BIOL 1201 : Biology Exam 1

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azuremammoth471

15 Mar 2019

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Lithium has a valence of 1 because its easier for it to lose one electron than gain 7: subatomic particles, atoms, the smallest unit of matter that retains all of the properties of that element, ex. Smallest unit that contains all the properties of hydrogen is a single hydrogen atom of hydrogen: molecules, the smallest unit of a compound that retains all of the properties of that compound, compound. 2: substance consisting of two or more different atoms, in specific proportions, bonded together in a specific pattern, ex. Water; hydrogen and oxygen are in a specific pattern, each hydrogen is attached to the oxygen which is in the center of the molecule: elements, fundamental unit of matter, ex. 7: sh, essentialy non-polar, polarity very weak, important in 1 part of protein, methyl, ch3, pure covalent bond, non-polar bond, not a functional group but important, c-h: hydrocarbon group, non-polar bond.

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ATOMIC STRUCTURE

1. A neutral oxygen atom (atomic number = 8) has 8 electronslocated in 2 different electron orbitals. TrueFalse

2. Hydrogen has only one neutron and no protons in itsnucleus. TrueFalse
3. An atom consists of a central nucleus surrounded by electronsthat are in constant motion. TrueFalse
4. Almost all of the mass of an atom is concentrated in itselectrons. TrueFalse
5. The orbital of an electron is the volume of space where theelectron is most likely to be found. TrueFalse
6. Almost all of the volume of an atom is emptyspace. TrueFalse
7. The reactivity or chemical behavior of an atom depends primarilyon the number of neutrons it has. TrueFalse
8. Modern physics indicates that we cannot determine the exactlocation of a particular electron at any giventime. TrueFalse
9. Electrons are maintained in their orbitals by their attractionto the positively charged nucleus. TrueFalse
10. Atomic orbitals represent probability distributions forelectrons and come in a variety of shapes. TrueFalse

aquamarineoyster686

Movement of vesicles within the cell depends on what cellular structures?

centrioles and motor proteins

microtubules and motor proteins

actin filaments and motor proteins

actin filaments and microtubules

actin filaments and ribosomes

Why is water considered a polar molecule?

The negatively charged oxygen atom attracts the positively charged hydrogen atoms.

The oxygen is found between the two hydrogens.

It remains liquid even at very low temperatures.

Both hydrogens are at one end of the molecule, and oxygen is at the other end.

Its electrons spend more time with its oxygen than with either hydrogen.

Which of the following is a major difference between prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells?

Prokaryotes have cells while eukaryotes do not.

Eukaryotic cells have more intracellular organelles than prokaryotes.

Prokaryotes are generally larger than eukaryotes.

Prokaryotes are not able to carry out aerobic respiration, relying instead on anaerobic metabolism.

Which of the following is not a necessary component of life?

needs energy

uses DNA for heredity

breathes oxygen

irritability

depends on other living forms

Lipids _____.

contain less energy than proteins and carbohydrates

are made by dehydration reactions

are insoluble in water

contain sulfur polymers

are made from glycerol, fatty acids, and nitrogen

What is biology?

the study of life

the study of genetics

the study of biomes

the study of the environment

the naming and classifying of species

_____ is an example of an element.

With what are saturated fats saturated?

Beryllium's atomic mass is 9, and its atomic number is 4. How many neutrons are found in a beryllium atom?

Question 1 An unknown element is found to contain 45 protons and an atomic mass of 64, what is its atomic number? A It cannot be determined. B 19 C 45 D 64 Question 2 The square above is based on the eye color of two parents, one of whom has brown eyes and carries the recessive gene for green eyes (a). What is the probability that a biological child of these parents will have brown eyes? A 0% B 25% C 50% D 100% The spleen functions are part of the _____ system. Which of the following completes the sentence above? A digestive B lymphatic C endocrine D circulatory Question 4 Which of the following is an example of deductive reasoning? A Only 21% of a townâs population have expressed a desire to ban all cars. Therefore, the new proposition banning cars in the state is not likely to pass. B People who brush their teeth regularly have fewer instances of heart disease. Therefore, good dentistry can prevent heart attacks. C All soccer players who play professionally can kick well. Therefore, any future soccer player who is recruited to play professionally will be able to kick well. D All secretaries are good typists. Cynthia is a secretary. Therefore, Cynthia is a good typist. Question 5 Which of the following is a possible cause of herniation of discs? A hepatitis B whiplash C plantar fasciitis D ulcer Question 6 Which of the following is a characteristic of the autonomic nervous system? A It regulates the voluntary control of body movements through the skeletal muscles. B It is the part of the nervous system consisting of the brain and spinal cord. C It regulates involuntary activity in the heart, stomach, lungs, and intestines. D It is thought to be the center of intelligence. Question 7 During photosynthesis, which two compounds are combined to create the output of glucose and oxygen? A Carbon dioxide and water. B Carbon dioxide and bicarbonate. C Bicarbonate and water. D Carbon dioxide and multiple alkaline substances. Question 8 Questions 8 & 9 are based on the following diagram: Which of the following is true about the frog? A It is a member of the salamandridae family. B It is a type of amphibian. C It is a non-vertebrate. D It is closer to most tetrapods than to most newts. Question 9 Questions 8 & 9 are based on the following diagram: Which statement can be inferred about amphibians? A All amphibians are salamandridae, but not all salamandridae are amphibians. B Some amphibians are vertebrates, but not all amphibians are vertebrates. C Some salamandridae are amphibians, but not all amphibians are tetrapods. D All amphibians are vertebrates, but not all vertebrates are amphibians. Question 10 What would this diagram be useful for? A determining outcomes for potential infection B diagnosing an infectious disease C controlling the spread of disease in undeveloped countries D training nurses to detect early onset symptoms of disease Question 11 What type of bond between the complementary bases of DNA stabilizes the double helix structure? A covalent B ionic C hydrogen D nuclear Question 12 Which of the following subatomic particles are found inside of an atomâs nucleus? A electrons, neutrons, protons B neutrons, protons C electrons, protons D electrons Question 13 Which of the following statements is true regarding trophic levels? A Tertiary consumers acquire more energy content than secondary consumers. B Producers acquire less energy than primary consumers. C Secondary consumers acquire more energy than primary consumers. D Tertiary consumers acquire less energy than primary consumers. Question 14 Why does the human eye perceive a red colored dress as the color red? A The molecules of the dress do not absorb red light wavelengths. B The molecules of the dress absorb green and blue light wavelengths. C A red dress will primarily absorb red light wavelengths. D A red dress will not absorb light wavelengths from non-red colors. Question 15 In a lab experiment designed to test the rate at which plants grow under artificial light, the kind of light used is which type of variable? A dependent B independent C random D responding Question 16 Which organ system is primarily responsible for regulating metabolism, mood, and growth? A respiratory system B digestive system C endocrine system D lymphatic system Question 17 In a vacuum, why doesnât an elephant accelerate faster than a penny as it falls to the ground? A Vector components of an elephant are more complex than those of a penny. B An elephant is not a projectile, while a penny is. C They both have an acceleration of 9.8 m/s2. D The elephant is greater in mass but is slowed less by the effects of air resistance. Question 18 Which train described below would have the greatest momentum? A A 9500 kg train car moving at 200 mph B An 8000 kg train car moving at 215 mph C A 9300 kg train car moving at 190 mph D A 8600 kg train car mobbing at 195 mph Question 19 A scientist found that when an invasive species was introduced into a river, the population of salmon native to the region decreased. The type of correlation between these two populations could best be described as A a direct relationship. B an inverse relationship. C a direct and indirect relationship. D no decisive relationship. Question 20 The addition of a catalyst to a chemical reaction will have what effect? A Increase the energy required for the reaction to take place. B Increase the time required for the reaction to take place. C Increase the rate at which the reaction takes place. D Reduce the amount of products in the reaction. Question 21 The pharynx is part of what body system? A respiratory B muscular C lymphatic D circulatory Question 22 Which of the following is true about eukaryotic cells? A They do not contain lysosomes. B They contain one chromosome. C They do not contain a nucleus. D They contain mitochondria. Question 23 What characteristic of an element determines its specific isotope? A Number of protons. B Number of neutrons. C Number of electrons. D Number of quarks. Question 24 What is NOT true about RNA? A It contains a sugar called ribose. B Thymine is not one of its base pairings. C It is unstable in alkaline conditions. D Its sugar is more reduced than DNAâs sugar. Question 25 Which of the following scenarios would NOT give a normal distribution? A A distribution of the yearly income of families in the U.S. B The distribution of heights in a large sample of people. C The percentage of toxic wastes and pollution in the atmosphere vs. the lifespan of organisms in the location. D A curve with 97% of the population within the first two standard deviations. Question 26 In a cell, the Golgi apparatus is found in what location? A Inside the nucleus B Inside the mitochondria C In the cell wall D In the cytoplasm Question 27 Which taxonomic rank is the next-smallest after Order? A Phylum B Family C Species D Genus Question 28 In plants, ________ involves the formation of a _____? A cytokinesis, cleavage furrow B telophase, cell plate C cytokinesis, cell plate D prophase, DNA Question 29 Which base is NOT found in DNA? A guanine B cytosine C uracil D adenine Question 30 Which of the following layers of the atmosphere is the closest to space? A troposphere B stratosphere C mesosphere D thermosphere Question 31 Which is NOT one of the four basic types of tissue? A parenchyma B epithelial C nervous D connective Question 32 The stomach is _____ to the small intestine. Which of the following correctly completes the sentence above? A lateral B superior C posterior D proximal Question 33 Which of the following is the atomic mass of an atom containing 42 protons, 42 electrons, and 37 neutrons? A 42 B 79 C 84 D 121 Question 34 A patient who has suffered head trauma is not able to recognize people he has met around an hour earlier but is still able to recognize people he met before the injury. He most likely has damage to the: A Medulla Oblongata B Corpus Callosum C Hippocampus D Pituitary Gland Question 35 What process is illustrated in the diagram above? A meiosis B mitosis C replication D codification Question 36 Of the following, which is not a type of chemical bond? A ionic B covalent C polar D magnetic Question 37 If the amount of hydrogen in a balloon of fixed size is doubled, what happens to the mass and density of the balloon? A The mass and density both decrease. B The mass increases, but the density decreases. C The mass decreases, but the density increases. D The mass and density both increase. Question 38 If you have 200 mL of a 60% sodium chloride solution, how much NaCl is dissolved in the solution? A 20 g B 50 g C 80 g D 120 g Question 39 How many carbon dioxide molecules are required to balance the following reaction: 4C6H12O6 + 24O2 â _CO2 + 24H2O + Energy A 4 B 8 C 16 D 24 Question 40 The graph above records the death rate of two types of male flies a certain number of days after a chemical pesticide is sprayed. What is the probability a male methuselah fly will be alive 75 days after exposure to the pesticide? A 1/2 B 1/3 C 1/4 D 1/5 Question 41 A scientist wants to write an equation using the variables X, Y, and Z. What is the proper relationship between the variables if X represents time, Y represents energy, and Z represents power? A 2XY = Z B XZ = 2Y C Z = X/Y D Z = Y/X Question 42 What type of correlation is presented between price and quality? A strong direct correlation B weak direct correlation C strong indirect correlation D no correlation Question 43 What type of cells result from mitosis? A one diploid cell B two haploid cells C two diploid cells D four haploid cells Question 44 Cheetahs, rainbow trout, and inchworms belong to the same A Kingdom B Phylum C Class D Order Question 45 The presence of which hormone would NOT cause an increase in water retention? A Renin B ANP C ADH D Aldosterone Question 46 In which part of the heart does oxygenated blood flow out of? A Right ventricle B Left ventricle C Right atrium D Left atrium Question 47 Which of the following hormones are secreted directly by the hypothalamus? A melatonin B oxytocin C dopamine D calcitonin Question 48 Which of the following terms do these diagrams NOT portray? A Active transport B Facilitated Transport C Antiporter D Ion Channel

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BIOL 1201 : Biology Exam 1

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