive, which increases tax receipts in relation to government expenditures.

10.

The long-run aggregate supply curve (LRAS) is Y = Yf, which depends on the amounts of resources and the level of technology innovation. If a country has more resources and better technology, which of the following is true?

		A. The LRAS curve will shift to the right.
		B. The SRAS will shift to the right.
		C. The SRAS will shift to the left.
		D. Only A and B.
		E. Only A and C.

11.

Suppose the wage rates of workers are based on the expected price level. If there is an unexpected increase in AD, it will cause the actual price level to increase. Then workers should raise their expected price level and negotiate a higher wage rate. Then which of the following is most likely to be true when the expected price increases?

		A. The SRAS curve will shift rightward.
		B. The SRAS curve will shift leftward.
		C. The LRAS curve will shift leftward.
		D. Only A and C.
		E. Only B and C.

12.

Suppose the economy is in the long-run equilibrium, i.e., Y = Yf, and there is an unexpected decrease in AD. Assume that Yf is fixed, then which of the following is most likely to be true?

		A. The SRAS curve will shift to the right toward the new long-run equilibrium.
		B. The SRAS curve will shift to the left toward the new long-run equilibrium.
		C. In the new long-run equilibrium, price level will be higher.
		D. Only A and C.
		E. Only B and C.

13.

The short-run (SR) equilibrium is the intersection between AD and SRAS, and long-run (LR) equilibrium is the intersection between AD and LRAS. Every LR equilibrium is a SR equilibrium, but a SR equilibrium is not always the LR equilibrium. If an economy is operating at a SR equilibrium where Y > Yf, which of the following will occur in the process toward the new LR equilibrium when the economy corrects itself?

		A. Price increases.
		B. Real GDP decreases.
		C. Unemployment rate falls.
		D. Only A and B.
		E. Only B and C.

14.

From the Keynesians, Y = C + I + G + NX can be transformed into a theoretical model. In particular, assume that the consumption C = A + mpc (Y-T), where A is a constant, mpc is the marginal propensity to consume, Y is national income and T is income taxes. Suppose in the goods market equilibrium, aggregate expenditure = national income such that the two Y's will be the same from Y = A + mpc (Y-T) + I + G+ NX. . Suppose C = 400 + 0.75(Y â T). G = 100, I = 100, T = 100, and NX = 150, what is the Y in the goods market equilibrium? (All of the variables are in terms of million dollars)

$ million
Please enter a whole number, with no decimal point.

15.

Continue to assume that C = 400 + 0.75 (Y - 100), I = 100, and NX = 150. But the government now increases spending from 100 to 200, how much is the new Y in the goods market equilibrium?

$ million
Please enter a whole number, with no decimal point.

16.

Continue to assume that C = 400 + 0.75 (Y - 100). Then which of the following is true?

		A. The government spending multiplier = 4.
		B. The tax multiplier = 3.
		C. If the government increases spending by $50 million, and at the same time increases taxes by $50 milion to balance the budget, AD will shift to the right by $50 million.
		D. Only A and C.
		E. Only B and C.

17.

Suppose the federal government needs to balance the budget, which means that when the government spending increases, taxes must increase equally. In this case, government spending multiplier is called the balanced-budget multiplier, defined as the increase in real GDP/increase in government spending. By following the example from the previous question, how mcuh is the balanced-budget multiplier?

Please enter a whole number, with no decimal point.

pearseal539

41.Which of the following is a valid statement about the Keynesian and classical models of the macroeconomy?

A. Fiscal policy will affect output in the Keynesian model, but only the price level in the classical model.

B. The economy adapts quickly to demand shocks under the Keynesian model, but not under the classical model.

C. A sharp decrease in the value of a nation's currency will lead to higher price levels in the Keynesian model, but not in the classical model.

D. Increases in autonomous expenditure will increase aggregate demand in the Keynesian model, but not in the classical model.

E. An increase in the productive capacity of an economy will result in greater output in both the Keynesian and classical models.

42. Suppose the government spends $500M on a project that has absolutely no value to the country. Which statement about this project is correct?

A. If taxes were raised $500M to fund this project, the Keynesian model predicts that this will have no net effect on output in the economy.

B. If the government raised the money for this project by printing $500M in bonds and selling them to the Fed, the effect is exactly the same as if they sold the bonds to households.

C. The project will increase aggregate supply because it will increase the total quantity of goods and services supplied in the economy.

D. If the marginal propensity to save in the economy is equal to 0.25, the Keynesian model predicts that this project will result in a $2000M increase in GDP.

E. Under the assumptions of the classical model, the result of this project will be increased in both the price level and equilibrium GDP.

43. A particular economy has a consumption of $400M, a government deficit of $100M, taxes of $250M, and income of $800M. Which of the following statements must be true?

A. If the investment is zero, there is no foreign trade imbalance.

B. If the trade surplus is $50M, the investment will be equal to $100M.

C. If the capital account surplus is $50M, the investment will be equal to $100M.

D. If the trade surplus is $100M, there will be an investment.

E. None of the above statements is necessarily true.

44. Which piece of information would be least useful in trying to predict the effect of a $700M increase in government spending on equilibrium GDP?

A. marginal propensity to save

B. The slope of the aggregate supply curve

C. Whether taxes are raised to pay for the spending increase

D. The current level of structural unemployment

E. Whether the bonds used to finance the spending were sold to households or to the Fed

45.Which of the statements relating to full employment and full capacity is false?

A. At full employment there is no frictional unemployment; at full capacity, there is no structural unemployment.

B. The full-employment level of output is less than the full capacity level of output.

C. At full employment there is no cyclical unemployment; at full capacity, there is no frictional unemployment.

D. A government spending increase will result in increased output and price levels at full employment, but only increased price levels at full capacity.

E. In the long run, an economy that starts at full capacity will move to full employment.

46. What would be the effect of a law requiring that government spending equal tax revenues in each year?

A. Fiscal policy would be completely eliminated as a tool to control the macroeconomy.

B. Monetary policy would be completely eliminated as a tool to control the macroeconomy.

C. Fluctuations in GDP would become less severe.

D. The government spending multiplier would be effectively set to 1.0.

E. The marginal propensity to consume would be cut in half.

47.The total value of T-bonds, including T-notes and T-bills, in existence at any point in time, is:

A. The federal government spending deficit.

B. The trade deficit.

C. Less than government spending.

D. Necessarily less than GDP.

E. The national debt.

48. Which of the following would be a valid statement about a government plan to eliminate a trade deficit

A. A decrease in the trade deficit will decrease investment in the country.

B. An effective strategy would be to increase the money supply and increase the value of the national currency.

C. An effective strategy would be to increase interest rates and increase the value of the national currency.

D. This could be achieved through dramatically increasing aggregate supply.

E. The increase in net exports will result in a decrease in aggregate demand.

49. Crowding out has the effect(s) of:

A. Reducing the effectiveness of monetary policy if crowding out occurs in financial markets.

B. Decreasing the value of a nationâs currency if the crowding out occurs in financial markets.

C. Increasing the effectiveness of fiscal policy if the crowding out occurs in financial markets and increasing the effectiveness of monetary policy if the crowding out occurs in product markets.

D. Decreasing the effectiveness of fiscal policy if the crowding out occurs in financial markets and decreasing the effectiveness of both fiscal and monetary policy if the crowding out occurs in product markets.

E. Increasing the price of government bonds if the crowding out occurs in financial markets.

50. Which of the following will make crowding out in credit markets more severe?

A. A steep investment demand curve

B. A global credit market

C. Tax increases

D. A steep supply curve in the loanable funds market

E. None of the above

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ECO101H1 Lecture Notes - Lecture 13: Glossary Of Partner Dance Terms, Open Economy, Parsec

ECO101H1 Full Course Notes

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