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What happens to the demand curve for labor of a clinic if each of the following occurs:

a. Wages increase in hospitals (no effect, outward, inward)

b. The clinic purchases equipment that increases workers productivity (Inward, Outward, No effect)

c. The price of clinical visits increase. (Outward, Inward, No effect)

d. The clinic hires more workers. (No effect, Outward, Inward)

e. The clinic hires better trained workers who are more productive. (Inward, Outward, No effect)

f. The clinic nurses provide care that is of higher quality but takes more nursing time. (No effect, Inward, Outward)

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Anne Gillian Duero
Anne Gillian DueroLv10
28 Sep 2019

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Related questions

_____ 1. Suppose you make silver jewelry. If the price of silver falls, we would expect you to:

a. be willing and able to produce less jewelry than before at each possible price.

b. be willing and able to produce more jewelry than before at each possible price.

c. face greater demand for your jewelry.

d. face a weaker demand for your jewelry.

_____ 2. If suppliers expect the price of their product to fall in the future, then they will:

a. increase supply (supply curve shifts out) now.

b. decrease supply (supply curve shifts in) now.

c. increase supply in the future, but not now.

d. decrease supply in the future, but not now.

_____ 3. Consider the market for portable air conditioners, initially in equilibrium. When a heatwave strikes, the equilibrium price:

a. increases and equilibrium quantity decreases.

b. decreases, and the equilibrium quantity increases.

c. and quantity both increase.

d. and quantity both decrease.

_____ 4. Buyers can buy all they want to buy and sellers can sell all they want to sell at:

a. prices at and above the equilibrium price.

b. prices at and below the equilibrium price.

c. prices above and below the equilibrium price, but not at the equilibrium price.

d. the equilibrium price, but not at prices above or below the equilibrium price.

_____ 5. The law of supply and demand states that:

a. demand and supply curves shift out as time goes by.

b. the price of a goodwill rise in response to excess demand for that good.

c. when the supply curve for good shifts, the demand curve for that good shifts in response.

d. the equilibrium price of goodwill be rising more often than it will be falling.

_____ 6. If Doritos and Cheetos are substitutes, a rise in the price of Cheetos will cause:

a. the equilibrium quantity of Doritos to fall and the price of Doritos to rise.

b. the equilibrium quantity and price of Doritos to rise.

c. the equilibrium quantity and price of Doritos to fall.

d. the equilibrium quantity of Doritos to rise and the price of Doritos to fall.

_____ 7. New production technology is perfected that allows auto manufacturers to build an automobile using half the labor hours formerly needed. As a result:

a. the equilibrium quantity of automobiles increases and the price decreases.

b. the equilibrium quantity and price of automobiles increase.

c. the equilibrium quantity and price of automobiles decreases.

d. there is likely no change in the number of automobiles produced.

_____ 8. The U.S. government announces that it will raise the interest rate on college student loans beginning in January of next year. The immediate market impact is:

a. the demand curve for student loans shifts out.

b. the supply curve for student loans shifts out.

c. we anticipate that more student loans will be completed next year than this year.

d. all of the above are correct.

_____ 9. What curve shift produces a fall in price and increase in quantity exchanged?

a. An inward shift in the demand curve.

b. An inward shift in the supply curve.

c. An outward shift in the supply curve.

d. An outward shift in the demand curve.

_____ 10. We note that fewer motorcycles were sold this year than last and that the price is also lower. What event could have caused this outcome?

a. A technological change that improved the fuel efficiency of motorcycles.

b. A rise in the wages paid to motorcycle manufacturing workers.

c. A motorcycle craze due to the popularity of Sons of Anarchy.

d. Increasing concerns about health impacts from breathing motorcycle exhaust.

_____ 11. The price that results in quantity supplied equaling quantity demanded is the optimal (best) price because it:

a. maximizes the combined welfare of buyers and sellers.

b. maximizes the cost of the seller.

c. minimizes the expenditure of buyers.

d. all of the above are correct.

_____ 12. Consumer surplus is the:

a. quantity of good consumers get without paying anything.

b. amount a consumer pays minus the amount the consumer is willing to pay.

c. amount a consumer is willing to pay minus the amount the consumer pays.

d. value of a good to a consumer.

_____ 13. In a market, the marginal buyer is the one:

a. whose willingness to pay is higher than all other buyers and potential buyers.

b. whose willingness to pay is lower than all other buyers and potential buyers.

c. who is willing to buy exactly one unit of the good.

d. who would be the first to leave the market if the price were any higher.

_____ 14. If a consumer is willing and able to pay $20 for a particular good and if she actually pays $16 for the good, then her consumer surplus is:

a. $4.

b. $16.

c. $20.

d. $36.

_____ 15. Suppose there is an early freeze in California that reduces the size of the orange crop. What happens to consumer surplus in the market for oranges?

a. Consumer surplus increases.

b. Consumer surplus decreases.

c. Consumer surplus is not affected by this change.

d. We would have to know whether the demand for oranges is elastic or inelastic.

_____ 16. Producer surplus is the area on a supply/demand graph:

a. under the supply curve.

b. between the supply and demand curves.

c. below the price line and above the supply curve.

d. under the demand curve and above the price line.

_____ 17. Economists typically measure economic efficiency using:

a. total producer and consumer surplus.

b. profits to firms.

c. the quantity supplied by sellers.

d. the price paid by buyers.

_____ 18. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Efficiency and equality are both maximized when total surplus is maximized.

b. Efficiency deals with the size of the economic pie; equality with how fairly the pie is sliced.

c. Efficiency is more difficult to evaluate than equality.

d. Equality is judged on positive grounds; efficiency requires normative judgments.

_____ 19. The price elasticity of demand measures how much:

a. quantity demanded a response to changes in price.

b. quantity demanded a response to changes in income.

c. price responds to a change in demand.

d. Both a and c are correct

_____ 20. Goods with many close substitutes tend to have:

a. less elastic demands.

b. more elastic demands.

c. price elasticities of demand that are unit elastic.

d. income elasticities that are negative.

Short Answer Questions:

All of the following questions are based on the data shown here for coffee demand and supply at a fictional Columbus coffee shop called Go-bucks.

Price Quantity Quantity

per Cup Demanded Supplied

$1.60 1,700 1,220

$1.80 1,555 1,300

$2.00 1,400 1,400

$2.20 1,235 1,520

$2.40 1,060 1,660

$2.60 875 1,820

_____ 21. (6 points) Using the mid-point formula, calculate the price elasticity of demand as the price increases from $1.60 to $1.80.

_____ 22. (6 points) Repeat the calculation of the price elasticity of demand, this time for a price increase from $1.80 to $2.00.

_____ 23. (6 points) Repeat the calculation of the price elasticity of demand, this time for a price increase from $2.40 to $2.60.

24. (4 points) Over which price range is demand inelastic? Over which price range is demand elastic? Does this follow the trend noted in class?

_____________________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________

_____ 25. (6 points) Turning to the supply side, calculate the price elasticity of supply as the price increases from $2.20 to $2.40.

26. (2 points) How would you describe the price elasticity of supply over this range?

_____________________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________

5. The majority of financing for Medicaid programs comes from _______.

a.

the federal government

b.

state governments

c.

individual premiums

d.

charitable care

26. The DRG (Diagnosis-Related-Group) payment system used by Medicare to reimburse physicians is also used by private insurance companies and hospitals as a framework for their own medical care reimbursements.

True

False

27. The Human Capital approach considers investments in healthcare as an investment in making people more productive by making them healthier.

True

False

28. According to the Human Capital approach the value of a human life increases with the productivity (as measured by life time earning power) of an individual.

True

False

29. Which of the following statements is true about major medical professional categories since 1970?

a. The number of physicians has had the highest rate of increase.

b. The number of dentists has had the highest rate of increase.

c. The number of registered nurses has had the greatest rate of increase.*

d. The number of optometrists has had the greatest rate of increase.

30. Analysts have suggested that the nursing home sector has large numbers of non-profit providers because:

a. Older people cannot afford for-profit care.

b. Religious institutions often provide the care.

c. it is difficult to monitor nursing home quality, and nonprofit institutions would have less incentive to skimp on care.

d. Government provides incentives to nonprofit providers.

1. Which of the following shifts aggregate demand to the right?
a. Congress reduces purchases of new weapons systems.
b. US exports increase.
c. The price level falls
d. New developments in IT increase the productivity of most manufacturing industries in the US.

2. Suppose the EPA introduces new smog regulation that makes it costlier to produce cars. As a result, aggregate supply falls (primary effect) and firms cut back on production. With less output in the economy available for consumers, consumers bid up the prices of available output. With higher prices, firms choose to produce more (secondary effect).
Which of the following best explains what the net effect on GDP?
a. The two effects should essentially cancel out, with little to no effect on GDP, but the price level clearly rises.
b. It is impossible to say what happens to GDP without being able to compare the magnitudes of the two effects.
c. Real GDP rises as the secondary effect dominates the primary effect.
d. Real GDP falls since the primary effect dominates the secondary effect.

3. A Keynesian economist who observes an output gap would conclude that
a. aggregate demand should be shifted to the right.
b. a policy of deregulation would be better than demand management policy
c. aggregate supply should be shifted to the right
d. All proposed answer options are correct

4. Monetarists believe
a. the Aggregate Supply curve is upward-sloping (but not vertical) over all time frames.
b. the Aggregate Supply curve can be treated as horizontal in the long run (over 10 years
c. the Aggregate Supply curve is vertical only in the very long run (over 20 years).
d. the Aggregate Supply curve can be treated as vertical in the short-to-medium run (1-2 years)

5. Suppose the price of oil increases due to conflict in the Middle East. How will this be illustrated in the AD-AS model?
a. The aggregate demand curve will shift to the left
b. The aggregate supply curve will shift to the left.
c. The aggregate demand curve will shift to the right
d. The aggregate supply curve will shift to the right

6. Assume a Keynesian AS curve. In the short run, when there is a large output gap
a. contractionary demand management policy is likely to be highly inflationary
b. expansionary demand management policy does not cause much inflation.
c. expansionary demand management policy is likely to be highly inflationary
d. the government should use contractionary demand management policy

7. As a result of Bush tax cuts that partially expired in January 2013, the marginal tax rates for some households increased and these households paid higher taxes. Which of the following would be the best description of the tax cut expiration?
a. Rightward shift in AS
b. Rightward shift in AD
c. Leftward shift in AD
d. Leftward shift in AS

8. Suppose that the U.S. government increases income taxes on individuals earning more than $500,000/year and uses the revenue from this tax increase to subsidize the cost of energy for businesses. How will this policy change affect the U.S. economy?
a. The effect on output is ambiguous but price level will decrease for sure
b. The effect on both output and price level is ambiguous.
c. The effect on price level is ambiguous but output will increase for sure
d. The effect on price level is ambiguous but output will decrease for sure

9. If Australia, which imports goods from the United States, went into recession, we would expect that U.S. net exports would
a. rise, making aggregate demand shift right.
b. rise, making aggregate demand shift left
c. fall, making aggregate demand shift left
d. fall, making aggregate demand shift right

10. Suppose that Greece decides to exit the European Union and the Euro Zone, causing a boost in business confidence in European markets. How would you illustrate the primary effect of Greece’s decision in the AD-AS model for the EU economy?

Note: for this question, assume that Y in the AD-AS model represents output (GDP) of EU member countries without Greece.
a. a shift in the aggregate supply curve to the left and a shift in the aggregate demand curve to the left
b. a shift in the aggregate demand curve to the right
c. a shift in the aggregate demand curve to the left
d. movement along the aggregate demand curve to the left

11. The Austrian school of thought believes that demand management policy should not be used because
a. big government prefers deregulation, which shifts aggregate supply
b. the economy is always at full employment
c. shifting AD to the right is likely to cause deflation
d. big government has a bias towards inflationary policy

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