Log in
HomeClass Notes1,200,000US530,000

ECN 211 Lecture Notes - Lecture 8: Disposable And Discretionary Income, Loanable Funds

48 views1 pages
cerisegiraffe538
23 Sep 2015
School
ASU
Department
Economics
Course
ECN 211
Professor
Pereira

For unlimited access to Class Notes, a Class+ subscription is required.

Document Summary

Business firms: collects taxes and purchases goods and services, send their income on consumption, taxes, and savings, purchase capital goods (investment spending) Total investment (i) minus change in inventories. Household income minus net taxes: it is either spent or saved. Portion of after-tax income that households do not spend on consumption. Sum of the purchases made by: household sector (c, business sector (ip, government sector (g) Total spending = c + ip + g. Income earned by households that they do not spend on the country"s output during a. Loanable funds market: savers maker their funds available to borrowers. Total supply of loanable funds: is equal to household saving, funds supplied are loaned out. Supply of funds curve: households receive interest payments on these funds, level of household saving at various interest rates.

Get access

Grade+
$40 USD/m
Billed monthly
Grade+
Homework Help
Study Guides
Textbook Solutions
Class Notes
Textbook Notes
Booster Class
10 Verified Answers
Class+
$30 USD/m
Billed monthly
Class+
Homework Help
Study Guides
Textbook Solutions
Class Notes
Textbook Notes
Booster Class
7 Verified Answers

Related Documents

ECN 211
Final Exam
Study Guide
ECN 211 Study Guide - Midterm Guide: Business Cycle, Market Power, Structural Unemployment
cerisegiraffe538
ECON 1020 Chapter Notes - Chapter 24: Business Cycle, Fiscal Multiplier, Transfer Payment
skyporpoise907
ECON 2010 Chapter : Chapter 11
azuremammoth471

Related Questions

1. The multiplier helps explain

   

A. why a decrease in taxes causes real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) to fall by more than the amount of the decrease in taxes.
   

B. why a fall in investment cause real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) to rise by more than the amount of the decrease in investment.
   

C. why a rise in government expenditures causes real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) to rise by more than the amount of the increase in government spending.
   

D. why an increase in disposable income causes real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) to rise by less than the amount of the increase in disposable income.

 

2. If the marginal propensity to save (MPS) increases, the multiplier

   

A. decreases.
   

B. can either increase or decrease, depending on what happens to the marginal propensity to consume (MPC).
   

C. stays the same.
   

D. increases.

 

QUESTION 60

The investment function will shift when there is a change in

   

A. the opportunity cost of retained earnings.
   

B. firms' profit expectations.
   

C. the cost of borrowing.
   

D. the interest rate.

1.43 points

QUESTION 61

In the Keynesian model, whenever planned saving exceeds planned investment,

   

A. there will be unplanned inventory accumulation.
   

B. real GDP will not be influenced.
   

C. the interest rate will remain unchanged.
   

D. there will be unplanned inventory depletion.

 

1.43 points

QUESTION 62

In the Keynesian model, whenever planned saving is less than planned investment,

   

A. there will be unplanned inventory depletion.
   

B. the interest rate will remain unchanged.
   

C. there will be unplanned inventory accumulation.
   

D. real GDP will not be influenced.

 

1.43 points

QUESTION 63

Government purchases

   

A. are determined by the political process.
   

B. are determined by the public.
   

C. are influenced by interest rates.
   

D. are determined by suppliers.

 

1.43 points

QUESTION 64

If, at some level of output, total planned real expenditures are less than real Gross Domestic Product (GDP),

   

A. real GDP will either fall or remain unchanged, depending on the MPC.
   

B. real GDP will rise.
   

C. real GDP remains unchanged.
   

D. unplanned inventories will increase and real GDP will fall.

 

1.43 points

QUESTION 65

When the economy is operating at the equilibrium level of GDP, we know that

   

A. total planned real expenditures equal real GDP.
   

B. real net exports equal inventory changes.
   

C. planned real investment spending equals real net exports of zero.
   

D. total planned real consumption expenditures equal real GDP.

 

1.43 points

QUESTION 66

One divided by the marginal propensity to save (MPS) is the formula for

   

A. the inverse of the multiplier.
   

B. the multiplier.
   

C. one minus the multiplier.
   

D. autonomous consumption.

 

QUESTION 67

Thinking like an economist would, which is true of investment?

   

A. Investment represents spending on capital goods.
   

B. Investment is a stock concept.
   

C. Investment is putting money into stocks and bonds.
   

D. It is the portion of disposable income that is not used for consumption or saving.

 

QUESTION 68

Other things being equal, if input prices rise in a country, then there would be

   

A. cost-push inflation.
   

B. demand-pull inflation.
   

C. cost-pull deflation.
   

D. more production and a lower price level.

 

QUESTION 69

In the short run, if the price level rises, then the overall economy can temporarily produce beyond its nominal capacity. One reason for this is that

   

A. existing capital equipment can be used more intensively.
   

B. wage rates rise almost simultaneously with the price level.
   

C. the unemployment rate usually rises dramatically along with the price level.
   

D. workers can be switched from counted to uncounted production.

1. Which of the following transactions would add to the value of the U.S. GDP?

A. A college student buys a used car.
B. A college student sells her used textbooks back to the bookstore.
C. A grocery store purchases new freezers made in the United States.

D. U.S. citizen buys a new television manufactured in Asia.

2. The growth rate of real GDP:
A. depends on which year is used as the base year.
B. depends on how quickly prices are rising.
C. is always equal to the rate of growth of nominal GDP. D. is always more than the rate of growth of nominal GDP.

3. Which statement is true about GDP?
A. GDP includes the values of all final and intermediate goods and services.
B. Only the products made by American workers are included in the calculation of the US GDP.

C. Sales of old houses and used cars are included in the calculation of GDP for the current year.

D. In the US, GDP is calculated both annually and quarterly.

4. Which statement is true about GDP growth?
A. The GDP deflator is a measure of economic growth.
B. If we want to compare GDP over time, we should always compare real GDP.
C. Most economists choose nominal GDP growth as a single indicator of economic performance.

D. The GDP deflator tells the quantity change of production.

5. Which of the following is a way to compute GDP?

A. add up the wages paid to all workers

B. add up the quantities of all final goods and services
C. add up the market value of all final goods and services

D. add up the rents paid by all tenants

6. A farmer produces oranges and sells them to Fresh Juice, which makes orange juice. The oranges produced by the farmer are called:
A. inventory goods
B. transitory goods

C. final goods
D. intermediate goods

7. Martin, a US citizen, travels to Mexico and buys a newly manufactured motorcycle there. His purchase is included in:

A. both Mexican GDP and US GDP.

B. Mexican GDP, but not in US GDP.

C. US GDP, but not in Mexican GDP.

D. neither Mexican GDP nor US GDP.

8. Which of the following is included in Singapore GDP?

A. The value of production by a Singaporean working in the US.
B. The value of production by an American working in Singapore.
C. The value of production by a Singaporean that crosses the order to work in Malaysia.

D. All of the above are correct.

9. In the equation Y = C + I + G + NX,
A. Y represents the economy's total expenditure.

B. C represents household on durable goods.
C. all of the variables are always positive numbers.

D. All of the above are correct.

10. Consumption consists of spending by households on goods and services, except

purchases of intangible services.

purchases of durable goods.

purchases of new houses.

spending on education.

11. Which of the following is included in government purchase?

A. unemployment benefits a state government pays

B. social security payments the US government makes
C. the services of a US government attorney valued at the cost of her salary

D. All of the above are correct.

12. Transfer payments are:

A. included in GDP because they represent income to individuals.
B. included in GDP because they eventually will be spent on consumption.
C. not included in GDP because they are not payments for currently produced goods or services.

D. not included in GDP because taxes will have to be raised to pay for them.

13. Net exports equal
A. exports plus imports

B. exports minus imports

C. imports minus exports

D.GDP minus imports

14. In the economy of TAMIU in 2015, exports were $200, GDP was $2000, government purchases were $200, imports were $270, and investment was $500. What was TAMIU's consumption in 2015?

A. $830

B. $1230

C. $1370

D. $1770

15. Nominal GDP will increase when

A. prices increase and output increases.
B. prices increase and output decreases.
C. prices decrease and output increases.

D. All of the above are correct.

16. Changes in real GDP reflect:

A. only changes in prices.

B. only changes in the amounts being produced.
C. both changes in prices and changes in the amounts being produced.

D. neither changes in prices nor changes in the amounts being produced.

17. Which of the following is correct?
A. Nominal GDP is always less than real GDP.

B. Nominal GDP is always greater than real GDP.
C. Nominal GDP equals real GDP in the base year.
D. Nominal GDP equals real GDP in all years but the base year.

18. The GDP deflator is the ratio of:

A. real GDP to nominal GDP.

B. real GDP to the inflation rate.
C. real GDP to nominal GDP.
D. nominal GDP to the inflation rate.

19. In 2012 the nominal GDP was $18 billion and the GDP deflator was 120, what was real GDP?
A. $6.7 billion
B. $10 billion

C. $40 billion D. $100 billion

20. In the base year, the GDP deflator is always equal to A. -1
B. 0
C. 2

D. 1

21. GDP does not reflect:

A. the value of leisure.

B. the value of goods and services produced at home.

C. the quality of the environment.
D. All of the above are correct.

22. When economists talk about growth in the economy, they measure that growth as the:

A. absolute change in nominal GDP from one period to another.

B. percentage change in nominal GDP from one period to another.

C. absolute change in real GDP from one period to another.
D. percentage change in real GDP from one period to another.

23. The term economists use to describe a situation in which the economy’s overall price level is rising is:

A. economic growth

B. inflation
C. recession
D. business cycles

Use information from the Bureau of Economic Analysis (BEA) website, http://www.bea.gov/, answer question 24 and 25.

24. What is the real GDP growth rate in the 4th quarter of 2015 for the United States?

A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 3%

D. 4%

25. What is the value of real GDP in 1998 for the United States?

A. $11525.9 billion

B. $9089.2 billion

C. $11321.2 billion

D. $8889.7 billion

1. The Houston Chronicle reported that in Houston, the average price of new homes has decreased, while at the same time, the number of new homes sold has increased. This situation could be explained by which one of the following: (draw curves before answering)

  1. An Increase in demand
  2. An Increase in supply
  3. A Decrease in demand
  4. A Decrease in supply

2. In another market, the average price of new homes fell, while at the same time, the number of new homes sold decreased. The situation would best be explained by (Draw the curves before answering)

  1. An Increase in Demand
  2. An Increase in Supply
  3. A Decrease in demand
  4. A Decrease in supply

3. A consumer is said to have achieved maximum total utility when:

  1. Purchases of Good A give the same satisfaction as purchases of Good B.
  2. Purchases of the last dollar spent on Good A give the same satisfaction as purchases of the last dollar spent on Good B.
  3. The average purchases per dollar of Good A give the same satisfaction as the average purchases per dollar of Good B.
  4. The total utility derived from Good A is the same as the marginal utility derived from Good B.

4. You are given the following information about a firm's present output position: MPP (Marginal Physical Product) of Land = 12; MPP of Labor = 16; Price of Land = $2; Price of Labor = $4. With no additional money to spend, this firm should:

5. A firm achieves the least cost in production by substituting factors until

  1. their factor prices are equal
  2. their marginal products are equal to the factor prices
  3. their marginal products are each equal to zero
  4. the ratios of their marginal product equal the ratio of their prices
  5. none of the above

6.The economy is currently on its production possibilities frontier (PPF). A politician says that it is possible to get more of everything--more infrastructure, more schools, more national defense, more spending on social programs, and so on. The politician is

  1. correct if he is assuming a rightward-shifting PPF.
  2. incorrect if he is assuming a rightward-shifting PPF.
  3. correct if he is assuming a PPF that does not change.
  4. none of the above

7. Assume your swimsuit business is at its maximum profit position, and one new change occurs: consumer incomes decrease. If swimsuits are normal goods, the equilibrium price of swimsuits will __________, and the CONSUMER surplus will ________.

  1. increase, increase
  2. decrease, decrease
  3. increase, decrease
  4. decrease, increase

8. Firms that shuts-down in the short-run still must pay:

  1. Marginal cost
  2. Variable cost
  3. Fixed cost
  4. Total cost

9. The term externalities refer to:

  1. Black-market economic activity.
  2. The impact on markets of imported goods.
  3. The costs and benefits of a market activity borne by a third party.
  4. The inequitable distribution of income.

10. If full external costs are not internalized, firms will tend to allocate more of society's scarce resources to produce than is societally warranted, and if full external benefits are not internalized, firms will allocate less of society's resources to produce than is societally justified. True/False.

11. Joe was very careful about smoking in his home until he bought a fire insurance policy. After buying the policy, he became careless. His attitude is: "I'm insured. What do I care if this place burns down; I'll just collect the money". Joe's attitude is an example of ______________.

12. Megatrust Bank had historically scrutinized loans very carefully and extended them, only to persons whom they considered very creditworthy. They made relatively few loans. However, after the government provided guarantees to sub-prime loans, Megatrust relaxed its standards and increased its loan volume. (And its default rate as well.) This is an example of _______________.

13. In the short-run, if a perfectly competitive firm finds itself operating at a loss, it will

  1. Reduce the size of its plant to lower fixed costs.
  2. Raise the price of its product.
  3. Shut down.
  4. Continue to operate as long as it covers its variable cost.

14. If income today is more equally distributed than it was in 1960, a Lorenz Curve depicting today's distribution would be

  1. More bowed and to the left of the 1960's curve.
  2. More bowed and to the right of the 1960's curve.
  3. Less bowed and to the left of the 1960' curve.
  4. Less bowed and to the right of the 1960's curve.

15. Which of the following statements is true?

  1. As output increases, the average fixed cost becomes smaller and smaller.
  2. Average fixed cost does not change as output increases.
  3. The marginal cost curve intersects the average fixed cost curve at its minimum point.
  4. When marginal cost is greater than average fixed cost, average fixed cost increases.
  5.  

16. A firm in any of the market structures we have studied will maximize its profit (or minimizes its loss) when its

  1. Average costs are at a minimum
  2. Marginal revenue and marginal cost are the same.
  3. Marginal revenue is less than marginal cost.
  4. Marginal revenue is zero.

17. If the demand for a good increase, when the price of other good increases, these goods are

  1. Capital goods
  2. Substitute goods
  3. Complementary goods
  4. Luxury goods

18. Which of the following pairs of products are complementary goods?

  1. mobile phones and laptops
  2. pens and pencils
  3. sugar and artificial sweeteners
  4. radios and television
  5. toothbrushes and toothpaste

19. The amount of a good that is given up to produce another good is:

  1. Scarcity
  2. Specialization
  3. Opportunity cost
  4. Trade
  5. Efficiency

20. The most important characteristic of the equilibrium price is that it:

  1. Guarantees that producers earn a profit.
  2. Increases the quantity demanded.
  3. Clears the market.
  4. Decreases the quantity supplied.

21. Rank the following market structures based on the number of participating firms: From the fewest number of firms to the most number of firms:

  1. Oligopoly
  2. Perfect Competition
  3. Monopoly
  4. Monopolistic Competition

22. If firms in a monopolistically competitive market are earning economic profits which of the following scenarios would best reflect the change facing incumbent firms as the market adjusts to its new equilibrium?

  1. an increase in demand
  2. a decrease in demand
  3. a downward shift in their marginal cost curve
  4. an upward shift in their marginal cost curve


23. If labor in Mexico is less productive than labor in the United States in all areas of production, 

  1. neither nation can benefit from trade
  2. Mexico can benefit from trade but the United States cannot
  3. Mexico will not have a comparative advantage in any good
  4. both nations can benefit from trade

24. Which of the following statements is false?

  1. The typical monopolistically competitive firm could reduce its average total cost if it produced more output.
  2. Monopolistically competitive firms advertise to increase the elasticity of the demand curve they face.
  3. Expensive advertising might help consumers if it is a signal that the product is good.
  4. Brand names acquired at great cost might help consumers by assuring quality.

25. Suppose the state of Wyoming passes a law that increases the tax on cigarettes. As a result, smokers who live in Wyoming start purchasing their cigs in surrounding states. Which of the following principles does this best illustrate:

  1. people respond to incentives
  2. rational people think at the margin
  3. a trademark can make everyone better off
  4. markets are usually a good way to organize economic activity