BPH 206 Lecture Notes - Lecture 9: Syphilis, Tuberculosis, Fetus

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erinmoose14

11 Sep 2019

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Communicable diseases: aka infectious diseases, diseases caused by pathogens that are transmitted directly or indirectly from one person to another, transmission requires the full chain of infection. The evolution of communicable disease in the us. What leads to a rapid spread of disease: population growth, animal husbandry practices and agriculture development, unregulated cross border livestock trade, unhealthy livestock rearing practices- overcrowding, unsanitary, antibiotic use, current production methods. Shift from rural to urban areas: more people live in urban areas than rural areas, deforestation, concentrated populations, overcrowding, close proximity, poor sanitation, poverty, poor education, global everything, borders don"t stop cds, rise in international traffic and commerce. What is public health doing about it: epidemic- sudden surge, beyond constant prevalence of disease, endemic- usual prevalence of disease, in one area, pandemic occurrence- larger geographic locations, globally, two types of public health surveillance. Skin to skin direct contact with mucus membrane discharges. Fecal-oral: occurs when an infectious agent is ingested, hepatitis a coli.

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44.Charlotte touches a doorknob after an individual with MRSA touched the doorknob. Immediately after touching the knob, Charlotte scratches her leg and transmits some MRSA cells into a small wound.The doorknob is functioning as a(n) a. etiologic agent. c. mode of transmission. b. reservoir. d. host. 44.A man infected with a viral respiratory infection sneezes and releases tiny droplets containing viral particles. Two minutes later, a woman breathes in some of these tiny droplets and becomes infected by the same viral infection. The movement of this virus from one individual to another is best described as the a. etiologic agent. c. mode of transmission. b. reservoir. d. host. 45. Although sporadic outbreaks of measles occur in the United States, the disease is considered nonendemic. What differentiates measles from endemic diseases, such as chickenpox? a. Endemic diseases exhibit higher numbers of cases than a sporadic outbreak. b. Diseases that are not endemic lack a reservoir in the area. c. Endemic diseases do not exhibit sporadic outbreaks. d. Diseases that are not endemic remain in reservoirs without infecting humans. 46. Which of the following would indicate efforts to control a disease are working? a. The disease becomes endemic. b. The disease prevalence increases. c. The disease incidence decreases. d. Outbreaks of the disease only occur every other year. 47. Which of the following statements describes one of the three steps of surveillance used for infectious diseases? a. Patients with infectious diseases are required to be seen by a physician at the CDC. b. Physicians are required to submit all patient records electronically to the CDC for review. c. Patient charts are reviewed by an infection control practitioner when an infectious disease is suspected. d. Incidence data is collected in all cases of bacterial infections within the United States. 48. Which of the following lists correctly identifies nosocomial infections from most common to least common? a. urinary tract, pneumonia, septicemia b. pneumonia, urinary tract, surgical wounds c. septicemia, surgical wounds, diarrhea d. diarrhea, urinary tract, pneumonia 49. Mary, an elderly woman with an indwelling catheter, is admitted to a local hospital for treatment of pneumonia. Three days after her admission, Maryâs husband receives a call from the hospital. He is informed that Mary has a nosocomial infection. Which of the following statements is true? a. The nosocomial infection referred to is pneumonia. b. Mary has most likely developed a urinary tract infection. c. Of all hospital patients, 25â30% develop nosocomial infections. d. Maryâs nosocomial infection could have been prevented with improved ventilation. 50. A nurse working in a large hospital harbors MRSA as part of the normal microbiota in his nose. He is most likely the source of a MRSA outbreak if a. infected patients have all had been cared for by this nurse and the isolates are identical. b. the patients are all elderly and the isolates of MRSA are not genetically identical. c. all of the infected patients were seen by the same physician and half of the patients were cared for by this nurse. d. all of the infected patients are on the same floor of the hospital and all have a history of heart problems. 51. Which of the following is NOT an example of aseptic technique? a. use of antiseptic on skin prior to insertion of an IV line b. use of latex gloves during the insertion of an indwelling catheter c. disinfection of doorknobs and other inert surfaces d. use of trash can liners in all patient rooms 52. An individual case of diphtheria, a notifiable infectious disease, in a patient in Florida is confirmed by laboratory testing. This patientâs physician would be required to a. send a letter to the WHO in Geneva, Switzerland. b. contact the CDC in Atlanta, Georgia. c. treat the patient regardless of health insurance status. d. quarantine the patient for eight weeks. 53. Fifteen individuals within one province in China are diagnosed with SARS. Epidemiologists will most likely a. quarantine the entire province immediately. b. contact the CDC in the United States to see if any cases were reported in the United States. c. wait to see if more cases of SARS are reported. d. try to identify the index case. 54. How does vaccinating wild rodents or poultry influence human health? a. Vaccinating wild rodents or poultry has no effect on human health. b. Vaccinating wild rodents or poultry reduces transmission of zoonotic diseases to humans. c. Vaccinating wild rodents or poultry reduces the migration of microbes into temperate regions. d. Vaccinating wild rodents or poultry increases the emergence of drug-resistant bacteria. 55. Which of the following scenarios would help meet the goal of the One Health Initiative? a. vaccinating poultry against avian influenza to prevent influenza from being transmitted to humans b. taking steps to reduce carbon dioxide emissions to reduce the effects of climate change c. providing sanitation after flooding events to prevent gastrointestinal infections in humans d. increasing compliance during antibiotic treatment of tuberculosis patients to prevent emergence of drug-resistant strains of tuberculosis 56. If humans continue to develop rapid transportation systems into more parts of the world, we should expect to see a. pandemics tracing the path of the transportation systems. b. an increase in detection of blood-borne pathogens. c. a decrease in human encroachment into tropical rain forests. d. an increase in the spread of transmissible spongiform encephalopathies. 57. How has the AIDS pandemic influenced reemerging diseases? a. AIDS has increased the number of immunocompromised individuals who are susceptible to diseases that were previously declining in developed countries. b. AIDS has led to an increase in the number of disease vectors throughout the world. c. AIDS has increased the prevalence of protozoal and parasitic infections that were declining in underdeveloped countries. d. AIDS has caused evolution to occur in diseases that were close to being eradicated in all countries. 58. Which of the following is likely to occur as a result of climate change? a. Insect vectors will migrate from tropical regions to once-temperate regions. b. Gastrointestinal infections will decrease in tropical regions. c. Microbes currently found in temperate regions will move to tropical regions. d. Extreme weather will decrease and diseases will become less seasonal. 59. What features would allow a virus to be used effectively as a bioweapon? a. a high infectious dose c. person-to-person transmission b. transmission via an insect vector d. quick pathogen detection systems

QUESTION 1 1. The relative importance or burden of a disease within a population will depend on a number of factors including : A. Disease frequency B. Disease severity C. Disease consequences D. All of the above

QUESTION 2 1 . With the epidemiologic transition, there is a reduction in malnutrition and _____ . A. Communicable diseases B. Injuries C. Non-communicable chronic diseases D. Mental health disorders

QUESTION 3 1. A major challenge to developing a burden of disease profile in low and middle-income countries relates to A. Unwillingness to share complete information B. Conflicting disease definitions C. Challenges obtaining information related to cause of death D. All of the above

QUESTION 4 1. The demographic transition describes which of the following changes to society A. Changes in birth and death rates that reflect a modern society B. Declines in mortality followed by a reduction in fertility C. A change in the age structure of the population D. All of the above

QUESTION 5 1. Measures of health status that combine mortality and morbidity data A. Facilitate comparisons both within and across populations B. Help estimate the quantitative health benefits from interventions C. Serve as tools to assist with resource allocation D. All of the above

QUESTION 6 1. The disability-adjusted life year is defined as A. A health gap population summary measure that combines time lost due to disability with that lost due to death B. A measure to compare the gap between the current situation to that of an ideal situation C. A measure that combines the amount of healthy life lost due to morbidity with that lost due to injury. D. Answers B and C

QUESTION 7 1. True or false? A key limitation to mortality-based indicators is that they fail to account for the morbidity caused by disease. True False

QUESTION 8 1. The most widely used composite measure of population health is the DALY, and this epidemiological measure is the sum of morbidity and ________data. A. Years of life lost (YLL) B. Morbidity C. Infant mortality rates (IMR) D. none of the above

QUESTION 9 1. What would be the best source of information on adult and infant mortality (in high income countries)? A. Disease registers B. Vital statistics C. Special survey study D. Hospital clinic statistics

QUESTION 10 1. Which term is best used to describe the proportion of people in a population who have a defined disease at a specific point of time? A. DALY B. Incidence C. Mortality rate D. Prevalence

QUESTION 11 1. Which term is best used to describe new cases of disease occurring in a population? A. DALY B. Incidence C. Mortality rate D. Prevalence

QUESTION 12 1. Which term is used to describe the absence or presence of illness or disease? A. Demography B. Morbidity C. Mortality D. Vitality

QUESTION 13 1. Mortality (death indicators) include: A. Mortality rate B. Infant mortality rate C. Neonatal morality rate D. All of the above

QUESTION 14 1. True or false? The value of life is often implicit in the way resource allocation decisions are made, which suggests that these decisions should be as explicit, open, and transparent as possible. True False

QUESTION 15 1. _________________is projected as the number one leading cause of disease burden in 2030. A. Ischemic heart disease B. Diabetes mellitus C. HIV/AIDS D. Unipolar depression

QUESTION 16 1. Some of the negative aspects of globalization include A. Greater insecurity of employment B. Poorer housing and sanitation due to rapid urbanization C. Greater vulnerability to environmental degradation D. All of the above

QUESTION 17 1. Current concerns about climate change focus on several developments including A. Rising global average land and sea surface temperature B. Increasing frequency of extreme weather conditions C. Both A and B D. None of the above

QUESTION 18 1. True or false? Diseases carried by mosquitoes are especially sensitive to meteorological conditions because they are vulnerable to changes in the ambient temperature. As a result of changing temperatures, infectious diseases such as malaria and dengue have decreased in incidence and geographic range. True False

QUESTION 19 1. True or false? International cooperation of infectious disease control has a long history that includes obligatory reporting of outbreaks of specific diseases. However, compliance with obligatory reporting has been poor due to economic consequences that have often accompanied notification of disease outbreaks. True False

QUESTION 20 1. True or false? Globalization is a relatively new phenomenon that began in the mid-20th century. True False

Highlight or bold the answer you select for multiple choice or type in your answer in the blank space provided.

1. Which of the following is not true of the nervous system?

Consists of central and peripheral systems

(b) Central nervous system is composed of brain and spinal cord

(d) Meninges are membranes that cover brain and spinal cord

(e) Normally free of microbes

2. Which of the following is a common cause of meningitis in nonimmunized young children?

(a) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(b) Escherichia coli

(d) Haemophilus influenzae

(e) None of the above

3. A complication of infection with this organism (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome) can occur if the organism becomes widely distributed in the body, leading to endotoxin shock and death. The organism is:

(a) Haemophilus influenzae type A

(b) Neisseria meningitidis

(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

4. Which of the following bacterial meningitis diseases currently is the most common type in the U.S., with increased incidences in infants and in the 15- to 24-year-old age group, and has three types or strains of the infectious microbe?

(a) Haemophilus meningitis

(b) Listeriosis

(d) Meningococcal meningitis

(e) a and c

5. Before development of a vaccine against this microbe, the disease it caused accounted for two-thirds of bacterial meningitis cases during the first year of life but is still the number one leading cause of mental retardation in patients who survive serious disease due to permanent central nervous system disorders. What is the microorganism?

(a) Haemophilus influenzae type B

(b) Haemophilus influenzae type A

(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

6. Which of the following bacteria that may cause meningitis is Gram-positive and therefore does not cause endotoxin shock in infected individuals?

(a) Escherichia coli

(b) Neisseria meningitidis

(d) Haemophilus influenzae type B

(e) None of these

7. Avid swimmers and hot tub enthusiasts sometimes acquire an opportunistic infection caused by Naegleria fowleri that results in a meningoencephalitis. This organism is a (an):

(a) Protist

(b) Helminth

(d) Amoeba

(e) a and d

8. Which of the following in NOT true about listeriosis?

(a) Foodborne transmission is the most common source of infection.

(b) It is a leading cause of bacterial meningitis today.

(d) It is sometimes acquired as a zoonosis.

(e) Individuals with impaired immune systems are highly susceptible to this disease.

9. Viral meningitis is usually always fatal if untreated, unlike bacterial meningitis, which is always self-limiting and nonfatal. True or false?

10. Which of the following is acid-fast and causes Hansen's disease?

(a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

(b) Clostridium tetani

(d) Haemophilus influenzae

(e) Mycobacterium leprae

11. An immunofluorescent antibody test (IFAT) has replaced the older test for the presence of inclusions in neurons (Negri bodies) for the detection of infections caused by:

(a) Neisseria meningitidis

(b) Enteroviruses

(d) Rabies virus

(e) Haemophilus influenza

12. The viruses that cause encephalitis are most likely to be:

(a) Togaviruses

(b) Enteroviruses

(d) Rabies virus

(e) Hepatitis viruses

13. What do the following viral encephalitis diseases have in common: eastern equine encephalitis, western equine encephalitis, Venezuelan equine encephalitis, St. Louis encephalitis, West Nile fever?

(a) They are all caused by the same virus.

(b) They are have the horse as a common intermediate host.

(d) Birds are never involved in the life cycle of the viruses that cause these diseases.

(e) Both a and d.

14. The only bacterium known to damage peripheral nerves is:

(a) Naegleria fowleri

(b) Mycobacterium leprae

(d) Neisseria meningitidis

(e) Haemophilus influenzae

15. All of the following are true about Clostridium tetani, the causative agent of tetanus, EXCEPT:

(a) They are spore-forming rods.

(b) They are part of the normal bowel microflora of horses, cattle, and humans.

(d) Their toxin elicits muscle stiffness, spasms, and paralysis in the victim.

(e) They require oxygen to survive.

16. A vaccine that was developed in 1933 has proven effective in reducing the incidence of disease caused by:

(a) Clostridium botulinum

(b) Mycobacterium leprae

(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

17. The most common form of disease caused by Clostridium botulinum is:

(a) Infant

(b) Wound

(d) Foodborne

(e) None of these

18. The endospores of this organism are the most heat-resistant known; it is:

(a) Clostridium tetani

(b) Clostridium botulinum

(d) Streptococcus thermicos

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

19. All of the following are true about Clostridium botulinum, the causative agent of botulism, EXCEPT:

(a) Their ability to form toxin depends on infection with a bacteriophage.

(b) They can produce one of eight different toxins, all of which cause human disease.

(d) Although their endospores are highly heat-resistant, their toxin can be inactivated by only a few minutes' boiling.

(e) All of the above are true.

20. All of the following are true about poliomyelitis EXCEPT:

(a) Most poliovirus infections are inapparent or mild and nonparalytic.

(b) Polio can be caused by three strains of picornaviruses.

(c) The Salk vaccine contains live, attenuated polioviruses while the Sabin vaccine contains formalin-inactivated polioviruses.

(d) Transmission is by the fecal-oral route and pharyngeal secretions.

(e) Poliomyelitis has afflicted man for thousands of years.

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BPH 206 Lecture Notes - Lecture 9: Syphilis, Tuberculosis, Fetus

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