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answer all of them

All of the following are true of enzymes except

A-Enzymes increase the rate of a chemical reaction.

B-Enzymes are not part of the products of a chemical reaction.

C-Enzymes create a chemical reaction.

D-Enzymes are not consumed in a chemical reaction

2-Reverse transcriptase is used to make ______ from an RNA template

3-

Environmental factors that influence microbial growth are (SELECT ALL THE APPELTY )

temperature

gases

pH

osmotic

pressure

radiation

hydrostatic

pressure

4- What is the definition of Generation Time

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2 Oct 2018
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Related questions

1.When something appears blue, it is absorbing all colors except__________.

yellow

blue

red

green

orange

2.During heavy exercise, lactic acid can build up in ourmuscles. Why? How does this resemble the metabolism of bacteria andyeast?

lactic acid is results from insufficient oxygen during sugarmetabolism; it is fermentation

lactic acid accumulates when we are dehydrated; bacteria andyeast use the same pathway

lactic acid is built up from carbon dioxide; bacteria and yeaststore energy in this way

3.Why must a cell keep a similar concentration of dissolvedsubstances with the fluid surrounding them?

to avoid dilution of potential energy

to avoid osmotic imbalance and rapid gain or loss of water

to maintain the correct amount of dehydration and hydrolysis

4.What is entropy?

the amount of energy in a system

the amount of disorganization

the amount of organization

5.Burning a log is the reverse reaction found in photosynthesis.What products would be formed in burning a log?

carbon dioxide and water

glucose and oxygen

oxygen and carbon dioxide

oxygen and water

6.The main reason that cellular respiration needs to occur stepby step instead of a single, big reaction is

cells don't store enough oxygen

too much energy would be released for the cell to harness

cells don't have many mitochondria.

cells produce the enzymes needed for cellular respiration veryslowly

7.Enzymes are catalysts because they operate to:

raise activation energy

lower activation energy

supply activation energy

supply the reactants

8.When ATP powers a reaction it becomes ADP. The ADP

can reform ATP by an exergonic reaction

is a waste product for lysosomal breakdown

can reform ATP by an endergonic reaction

can reform ATP by an oxidation reaction

can reform ATP by an equilibrium reaction

9.The energy source that drives photosynthesis is

water

glucose

carbon dioxide

oxygen

sunlight

10. What is the process by which enzymes regulate their ownactivity?

osmosis

self-propulsion

feedback inhibition

11.Coupled reactions are reactions in which a

endergonic reaction drives a spontaneous reaction

exergonic reaction drives a spontaneous reaction

endergonic reaction drives an exergonic reaction

exergonic reaction drives an endergonic reaction

12.How is water used in photosynthesis?

as a substrate for ATP synthase

as an electron donor

to combine with ADP forming ATP

as an electron acceptor

13.Why are the “Dark Reactions” of photosynthesis referred to as“Dark”?

they do not require light

they can only occur at night

they generate excess sugar and the leaves turn brown

14.What is the difference between potential and kineticenergy?

potential is stored, kinetic is being used

potential is being used, kinetic is ready to be used

potential is negative, kinetic is positive

15.The products of cellular respiration are

carbon dioxide, water, and ATP

glucose, water, and ATP

glucose, carbon dioxide, and ATP

oxygen, ATP, and water

carbon dioxide, glucose, and water

16.All of the following are correct about energy except:

The biological world gets its energy from the sun.

Chemical bonds store potential energy.

A boulder perched on a hill has kinetic energy.

Energy is defined as the ability to do work.

All forms of energy can be converted to heat.

17.What is needed for the end product of glycolysis, pyruvate,to enter the citric acid cycle?

More glucose for energy

ATP

Oxygen

Carbon dioxide

18.The enzyme that forms a transmembrane channel in mitochondriaand phosphorylates ADP

a carrier protein

ATP synthase

acetyl CoA

19.Fermentation is most common in

plants

microorganisms

animals

20.During adsorption of sunlight by photosystems, H+ ions aregenerated. Where do they come from? What are they used for?

from the breakdown of sugar; they help form water

water; they help form sugar

from carbon dioxide; they help dissolve NaCl

21.Glycolysis

does not use oxygen

uses oxygen

uses carbon dioxide

22.Photosynthesis is

not dependent on chlorophyll

a process that produces glucose and oxygen

a process that produces water and carbon dioxide

23.Breakdown of glucose generates many ATP molecules, each ofwhich can be used independently. Why is ATP ideally suited to powerbiological reactions?

ATP has many hydrogen bonds

ATP has enough energy to power one biological reaction

ATP readily dissolves in water

24.Objects that are not actively moving but have the capacity todo so are said to possess:

kinetic energy

entropy

potential energy

living energy

25.The first stage of cellular respiration, called ___________,takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell and needs no oxygen.

photorespiration

citric acid cycle

glycolysis

oxidation

26.Diffusion

requires energy

utilizes proteins to move molecules across a membrane

moves molecules against a concentration gradient

does not require energy

cannot occur without a membrane present

27.What is the name of the molecule on which an enzymeworks?

substrate

monomer

polymer

28.ATP contains

phenylalanine

two phosphate groups

three nitrate groups

three phosphate groups

29.How does chlorophyll function in photosynthesis?

by absorbing carbon dioxide

by absorbing the sun's energy

by absorbing water

30.Objects that are moving are said to possess:

living energy

potential energy

entropy

kinetic energy

31.The respiration pathway that evolved first is probably

glycolysis

aerobic respiration

citric acid cycle

32.The energy source for the process of photosynthesis is

oxygen

sunlight

carbon dioxide

chlorophyll

glucose

33.Burning wood generates heat and light. What type of reactionis this?

exergonic

kinetic energy

endergonic

potential energy

equilibrium

34.What is meant by a “coupled reaction” in terms of energy?

many poymers are built simultaneously

energy released by one reactions powers another reaction

some reactions occur in the same organelle

35.The First Law of Thermodynamics states:

energy is constantly being created by entropy events

energy can be changed from one form to another, but cannot becreated or destroyed

energy can be used and then destroyed because of entropy'sactions on it

energy can be destroyed while it is producing entropy

36.How do we dispose of the carbon derived from the glucose thatis metabolized during respiration?

by breathing out

via our urine

it is broken down in lysosomes

37.Both plant and animal cells have mitochondria because theyboth

carry on respiration

carry on photosynthesis.

require water

38.What is Activation Energy?

the energy needed to initiate a reaction

the energy that transports water into cells

potential energy

39.If you put a plant in a chamber and shine a light on it

oxygen will decrease and carbon dioxide will increase

oxygen will increase and carbon dioxide will decrease

oxygen and carbon dioxide will increase

oxygen and carbon dioxide will decrease

40.What are the inputs and the output molecules for the overallphotosynthetic process?

input sugar and oxygen; output carbon dioxide and water

input oxygen and water; output sugar and carbon dioxide

input carbon dioxide and water;output sugar and oxygen

41.What kind of reaction is photosynthesis?

endergonic

kinetic energy

exergonic

potential energy

equilibrium

42.In the process of glycolysis, glucose is cleaved into a pairof three-carbon molecules called

lactate

pyruvate

acetyl CoA

ATP

alcohol

43.Entropy is

order

disorder

complexity

Both order and disorder are correct

Both complexity and disorder are correct

44.Glycolysis takes place in the _____________ and the citricacid cycle and electron transport chain take place in the___________.

cytoplasm; endoplasmic reticulum

mitochondria, chloroplast

mitochondria; cytoplasm

cytoplasm; mitochondria

45.The organelle that carries out photosynthesis in plants isthe

mitochondria

chloroplast

ribosome

chlorophylllysosome

46.The energy to power the Calvin cycle comes from

cellular respiration

oxygen

the light reactions of photosynthesis

47.Which of the following can be broken down into intermediateproducts that enter cellular respiration?

Proteins

Lipids

Carbohydrates

All of these.

48.When cellular product levels get too high, the responsibleenzyme is inhibited. This is an example of

promotion

denaturation

equilibrium

a coenzyme

feedback inhibition

49.How is respiration the opposite of photosynthesis?

respiration breaks sugar down to carbon dioxide; photosynthesisbuilds sugar from carbon dioxide

respiration builds sugar from carbon dioxide; photosynthesisbreaks sugar down to carbon dioxide

respiration requires energy input; photosynthesis gives offexcess energy

50.The molecule that absorbs sunlight for photosynthesis is

oxygen

carbon dioxide

chlorophyll

glucose

sunlight

1. Which of the following are considered blood vessels within the cardiovascular system? (Select all that apply.)

Veins

Arteries \

Epithelial tissue

Capillaries

Epidermis

2. The middle muscle layer found in the walls of the heart is the __________.

Myocardium

Epicardium

Endocardium

Aorta

3. Blood is transported throughout the body via ___________.

Veins
Arteries

Capillaries

All of the above

4. The right atrium receives blood from all parts of the body except the ______________.

Abdominal cavity

Lungs

Dorsal cavity

Cranium

5. Blood carries which of the following?

Oxygen and cellular waste

Oxygen, nutrients, hormones, enzymes, and cellular waste

Nutrients, hormones, enzymes

Oxygen, nutrients, enzymes

6. Vocal chords are found in the ____________.

Bronchus

Trachea

Larynx and Pharynx

Nasal cavity

7. The trachea is mostly lined by ________________.

Alveoli

Ciliated

mucous membrane

Lung capillaries
Vocal chords

8. Excess CO2 from the body is __________________.

Stored in the pancreas

Digested by cells

Excreted by the respiration process

Used to make ATP

9. CO2 from the body is released into the lungs via _________________.

Ciliated mucous membrane

Alveolar air

Nasal cavity

Bronchial tree

10. The principal function(s) of gas exchange is ____________________.

To supply cells with oxygen

To remove CO2 from the body

Both A and B

Neither of the above

One of the most common chronic conditions affecting the respiratory system is asthma. Asthma is a condition characterized by inflammation of the airways. When an asthma attack is triggered, the airways become even more inflamed and can restrict breathing. Common symptoms during an asthma attacks include coughing, wheezing, tightness in the chest and shortness of breath. Severe asthma attacks can be fatal. People with a family history of asthma are more likely to have the condition. While there is no cure for asthma, proper medical care and a management plan can help to maintain quality of life for people living with asthma. There are different types of asthma, each with their own triggers and management plans. Type Description Exercise-induced Bronchoconstriction (EIB), or Exercise-induced Asthma (EIA) Some people only experience asthma symptoms during exercise. Exercise-induced asthma causes the narrowing of airways during exercise, which restricts the flow of air to and from the lungs. Cold, dry air tends to exacerbate symptoms, while warm, humid air may reduce symptoms. People with exercise-induced asthma should work with their doctor to create a management plan that still allows them to exercise while keeping their symptoms under control. Allergic Asthma Allergic asthma is the most common form of asthma. It is triggered by inhaling allergen particulates, such as dust mites, pollen, pet dander, or mold. The body’s reaction to the allergens causes inflammation that results in coughing, wheezing, and other symptoms of asthma. Occupational Asthma Occupational asthma is caused by the frequent inhalation (breathing) of gases, fumes, dust, or other harmful substances in the workplace. Employees working in the chemical or petroleum industries are frequently exposed to chemicals such as Sulphur dioxide or hydrochloric acid, and may develop occupational asthma after prolonged exposure. Childhood Asthma Childhood asthma is usually developed before age 5. It is a condition that affects millions of children. It is vital that childhood asthma is properly controlled to prevent damage to the developing lungs Risk factors: • Allergies • Family history • Frequent respiratory infections • Low birth-weight • Second-hand smoke • Residing in a low-income, urban environment

Asthma symptoms that are triggered by exposure to pollen, pet dander, mold, or dust mites is indicative of which of the following types of asthma:

Occupational asthma

Childhood asthma

Allergic asthma

Exercise-induced asthma

Which of the following did Erwin Chargaff observe?

A)

Base composition changes as the organism ages.

B)

Base composition of DNA does not vary from one species toanother.

C)

In all species the number of adenines equals the number ofguanines.

D)

In all species A + T = G + C.

E)

DNAs isolated from different tissues of the same species havethe same base composition.

The melting temperature (Tm) of a DNA duplex is:

A)

the temperature at which double-stranded nucleic acids degradeinto free nucleotides.

B)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA is toosingle-stranded to ever renature back to double strands.

C)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA is completelymelted.

D)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA has become 50%single-stranded.

E)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA begins to melt.

Given your knowledge and the descriptions of each of thesemethods, which of the following does NOT rely on the ability ofnucleic acids to hybridize with each other?

A)

Southern blotting for the detection of specific DNA fragmentsthat have been separated by gel electrophoresis.

B)

Colony blot hybridization to identify a specific sequence from acollection of sequences that have been inserted into bacteria.

C)

Northern blotting for the detection of specific RNA fragmentsthat have been separated by gel electrophoresis.

D)

A DNA oligonucleotide microarray incubated with probes made fromcDNA.

E)

Western blotting for the detection of specific proteins thathave been separated by gel electrophoresis.

Which of the following is a possible reason why DNA uses thymineinstead of uracil?

A)

Cytidine is deaminated to uracil so it would be difficult forany repair mechanism to differentiate between uracil that belongsin the sequence and uracil that resulted from deamination.

B)

Adenine is deaminated to uracil so it would be difficult for anyrepair mechanism to differentiate between uracil that belongs inthe sequence and uracil that resulted from deamination.

C)

When uracil is bound to a deoxyribose it will become morereactive, forming covalent bonds with other bases.

D)

None of the above.

Which of the following is an enzyme used in cloning to breakcovalent bonds?

A)

DNA ligase

B)

Restriction endonuclease

C)

Reverse transcriptase

D)

DNA polymerase I

E)

Alkaline phosphatase

Which of the following could you use to remove the 5' phosphatesafter cleavage of a plasmid with a single type of restrictionenzyme to ensure that the plasmid would not simply fuse backtogether upon addition of ligase?

A)

Reverse transcriptase

B)

Alkaline phosphatase

C)

DNA ligase

D)

DNA polymerase I

E)

Restriction endonuclease

Which of the following would you use to create a cDNA librarythat you would not use for a genomic library?

A)

Alkaline phosphatase

B)

Reverse transcriptase

C)

Restriction endonuclease

D)

DNA ligase

E)

DNA polymerase I

A plasmid vector typically has which of the followingfeatures?

A)

An origin of replication

B)

A selectable marker to ensure that the only bacteria growingcontain the intact or recombinant vector.

C)

Unique restriction sites for insertion of DNA.

D)

Small size to facilitate entry into the cell and biochemicalmanipulation of the DNA.

E)

All of the above are features of plasmid vectors.

Which of the following is FALSE of genomic or cDNAlibraries?

A)

Genes represented in cDNA libraries include control sequencesthat direct transcription.

B)

cDNA libraries contain cDNAs made from mRNA.

C)

Genomic libraries contain fragments of genomic DNA that aregenerated by partial digests with restriction enzymes.

D)

Genomic libraries usually contain large fragments and are likelyto be constructed in YAC or BAC vectors.

E)

cDNA libraries contain sequences from expressed genes only.

Which of the following is NOT a typical component of apolymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

A)

dNTPs

B)

DNA containing the sequences to be amplified

C)

DNA ligase to connect the fragments together

D)

Primers complementary to each end of the sequence to beamplified

E)

Heat stable Taq polymerase

How can a fusion protein be formed?

A)

Site-directed mutagenesis where a fragment is replaced with asynthetic sequence containing the altered DNA sequence.

B)

Two proteins can recombine in the bacterial cell to form a newhybrid protein.

C)

Portions of two different genes are ligated together to create anew hybrid gene. When expressed the gene product is a fusion of thetwo gene products.

D)

Using oligonucleotide-directed mutagenesis to introduce specificmutations that cause the expressed protein to fuse to otherproteins.

E)

A portion of the gene can be removed to form a shorter gene andtherefore a shorter protein.

Why is green fluorescent protein (GFP) so useful in visualizingfusion proteins in eukaryotes?

A)

The GFP protein recognizes and binds to fusion proteins allowingthe location of the fusion protein to be determined.

B)

The reaction is only dependent on the presence of GFP and oneother cofactor.

C)

It is easily cloned and expressed in bacterial cells.

D)

The presence of just a few molecules of GFP fusion proteins canbe sufficient for observing the proteins microscopically allowingthe study of its location and movements in the cell.

E)

It is derived from fire flies, which are easy to cultivate inthe lab.

You wish to determine the cellular location of a protein butunfortunately it is not particularly antigenic (can t develop astrong antibody response). How could you solve this problem?

A)

Create a fusion protein with an epitope tag that can bevisualized by incubation with fluorescently tagged antibody to theepitope.

B)

Create a fusion with green fluorescent protein (GFP).

C)

Express the protein as a fusion with biotin. The addition of GFPwill cause fluorescence.

D)

A and B might work.

E)

A, B, and C might work.

F)

None of the above will work.

A positive result for the yeast two-hybrid analysis means thefollowing:

A)

The proteins that you are studying can be made into fusionproteins, but do NOT interact with each other within the nucleus ofyeast.

B)

A fusion protein containing the Gal4p activation domain, hasbound to RNA polymerase resulting increase transcription ofnumerous genes, including the reporter gene, and formation ofcolonies.

C)

Two fusion proteins, one containing the Gal4p binding sitedomain and one containing the Gal4p activation domain, haveinteracted through their Gal4p domains resulting in transcriptionof the reporter gene.

D)

Two fusion proteins interact with each other and because of theGal4p binding site domain and the Gal4p activation domain containedin each fusion protein, the reporter genes are activated and thecells die resulting in no colonies.

E)

The colonies growing are expressing the two fusion proteins, butthe two proteins have not interacted with each other.

Which of the following is the approximate size of the humangenome?

A)

3 Gm

B)

300 Kb

C)

3 Mb

D)

3 Gb

E)

3 Mm

Which of the following is correct about the structure orlocation of genes?

Question 22 options:

A)

Prokaryotic genes typically possess their own regulatorysequences that only control expression of a single gene.

B)

Eukaryotic genes often encode introns that are spliced outbefore translation.

C)

Eukaryotic genes are mostly located at the telomeres and thecentromeres of chromosomes.

D)

Eukaryotic genes are typically arranged in operons.

E)

Prokaryotic genes often encode exons that are spliced out beforetranslation

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