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28 Aug 2018

Explain the role of mismatch repair in reducing error rates in DNA replication. Does it matter when mismatch repair occurs (for instance in S-phase as opposed to G1)?

What is the role of primase in DNA synthesis? What is the role of ligase?

What is transition bias, and why does it exist?

What is required for DNA synthesis? Must transcription occur hours before replication? Must replication occur hours before transcription?

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Reid Wolff
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29 Aug 2018

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Related questions

What are the advantages of recombination? What are the disadvantages? Under what kinds of ecological conditions (stable environment, high predation rates, exposure to rapidly evolving parasites, etc.) would you expect to favor one, or the other?

Suppose you found a region of a genome in a vertebrate that was quite large (say, 10 million base pairs) that had an extremely low recombination rate. Suggest a reason why it might be advantageous to not recombine the genes in that genomic region.

How do prokaryotes distinguish the newly synthesized strand from the old template strand? Why don’t eukaryotes use the same mechanism?

What is methylation used for in prokaryotes? In eukaryotes?

What happens if mismatch repair occurs shortly after replication? How does it know which mismatched, normal base is incorrect? What happens if mismatch repair occurs long after replication has occurred?

Why does uracil DNA glycosylase have so an easier task to perform than thymine DNA glycosylase?

Describe the steps that occur following uracil DNA glycosylase activity. What needs to happen; what enzymes are involved?

What do x-rays do to DNA? What does UV radiation do? What do microwaves do?

Is there a safe minimum dose of radiation?

Why is telomerase turned off in human somatic cells? Is it turned off in mouse somatic cells? Would you expect it to be turned off in elephants? Would you expect elephants to have high cancer rates compared to mice?

Where is telomerase necessary? Is it on the leading, or lagging strand, or both? Why don’t bacteria need telomerase?

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I. Signaling cascades (4 pts)

1. Which of the following is an example of a signaling cascade?

A. Binding of lactose to the lac repressor

B. Binding of the lac repressor to the lac operon

C. The series of proteolytic digests that occur during clotting

D. The Collins Toggle Switch

2. Why is it important that signaling cascades have negative feedback loops?

II. Metabolism (4 pts)

1. What is a benefit of a negative feedback allosteric regulator?

A. It prevents starting materials from being unnecessarily consumed.

B. It regulated metabolism without requiring new protein synthesis.

C. It can be rapidly reversed as conditions change.

D. All of the above.

2. How is a metabolic cycle, like the citric cycle, distinct from a metabolic pathway, like glycolysis?

III. Transcription (4 pts)

1. Transcription factors, repressors, and activators are examples of proteins that _________.

A. randomly activate RNA polymerases.

B. bind specific DNA sequences.

C. bind specific rRNA sequences.

D. are found in the lysosome.

2. The trp operon is attenuated by a stem-loop structure that can form near RNA polymerase. The RNA sequencing encoding the stem loop is:

5’-AUACCCAGCCCGCCUAAUGAGCGGGCUU-3’

The stem loop is composed of 7 nucleotides which perfectly base pair. Indicate the two halves of the stem loop on the sequence above.

IV. DNA replication/repair/genome editing (4 pts)

1. What is a consequence of the need for RNA primers during DNA replication?

A. Linear chromosomes gradually shorten each cell division.

B. Transcription factors often trigger DNA replication.

C. RNA primers are not actually needed for DNA replication.

D. Lagging strands can be avoided.

2. CRISPR-mediated genome editing has gene-specific components: an sgRNA, and a double-stranded repair template. Describe the role of the sgRNA in directing genome editing.

V. Genetic circuits (4 pts)

1. Which statement best describes the mechanism of the toggle switch?

A. Inducers must be continuously applied to maintain one of two states.

B. Competing repressors keep the cell in one of two transcriptional states.

C. An activator and a repressor keep the cell in one of two states.

D. A pair of repressors cause the cell to oscillate between two states without input.

2. How is bistability achieved by the Collins toggle switch?

1. In addition to identifying the genetic material, the experiments of Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty with different strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae demonstrated that
DNA is a double helix.
DNA may be taken up by bacterial cells and be active.
DNA is present in bacteriophage T2.
eukaryotic cells may be genetically transformed.
DNA binds to the cell wall of the bacterium.
2. In order to show that DNA in cell extracts is responsible for genetic transformation in Streptococcus pneumoniae, important corroborating evidence should indicate that _______ also destroy transforming activity.
temperatures high enough to kill cells
enzymes that hydrolyze proteins
enzymes that hydrolyze DNA
enzymes that hydrolyze polysaccharides
enzymes that hydrolyze RNA
3. Based on what you have learned about the experiments conducted by Griffith and Avery and colleagues with bacteria, which of the following would result in transformation of living R cells?
Pure RNA from S cells
Cell-membrane extracts from S cells
A mixture of pure RNA and protein from S cells
Cell-free extracts from S cells
Pure protein from S cells
4. A-T base pairs in a DNA double helix
form three hydrogen bonds with each other.
are more heat-stable than G-C base pairs.
are of a substantially different length than G-C base pairs.
are not accessible to DNA binding proteins.
are chemically distinct from G-C base pairs.
5. If 23 percent of the bases in a sample of double-stranded DNA are adenine, what percentage of the bases are uracil?
27
50
0
73
23
6. The uniform diameter of the DNA structure provides evidence for
antiparallel DNA strands.
a right-handed helix.
a double-stranded helix.
3′ end phosphorylation.
purine–pyrimidine pairing.
7. If a sequence of one strand of DNA is 5′-TGACTATC-3′, what is the complementary strand?
5′-ACTGATAG-3′
3′-TGACTATC-5′
3′-ACTGATAG-5′
3′-ACTGATAG-3′
5′-TGACTATC-3′
8. What structural aspect of the DNA facilitates dissociation of the two DNA strands for replication?
3′ end phosphorylation
Purine–pyrimidine pairing
Antiparallel DNA strands
Covalent bonds between sugars and phosphate groups
Hydrogen bonding between paired bases
9. If the Meselson–Stahl density gradient experiment had resulted in two bands of DNA molecules after only one round of replication, one containing only 15N and the second only 14N, this result would have indicated that replication was
unidirectional.
dispersive.
conservative.
bidirectional.

semiconservative.
10. The nucleoside analogue acyclovir, which is used to treat herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections, lacks a 3′ hydroxyl group (–OH). Predict what will happen if the host cell DNA polymerase incorporates a molecule of acyclovir into an elongating strand of HSV DNA.
The replication complex will no longer bind to origins of replication.
The DNA polymerase will only incorporate acyclovir molecules.
Acyclovir will bind single-strand binding proteins.
DNA polymerase will not be able to link a successive nucleotide.
Acyclovir will block the activity of the DNA helicase.
11. Which of the following does not demonstrate the stability of the DNA double helix?
Single-strand binding proteins are required to keep the strands apart.
Paired bases form hydrogen bonds.
High temperatures are required to denature it.
DNA synthesis requires energy.
DNA helicases require ATP.
12. What effect would a primase inhibitor have on DNA replication?
DNA polymerase would not be able to add bases to the DNA.
Primase would be blocked from joining the DNA replication complex.
Primase would not be able to provide primers for DNA polymerases.
DNA polymerase would not be able to use DNA as a template.
There would be no effect on DNA replication.
13. To replicate their DNA in a timely manner, most eukaryotic chromosomes
normally have uncoiled DNA.
have multiple origins of replication.
contain linear molecules of single-stranded DNA.
have two replication forks that move in the same direction.
are composed entirely of DNA.
14. Which statement about DNA replication is false?
Okazaki fragments are synthesized as parts of the leading strand.
Error rates for DNA replication are reduced by proofreading of the DNA polymerase.
The sliding clamp increases the rate of DNA synthesis.
Replication forks represent areas of active DNA synthesis on the chromosomes.
Ligases and polymerases function in the vicinity of replication forks.
15. In many eukaryotes, there are repetitive sequences called telomeres at the ends of chromosomes. After successive rounds of DNA replication, the _______ strand becomes shorter. In some cells, an enzyme called _______ repairs the shortened strand.
leading; telomerase
lagging; telomerase
lagging; DNA polymerase I
leading; DNA polymerase I
leading; replicase
16. A researcher studies normal human fibroblast cells. They can be maintained in culture but die off after about 30 cell generations. Unexpectedly, a colony of cells continues to survive and divide past 30 generations. Which scenario is most likely true for these cells?
DNA polymerase is constantly active.
Primase is able to extend the telomeres.
The mismatch repair system is extra efficient.
The telomerase gene is being expressed.
The cells do not need the ends of their chromosomes.
17. If DNA polymerase III introduces an incorrect nucleotide, what is the first corrective action made by the DNA repair system?
The replication complex excises the incorrect nucleotide.
The excision repair proteins remove the incorrect nucleotide.
The mismatch repair system scans for base-pairing mismatches.
There is no correction, because nucleotide errors by DNA polymerases are not repaired.
DNA ligase connects the correct nucleotide.
18. Choose the correct order of the following four events in the excision repair of DNA:
(1) Base-paired DNA is made complementary to the template.
(2) Damaged bases are recognized.
(3) DNA ligase seals the new strand to existing DNA.
(4) Part of a single strand is excised.
1, 2, 3, 4
2, 1, 3, 4
3, 4, 2, 1
2, 4, 1, 3
4, 2, 3, 1
19. Six complete cycles of PCR should result in a _______-fold increase in the amount of DNA.
64
32
12
128
6
20. When double-stranded DNA is heated to temperatures above 90°C, it denatures. Denaturation is a process that
breaks covalent bonds.
hydrolyzes DNA.
separates double-stranded DNA into two single strands.
causes new hydrogen bonds to form.
irreversibly destroys the double helical structure.

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