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22 Aug 2018

1. Gross national product measures the current market value of final output produced within a country by both domestic and foreign resources.

True or False

2.An increase in business inventories would be included in the investment component of GDP.

True or False

3.Critics of supply-side economics claim that it

a.favors the wealthy

b.increases federal debt

c.can be inflationary

d.all of the above

4.According to the classical economists, demand creates its own supply

True or False

5.Aggregate demand curves tend to be very flat

True or False

6.The Keynesian AS curve is

a. flat because of unemployed resources

b.vertical because of full employment

c.upward sloping

d.downward sloping

7.The Keynesian analysis assumes that ample resources will be available to increase production if planned investment increases when the economy is at less than full employment.

True or False

8.If planned injections increase by $100 per day and the MPC is four-fifths,

a. the multiplier will be 5

b. total daily spending will ultimately increase by $150

c.the MPS will be $25

d.all of the above

9.The consumption function shows the relationship between the income received by the economyâs households and the

a. amount they plan to spend on currently produced final output

b.amount of government spending

c.amount businesses plans to spend on investment

d.level of taxes on personal income

10.Prior to Keynes, the prevailing viewpoint concerning equilibrium in the economy was that of

a.supply-side economics

b.monetarism

c.classical economics

d.depression economics

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Nestor RutherfordLv2

22 Aug 2018

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Related questions

41.Which of the following is a valid statement about the Keynesian and classical models of the macroeconomy?

A. Fiscal policy will affect output in the Keynesian model, but only the price level in the classical model.

B. The economy adapts quickly to demand shocks under the Keynesian model, but not under the classical model.

C. A sharp decrease in the value of a nation's currency will lead to higher price levels in the Keynesian model, but not in the classical model.

D. Increases in autonomous expenditure will increase aggregate demand in the Keynesian model, but not in the classical model.

E. An increase in the productive capacity of an economy will result in greater output in both the Keynesian and classical models.

42. Suppose the government spends $500M on a project that has absolutely no value to the country. Which statement about this project is correct?

A. If taxes were raised $500M to fund this project, the Keynesian model predicts that this will have no net effect on output in the economy.

B. If the government raised the money for this project by printing $500M in bonds and selling them to the Fed, the effect is exactly the same as if they sold the bonds to households.

C. The project will increase aggregate supply because it will increase the total quantity of goods and services supplied in the economy.

D. If the marginal propensity to save in the economy is equal to 0.25, the Keynesian model predicts that this project will result in a $2000M increase in GDP.

E. Under the assumptions of the classical model, the result of this project will be increased in both the price level and equilibrium GDP.

43. A particular economy has a consumption of $400M, a government deficit of $100M, taxes of $250M, and income of $800M. Which of the following statements must be true?

A. If the investment is zero, there is no foreign trade imbalance.

B. If the trade surplus is $50M, the investment will be equal to $100M.

C. If the capital account surplus is $50M, the investment will be equal to $100M.

D. If the trade surplus is $100M, there will be an investment.

E. None of the above statements is necessarily true.

44. Which piece of information would be least useful in trying to predict the effect of a $700M increase in government spending on equilibrium GDP?

A. marginal propensity to save

B. The slope of the aggregate supply curve

C. Whether taxes are raised to pay for the spending increase

D. The current level of structural unemployment

E. Whether the bonds used to finance the spending were sold to households or to the Fed

45.Which of the statements relating to full employment and full capacity is false?

A. At full employment there is no frictional unemployment; at full capacity, there is no structural unemployment.

B. The full-employment level of output is less than the full capacity level of output.

C. At full employment there is no cyclical unemployment; at full capacity, there is no frictional unemployment.

D. A government spending increase will result in increased output and price levels at full employment, but only increased price levels at full capacity.

E. In the long run, an economy that starts at full capacity will move to full employment.

46. What would be the effect of a law requiring that government spending equal tax revenues in each year?

A. Fiscal policy would be completely eliminated as a tool to control the macroeconomy.

B. Monetary policy would be completely eliminated as a tool to control the macroeconomy.

C. Fluctuations in GDP would become less severe.

D. The government spending multiplier would be effectively set to 1.0.

E. The marginal propensity to consume would be cut in half.

47.The total value of T-bonds, including T-notes and T-bills, in existence at any point in time, is:

A. The federal government spending deficit.

B. The trade deficit.

C. Less than government spending.

D. Necessarily less than GDP.

E. The national debt.

48. Which of the following would be a valid statement about a government plan to eliminate a trade deficit

A. A decrease in the trade deficit will decrease investment in the country.

B. An effective strategy would be to increase the money supply and increase the value of the national currency.

C. An effective strategy would be to increase interest rates and increase the value of the national currency.

D. This could be achieved through dramatically increasing aggregate supply.

E. The increase in net exports will result in a decrease in aggregate demand.

49. Crowding out has the effect(s) of:

A. Reducing the effectiveness of monetary policy if crowding out occurs in financial markets.

B. Decreasing the value of a nationâs currency if the crowding out occurs in financial markets.

C. Increasing the effectiveness of fiscal policy if the crowding out occurs in financial markets and increasing the effectiveness of monetary policy if the crowding out occurs in product markets.

D. Decreasing the effectiveness of fiscal policy if the crowding out occurs in financial markets and decreasing the effectiveness of both fiscal and monetary policy if the crowding out occurs in product markets.

E. Increasing the price of government bonds if the crowding out occurs in financial markets.

50. Which of the following will make crowding out in credit markets more severe?

A. A steep investment demand curve

B. A global credit market

C. Tax increases

D. A steep supply curve in the loanable funds market

E. None of the above

peachmacaw787

Question 1

The law of demand states that there is a direct relationship between supply and demand.

True

False

4 points

Question 2

Equilibrium is a state of balance between supply and demand.

True

False

4 points

Question 3

Goods are scarce for both rich and poor.

True

False

4 points

Question 4

"The big corporations in this country, like ExxonMobil and GM, have deep pockets and need to be hiring more people." This is a positive statement about economic policy.

True

False

4 points

Question 5

The law of supply states that there is a direct relationship between price and quantity demanded.

True

False

4 points

Question 6

In the circular flow model, firms own economic resources, and householdsbuy the manufactured products and services.

True

False

4 points

Question 7

Households play a dual role of providing the factors of production whilepurchasing the goods and services of firms.

True

False

4 points

Question 8

Opportunity cost is the lowest valued benefit that must be sacrificed asthe result of choosing an alternative.

True

False

4 points

Question 9

Scarcity denotes that our desire for a good exceeds the amount that isfreely available from nature.

True

False

4 points

Question 10

Economics is a social science concerned with satisfying man's unlimitedwants with limited resources.

True

False

4 points

Question 11

Joint output of individuals or nations will be maximized when goods areexchanged between parties in accordance with the law of"comparative advantage".

True

False

4 points

Question 12

The production possibilities frontier assumes that the level of technologyvaries when applying the model.

True

False

4 points

Question 13

Excess demand in the market will cause the price of a product to decline.

True

False

4 points

Question 14

Demand is measured on the vertical axis and supply on the horizontalaxis.

True

False

4 points

Question 15

A change in quantity demanded is a movement along the same demandcurve.

True

False

4 points

Question 16

As globalization and world trade proliferates, individual markets withincountries' economies become more competitive.

True

False

4 points

Question 17

Which growth theory compares a subsistence real wage rate to the actual real wage rate?

		Classical growth theory
		Inflation growth theory
		Neoclassical growth theory
		New growth theory

4 points

Question 18

Suppose the working age population in Tiny Town is 100 people. If 25 of these people are NOT in the labor force, the ________ equals ________.

		unemployment rate; 25/100 Ã 100
		employment rate; 25/75 Ã 100
		labor force; 75
		labor force; 25/100 Ã 100

4 points

Question 19

Suppose there is a rise in the real wage rate. As a result, the quantity of labor demanded:

		increases.
		decreases.
		does not change because there is no change in the money wage rate.
		increases only if the price level also decreases.

4 points

Question 20

GDP can be computed as the sum of:

		all sales that have taken place in an economy over a period of time.
		the total expenditures of consumers and business over a period of time.
		the total expenditures of consumption, investment, and government expenditure on goods and services over a period of time.
		the total expenditures of consumption, investment, government expenditure on goods and services, and net exports over a period of time.

4 points

Question 21

The real wage rate equals:

		(100 x (money wage rate/price level)
		(100 x (price level/money wage rate)
		(money wage rate x (price level)
		(money wage + (number of hours worked/(price level)

4 points

Question 22

If the CPI was 121.5 at the end of 2007 and 138.3 at the end of 2008, the inflation rate over these two years was:

		10.2 percent.
		13.8 percent.
		12.2 percent.
		16.8 percent.

4 points

Question 23

A movement along the production function is the result of a change in:

		the quantity of labor.
		technology.
		capital.
		interest rates.

4 points

Question 24

All of the following are part of fiscal policy EXCEPT:

		setting tax rates.
		setting government spending.
		choosing the size of the government deficit.
		controlling the money supply.

4 points

Question 25

Along a production possibilities frontier for real GDP and the quantity of leisure time, as leisure time increases, real GDP:

		decreases.
		increases.
		stays the same.
		could increase, decrease or stay the same.

lavenderminnow570

In the money market, money supply is determined by the central bank, such as the Fed in the U.S. Because of this, money supply curve is usually vertical in the short run, while the money demand curve is downward sloping. The quantity demanded of money has an inverse relationship with the interest rate, but a direct relationship with both the price level and real GDP. Therefore, when the general price level increases, what will most likely happen?

		A. The money demand curve will shift to the right.
		B. The money demand curve will shift to the left.
		C. Both the interest rate and investment will rise.
		D. Only A and C.
		E. Only B and C.

Suppose workers become pessimistic about their future employment, which causes them to save more and spend less. If the economy is in the Keynesian range of the aggregate supply curve, then

		A. real GDP will fall and the price level will rise.
		B. real GDP will rise and the price level will fall.
		C. only the real GDP will fall.
		D. only the price level will fall.
		E. both real GDP and the price level will fall.

Which of the following will shift the aggregate demand curve to the left?

		A. The federal government increases spending for highways and bridges.
		B. Consumers expect an economic downturn.
		C. The federal government increases income taxes.
		D. Only A and C.
		E. Only B and C.

Which of the following will shift the aggregate supply curve to the left?

		A. All workers agree to a reduction in wages.
		B. The federal government increases the gasoline taxes.
		C. An improvement in technology raises labor productivity.
		D. Only A and C.
		E. Only B and C

There are also two kinds of deflation, the demand-pull deflation and cost-push deflation. Then which of the following is most likely to be true?

		A. An increase in AD will cause the demand-pull deflation.
		B. An increase in AS (or SRAS) will cause a cost-push deflation.
		C. Economists worry about the demand-pull deflation more than the cost-push deflation.
		D. Only A and C.
		E. Only B and C.

The short-run aggregate supply curve (SRAS) can be written as follows: Y = Yf + b (p - pe), where Y = real GDP, Yf = full-employment real GDP, p = price level, pe = expected price level, and b is a positive coefficient. The SRAS can be re-written as p = pe - (1/b)(Yf) + (1/b)(Y). Then which of the following is true?

		A. An increase in pe will cause a rightward shift of the SRAS curve.
		B. An increase in pe will cause a leftward shift of the SRAS curve.
		C. An increase in Yf will cause a leftward shift of the SRAS curve.
		D. Only A and C.
		E. Only B and C.