ECON103 Lecture Notes - Lecture 4: Price Floor, Price Ceiling, Economic Surplus

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crimsonmallard24

16 Feb 2017

School

University of Delaware

Department

Economics

Course

ECON103

Professor

Schubert, Jens

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Document Summary

4. 2 the efficiency of competitive markets (cid:1008). (cid:1007) go(cid:448)"t i(cid:374)ter(cid:448)e(cid:374)tio(cid:374) i(cid:374) markets. Consumers buy goods and producers sell goods as it makes them better off (at least as good off) Consumer surplus (cs): the difference between the highest price a consumer is willing to pay (wtp) for a good/service and the actual price the consumer pays. Producer surplus (ps): difference between the lowest price a firm would be willing to accept (wta) for a good/service and the price it actually receives. The minimum a firm would accept is the marginal cost (mc) of producing that good (additional cost of producing one more unit). The supply curve is also called mc curve. Two ways of thinking about efficiency in a market: a market is efficient is. All trades take place where mb>= mc, and no other trades take place. It maximizes the sum of cs and ps (total benefit to consumers and firms). Cs + ps = economic (total) surplus (ts)

Related Questions

PLEASE ANSWER EACH QUESTION WITH A, B, C, and D. NOT ANSWERING ALL QUESTIONS OR INCORRECT ANSWERS WILL RESULT IN A THUMBS DOWN.

Question 1: Which of the following is not needed for price discrimination to be possible?

		A. The firm must have market power.
		B. The firm must be able to prevent resale and arbitrage.
		C. The firm must eventually learn about its customers' demands.
		D. The firm's customers must have different demand curves.

Question 2: Relative to standard monopoly pricing, first-degree price discrimination results in:

	A.	higher consumer surplus, higher producer surplus, and higher total surplus.
	B.	lower consumer surplus, higher producer surplus, and higher total surplus.
	C.	lower consumer surplus, higher producer surplus, and lower total surplus.
	D.	lower consumer surplus, lower producer surplus, and lower total surplus.

Question 3: Relative to perfect competition, first-degree price discrimination results in:

		A. higher consumer surplus, higher producer surplus, and higher total surplus.
		B. lower consumer surplus, higher producer surplus, and equal total surplus.
		C. lower consumer surplus, higher producer surplus, and equal total surplus.
		D. lower consumer surplus, lower producer surplus, and lower total surplus.

Question 4: If market demand is P = 100 - Q and the firm has a constant marginal cost of 20, then with first-degree price discrimination, the firm's producer surplus will be:

A.	$800.
B.	$1,600.
C.	$2,400.
D.	$3,200.

Question 5: For third-degree discrimination to be possible, which of the following features is not required?

		A. market power
		B. prevention of resale
		C. identification of each customer's demand before purchase
		D. customers with different demand curves

Question 6: A golf course has frequent players whose demand is Q_f = 260 - 0.4P and infrequent players whose demand is Q_i = 10 - 0.1P. The combined market demand is Q = 34 - 0.4P. The marginal cost and average total cost of providing a round of golf are $20. How much higher will the profit be if the golf course uses third-degree price discrimination instead of charging all golfers the same price?

A.	$0
B.	$7.50
C.	$10
D.	$110

Question 7: An airline sells seats on its flights to business travelers whose demand is Q_B = 300 - P and vacation travelers whose demand is Q_V = 150 - 0.5P. The combined market demand is Q = 450 - 1.5P. The marginal cost and average total cost of providing a seat on a flight are $200. How much higher will profit be if the airline uses third-degree price discrimination instead of charging all travelers the same price?

A.	$0
B.	$250
C.	$400
D.	$1,000

Question 8: If a firm practices third-degree price discrimination, the price charged should be higher in the market where demand is:

	A.	Higher.
	B.	Lower.
	C.	More price elastic.
	D.	Less price is elastic.

Question 9: The key difference between markets where third-degree price discrimination is possible and markets where second-degree price discrimination is possible is whether:

		A. resale is possible.
		B. customers have the same demand curves.
		C. firms have market power.
		D. firms can identify customers' demand before the customers make a purchase.

Question 10: For price discrimination via a quantity discount to work:

		A. customers who purchase larger quantities must have relatively elastic demand.
		B. customers who purchase larger quantities must have relatively inelastic demand.
		C. customers who pay a relatively high price must have relatively elastic demand.
		D. customers who pay a relatively low price must have relatively inelastic demand.

Question 11: A firm wants to offer a quantity discount to price-discriminate between buyers who are relatively uninterested in the product and buyers who are obsessively interested in it. The uninterested customers have a demand of Q_U = 30 - 0.5P. The package offered to them contains 10 units of the good at a price of $40 each. Which of the following packages designed for obsessed customers is incentive compatible?

	A.	60 units at a price of $10 each
	B.	40 units at a price of $10 each
	C.	60 units at a price of $20 each
	D.	40 units at a price of $20 each

Question 12: Which of the following conditions do not have to be met in order for indirect price discrimination by versioning to work?

		A.The firm's customers must have different demand curves.
		B. The marginal costs of producing each version of the product must be the same.
		C. The firm must be able to prevent resale.
		D. The firm must have market power.

	Willingness to pay (per month)
	Weight machines	Indoor pool
Abe	$60	$50
Betty	50	125
Chris	25	140

QUESTION 13
This table shows the willingness to pay off the only three potential customers of a firm that runs both a weight room and an indoor swimming pool. The weight room and pool each have a constant marginal cost of $20 per month. Which of the following pricing strategies yields the highest producer surplus?

		A. $60 for the weight room, $140 for the pool, or $175 for both
		B. $50 for the weight room, $125 for the pool, or $165 for both
		C. $25 for the weight room, $50 for the pool, or $70 for both
		D. $60 for the weight room, $130 for the pool, or $175 for both

Question 14: Which of the following features is needed to make bundling a possible price discrimination strategy but is not required for any other price discrimination strategies?

		A. Customers must have identical demand curves.
		B. The firm does not learn about customer demand until after purchase.
		C. Demand for two products must be negatively correlated.
		D. The firm must not have market power.

Question 15: Which of the following features is not needed for price discrimination using a two-part tariff to work?

		A. The firm must have market power.
		B. The firm must be able to prevent resale.
		C. The firm must learn about its customers' demands before purchases are made.
		D. The firm's customers must have different demand curves.

Question 16: A firm faces a market demand curve P = 50 - 5Q. It has a constant marginal cost of $10. Relative to standard monopoly pricing, how would a block pricing strategy where the first four units can be purchased for a price of $30 each, but two more units can be purchased for an additional $20 each change consumer surplus and producer surplus?

		A. Consumer surplus would decrease by $10, and producer surplus would increase by $20.
		B. Consumer surplus would increase by $10, and producer surplus would increase by $20.
		C. Consumer surplus would increase by $20, and producer surplus would increase by $10.
		D. Consumer surplus would increase by $20, and producer surplus would increase by $20.

Question 17: Relative to standard monopoly pricing, block pricing:

		A. decreases consumer surplus, increases producer surplus, and increases total surplus.
		B. increases consumer surplus, increases producer surplus, and increases total surplus.
		C. decreases consumer surplus, increases producer surplus, and decreases total surplus.
		D. decreases consumer surplus, decreases producer surplus, and decreases total surplus.

Question 18: Which of the following results in the highest amount of producer surplus?

	A.	bundling
	B.	third-degree price discrimination
	C.	block pricing
	D.	two-part tariffs

Question 19: Which of the following results in the highest amount of consumer surplus?

	A.	first-degree price discrimination
	B.	third-degree price discrimination
	C.	block pricing
	D.	two-part tariffs

Question 20: Which of the following results in the highest amount of total surplus?

	A.	third-degree price discrimination
	B.	block pricing
	C.	first-degree price discrimination
	D.	bundling

crimsonbadger400

Michael spends all of his income on coffee and donuts. A coffee costs $2.50 and a donut costs $2.00. At his current consumption level, the marginal utility for coffee is 30 utils, and the marginal utility for a donut is 60 utils. Which statement best describes what Michael needs to do to maximize his utility?

Question 1 options:

1)	buy less of both coffee and donuts.

2)	buy less coffee and more donuts.

3)	buy more coffee and less donuts.

4)	spend the same amount on coffee as he does on donuts.

Question 2

What is it called when the marginal utility derived from the last dollar spent on each good is the same across all goods and the last dollar spent uses all of the available budget for the purchase of those goods?

Question 2 options:

1)	the optimal consumption bundle.

2)	the optimal production bundle.

3)	diminishing marginal utility.

4)	optimal point.

Question 3 (1 point)

What does the economic theory of marginal utility infer?

Question 3 options:

1)	consumers naturally know which consumption choices will maximize their utility.

2)	consumers who watch market trends are better at maximizing their utility than are those who do not watch those trends.

3)	one cannot maximize utility without taking an economics class that explains utility theory.

4)	one cannot maximize utility without doing the math of calculating the ratios of marginal utility divided by price.

Question 4

Kate is addicted to chocolate and does not care how much it costs. In fact, she spends more than $20 a week on chocolate. What can be concluded about elasticity in her buying decisions?

Question 4 options:

1)	Her income elasticity of demand for chocolate is equal to one.

2)	Her income elasticity of demand for chocolate is equal to zero.

3)	Her price elasticity of demand for chocolate is equal to one.

4)	Her price elasticity of demand for chocolate is equal to zero.

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Question 5 (1 point)

Why does the demand for a good become relatively more elastic?

Question 5 options:

1)	substitutes for the good become more available.

2)	substitutes for the good become less available.

3)	the good becomes more of a necessity.

4)	the time allowed for adjustment is shortened.

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Question 6 (1 point)

Assume the price of chicken per pound is $3.49 and that Americans purchase 10 million pounds per chicken every month. If the price of chicken increases to $5.49 per pound, identify what will occur to consumer surplus?

Question 6 options:

1)	consumer surplus increases.

2)	consumer surplus decreases.

3)	consumer surplus creates incentive to save.

4)	consumer surplus creates incentive to spend.

Question 7 (1 point)

What is another name for the difference between the price that consumers are willing to pay for a good and a lower price that they may actually have to pay?

Question 7 options:

profit.

revenue.

3)	consumer utility.

4)	consumer surplus.

Question 8

Adam, Brian, Robert, and Sam all want to attend a football game. The admission price is $48. Adam is willing to pay $59 for the ticket. Brian is willing to pay $39. Robert is willing to pay $45, and Sam is willing to pay $55. Based on this information, who will go to the game?

Question 8 options:

1)	Adam, Brian, Robert, and Sam.

2)	Brian and Robert.

3)	Adam and Sam.

4)	Brian, Robert, and Sam.

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Question 9 (1 point)

Lily is willing to pay $10 for one bracelet and $5 for a second. Patty is willing to pay $12 for one bracelet and $2 for a second. If the price is currently $8 per bracelet, identify what is the total consumer surplus after Lily and Patty make their purchases?

Question 9 options:

Question 10 (1 point)

Manfred is willing to shovel one driveway for $25, a second for $30, and a third for $35. Assume that the market rate for shoveling driveways is $32. How many driveways will Manfred shovel, what will be his total revenue, and what will be his producer surplus?

Question 10 options:

1)	Manfred will shovel two driveways for a total revenue of $64 and his producer surplus will be $9.

2)	Manfred will shovel three driveways for a total revenue of $75 and his producer surplus will be $12.

3)	Manfred will shovel three driveways for a total revenue of $96 and his producer surplus will be $5.

4)	Manfred will shovel four driveways for a total revenue of $125 and his producer surplus will be $18.

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Question 11 (1 point)

What would the difference between the price that producers receive and the lower price at which they are willing to sell the good be called?

Question 11 options:

1)	producer shortage.

2)	producer surplus.

3)	consumer shortage.

4)	consumer surplus.

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Question 12 (1 point)

What will happen when there is an increase in the price of eBook downloads?

Question 12 options:

1)	It reduces the marginal utility derived from each dollar spent on eBooks.

2)	It reduces the marginal utility derived from each hardcopy book purchased.

3)	There will not be a substitution effect.

4)	There will not be a change in the number of eBooks in the set of consumption possibilities.

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Question 13 (1 point)

When is price elasticity of demand utilized to measure how an individual changes the quantity they demand?

Question 13 options:

1)	when supply changes.

2)	when product quality changes.

3)	when marketing changes.

4)	when price changes.

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Question 14 (1 point)

Assume Mary consumes only tea and pastries. A cup of tea costs 5 euros and a pastry costs 8 euros. Her weekly income is 450 euros. Mary always drinks 2 cups of tea for every pastry she consumes. What is Maryâs optimal weekly consumption bundle?

Question 14 options:

1)	25 cups of tea and 50 pastries.

2)	50 cups of tea and 25 pastries.

3)	58 cups of tea and 20 pastries.

4)	60 cups of tea and 30 pastries.

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Question 15 (1 point)

When is producer surplus a positive value?

Question 15 options:

1)	the price the producer is willing to charge equals the market price.

2)	there is no tax applied to the good.

3)	the price the producer is willing to charge is less than the market price.

4)	the price the producer is willing to charge is greater than the market price.

In a perfectly competitive market, in the long run, the marginal cost of a firm becomes equal to its minimum average total cost.

A) True
B) False

Generally, The price a firm charges for its product is equal to its total revenue divided by the number of units sold.

A) True
B) False

In a perfectly competitive firm to maximize profit a firm must make sure that the price it charges does not exceed its marginal cost.

A) True
B) False

Firms in a competitive market can never make economic profits while they may make biasness (accounting) profits.

A) True
B) False

When a perfectly competitive firm is making a positive economic profit its average revenue must be greater than its average total cost.

A) True
B) False

To maximize its profit a firm always produces at the quantity level where it can charge the highest price and earn the greatest revenue; this strategy is consistent with setting is MC equal to price.

A) True
B) False

When a firm in a competitive market is making a positive economic profit its business profit may be positive or negative.

A) True
B) False

In a perfectly competitive market new entries could result in increases in input prices thus making production costs go up.

A) True
B) False

In a perfectly competitive market, in the long run, each firm produces the maximum amount it can produce and charges the lowest price possible. That is why we consider competitive markets efficient.

A) True
B) False

10.

A monopolist always under-produces and charges a price higher than its MC.

A) True
B) False

11.

As the only supplier in the market a monopolist can charge any price it wishes and buyers have no choice but to pay.

A) True
B) False

12.

The marginal revenue is the additional revenue generated by the last unit of labor hired.

A) True
B) False

13.

The price a monopolist charges may or may not be above its average cost but it is always above its MR.

A) True
B) False

14.

When demand curve is a downward-sloping straight line (linear) marginal revenue will be greater than MC at all output leveles.

A) True
B) False

15.

By setting its MR equal to its MC a monopolist determines the output that would maximize its profit.

A) True
B) False

16.

In the long run each competitive firm would produce at the quantity level where its MC is equal to its MR as well as its ATC.

A) True
B) False

17.

A monopoly always makes an economic profit.

A) True
B) False

18.

When a monopoly's ATC is equal to the price it charges it is making normal economic profits.

A) True
B) False

19.

When a monopoly is making a zero economic profit still its MR>ATC.

A) True
B) False

20.

An increase in demand would enable a monopolist to raise its price while reducing its output.

A) True
B) False

21.

The market supply curve in an increasing-cost industry is:

A) a. upward sloping
B) b. downward sloping
C) c. vertical
D) d. horizontal
E) e. none of the above

22.

The total producer surplus is measured by:

A) a. the area between supply and demand curves.
B) b. the difference between the price the consumer is willing and able to pay and the price suppliers wish to charge to maximize their profits.
C) c. the area between the price consumers actually pay and the demand curve.
D) d. the area between the equilibrium market price and the supply curve.
E) e. the consumer willingness to pay as reflected by the equilibrium market price.

23.

. Economists measure economic (social) welfare by the

A) a. net consumer surplus
B) b. sum of consumer and producer surplus
C) c. sum of the net profits made by the industry's competitive firms
D) d. price consumers are willing to pay for one additional unit of a good
E) e. difference between the total consumer surplus and total producer surplus

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ECON103 Lecture Notes - Lecture 4: Price Floor, Price Ceiling, Economic Surplus

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