BU1003 Chapter Notes - Chapter 15: Neutrality Of Money, Business Cycle, Longrun

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15 May 2018

School

James Cook University

Department

Course

BU1003

Professor

Diane

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Chapter 15

SOLUTIONS TO TEXT PROBLEMS:

Quick Quizzes

The answers to the Quick Quizzes can also be found near the end of the textbook.

1. Three key facts about economic fluctuations are: (1) economic fluctuations are

irregular and unpredictable; (2) most macroeconomic quantities fluctuate

together; and (3) as output falls, unemployment rises.

Economic fluctuations are irregular and unpredictable, as you can see by looking

at a graph of real GDP over time. Some recessions are close together and others

are far apart. There appears to be no recurring pattern.

Most macroeconomic quantities fluctuate together. In recessions, real GDP,

consumer spending, investment spending, corporate profits, and other

macroeconomic variables decline or grow much more slowly than during

economic expansions. However, the variables fluctuate by different amounts over

the business cycle, with investment varying much more than other variables.

As output falls, unemployment rises, because when firms want to produce less,

they lay off workers, thus causing a rise in unemployment.

2. The economy’s behavior in the short run differs from its behavior in the long run

because the assumption of monetary neutrality applies only to the long run, not

the short run. In the short run, real and nominal variables are highly intertwined.

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Figure 1 shows the model of aggregate demand and aggregate supply. The

horizontal axis shows the quantity of output, and the vertical axis shows the price

level.

Figure 1

3. The aggregate-demand curve slopes downward for three reasons. First, when

prices fall, the value of dollars in people’s wallets and bank accounts rises, so they

are wealthier. As a result, they spend more, thereby increasing the quantity of

goods and services demanded. Second, when prices fall, people need less money

to make their purchases, so they lend more out, which reduces the interest rate.

The lower interest rate encourages businesses to invest more, increasing the

quantity of goods and services demanded. Third, since lower prices lead to a

lower interest rate, some U.S. investors will invest abroad, supplying dollars to

the foreign-exchange market, thus causing the dollar to depreciate. The decline in

the real exchange rate causes net exports to increase, which increases the quantity

of goods and services demanded.

Any event that alters the level of consumption, investment, government

purchases, or net exports at a given price level will lead to a shift in aggregate

demand. An increase in expenditure will shift the aggregate-demand curve to the

right, while a decline in expenditure will shift the aggregate-demand curve to the

left.

4. The long-run aggregate-supply curve is vertical because the price level does not

affect the long-run determinants of real GDP, which include supplies of labor,

capital, natural resources, and the level of available technology. This is just an

application of the classical dichotomy and monetary neutrality.

There are three reasons the short-run aggregate-supply curve slopes upward. First,

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the sticky-wage theory suggests that because nominal wages are slow to adjust, a

decline in the price level means real wages are higher, so firms hire fewer workers

and produce less, causing the quantity of goods and services supplied to decline.

Second, the sticky-price theory suggests that the prices of some goods and

services are slow to change. If some economic event causes the overall price

level to decline, the relative prices of goods whose prices are sticky will rise and

the quantity of those goods sold will decline, leading firms to cut back on

production. Thus, a lower price level reduces the quantity of goods and services

supplied. Third, the misperceptions theory suggests that changes in the overall

price level can temporarily mislead suppliers. When the price level falls below

the level that was expected, suppliers think that the relative prices of their

products have declined, so they produce less. Thus, a lower price level reduces

the quantity of goods and services supplied.

The long-run and short-run aggregate-supply curves will both shift if the supplies

of labor, capital, or natural resources change or if technology changes. A change

in the expected price level will shift the short-run aggregate-supply curve but will

have no effect on the long-run aggregate-supply curve.

Figure 2

5. When a popular presidential candidate is elected, causing people to be more

confident about the future, they will spend more, causing the aggregate-demand

curve to shift to the right, as shown in Figure 2. The economy begins at point A

with aggregate-demand curve AD1 and short-run aggregate-supply curve AS1.

The equilibrium has price level P1 and output level Y1. Increased confidence

about the future causes the aggregate-demand curve to shift to AD2. The

economy moves to point B, with price level P2 and output level Y2. Over time,

price expectations adjust and the short-run aggregate-supply curve shifts up to AS2

and the economy moves to equilibrium at point C, with price level P3 and output

level Y1.

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Related Questions

1. Fiscal policy attempts to affect the level of overall spendingin the economy by changes in:
A) the interest rate.
B) the money supply.
C) banking regulations.
D) taxes and spending.

2. Economists have identified several consecutive months of fallingemployment and forecasts for the next few months are for more ofthe same. At what point in the business cycle is the economyapparently located?
A) recession
B) expansion
C) business cycle peak
D) business cycle trough

3. The onset of the Great Depression:
A) was not a shock to anyone since most economists predicted theâroaring 20sâ were bound to end in disaster.
B) created a disagreement between the Hoover administration andconventional economists because Hoover wanted the government tointervene much more quickly than most others.
C) came as a considerable shock to the conventional wisdom ofeconomics at that time and opened the door for critiques ofmainstream thought by economists like JM Keynes.
D) was in 1918 at the end of World War I.

4. When economists measure economic growth, they often use:
A) the inflation rate.
B) the unemployment rate.
C) nominal GDP.
D) real GDP.

5. In a typical business cycle, the business cycle peak isimmediately followed by the:
A) recession.
B) business cycle trough.
C) expansion.
D) depression.

6. Suppose an economy experiences rising total output accompaniedby increasing employment, this is generally known as:
A) stagflation.
B) recession.
C) inflation.
D) expansion.

7. Controlling interest rates is an example of:
A) fiscal policy.
B) tax policy.
C) monetary policy.
D) exchange rate policy.

8. The alternation between recessions and expansions is known asthe:
A) unemployment rate.
B) long-run economic growth.
C) business cycle.
D) macroeconomy.

9. A recession in America is typically associated with:
A) a falling unemployment rate.
B) a decrease in the number of people living in poverty.
C) a decrease in the percentage of Americans with healthinsurance.
D) an increase in corporate profits.

10. The purpose of macroeconomic policy is to:
A) bring unemployment closer to the natural rate.
B) reduce the severity of recessions.
C) rein in excessively strong expansions.
D) bring unemployment closer to the natural rate and to reduce theseverity of recessions.

11. The trade balance is the difference between the value ofthe:
A) trade deficit and the budget deficit.
B) goods and services that one country sells to other countries andthe value of the goods and services it buys in return.
C) exchange rates of two countries that are engaged ininternational trade.
D) national debt and the foreign debt.

12. Increasing the total amount of available productive resourcesis the focus of __________.
A) macroeconomics
B) fiscal policy
C) monetary policy
D) microeconomics

13. The point on a business cycle when real GDP stops rising andbegins falling is a(n):
A) peak.
B) trough.
C) expansion.
D) recession.

14. During a recession, one will often observe:
A) aggregate output rising.
B) unemployment rates will be increasing while aggregate output isfalling.
C) employment rates will be rising.
D) zero unemployment rates.

15. Monetary policy involves:
A) changes in government spending.
B) changes in government tax receipts.
C) changes in the quantity of money.
D) changes in tax rates.

16. The trough of the business cycle:
A) comes right after the expansion phase.
B) comes before the recession phase.
C) is a temporary maximum level of real GDP.
D) is a temporary minimum level of real GDP.

17. Which one of the following statements about the U.S. economy isnot accurate?
A) Since the Second World War, aggregate output grew at a ratelower than the average annual growth rate of population.
B) Since the Second World War, aggregate output grew at a ratehigher than the average annual growth rate of population.
C) Since the Second World War, macroeconomic policy has helped makethe economy more stable.
D) Long-run growth per capita is the key to higher wages and arising standard of living.

18. An economic recovery is all of the following except:
A) economic growth of a sustained nature.
B) a short-run increase in aggregate production in aneconomy.
C) a time of increasing employment.
D) the end of the business cycle.

19. Which of the following would NOT be classified as amacroeconomic question?
A) How many people are employed in the economy as a whole?
B) What determines the overall level of prices in the economy as awhole?
C) What determines the overall trade in goods, services, andfinancial assets between the United States and the rest of theworld?
D) What determines the cost to a university or college of offeringa new course?

20. Which of the following statements regarding price level orinflation is correct?
A) Supply and demand can not explain why a particular good orservice becomes more expensive relative to other goods andservices.
B) Inflation affects only the more advanced countries whereas lessadvanced countries face deflation.
C) Prices of most goods and services remained stable during thegreat depression.
D) In general, when the economy is in recession and jobs are hardto find, inflation tends to fall.

21. If wages grew at a 5% rate last year and average prices grew ata 3% rate, then the average worker is:
A) better off.
B) worse off.
C) no better or worse off.
D) unaffected.

22. In an open economy:
A) the exchange rate is determined by the government.
B) specialization in activities with a comparative advantage is notpossible.
C) trade is only beneficial to the relatively larger economy.
D) there is trade in goods, services, or assets with othercountries.

23. Changes in government spending and taxes in an effort to changeoverall spending in an economy is:
A) fiscal policy.
B) monetary policy.
C) investment.
D) the stock market.

24. If an economy is open, this means that:
A) anyone can immigrate to the country.
B) trading with other countries makes up a portion of itseconomy.
C) it does not trade with other countries.
D) it will experience a drop in its real GDP.

25. Inflation is a situation where:
A) the average price level falls.
B) the average price level increases.
C) the average price level becomes negative.
D) the real price level falls.

26. The topics studied in macroeconomics include:
A) the price of a motorcycle.
B) the wages of engineers.
C) the average price level in the economy.
D) how much ice cream consumers buy.

27. A period of rising real GDP is a(n):
A) peak.
B) trough.
C) expansion.
D) recession.

28. The modern tools of macroeconomic policy are:
A) tax policy and antitrust policy.
B) fiscal policy and monetary policy.
C) monetary policy and exchange rate policy.
D) capital policy and labor policy.

29. A ârubber neckingâ traffic jam is an example of:
A) microeconomics in action.
B) individual behavior that has a large aggregate impact.
C) the paradox of thrift.
D) an outcome smaller than the sum of its parts.

30. The most painful consequence of a recession is:
A) rising unemployment.
B) increasing inflation.
C) increasing aggregate output.
D) higher interest rates.

31. Per capita economic growth is:
A) economic growth per unit of capital.
B) economic growth per person.
C) economic expansion over the business cycle.
D) sustained increase in aggregate output.

32. Keynesian economics stressed:
A) total spending.
B) the self-regulating power of free markets.
C) the long run.
D) that the Depression should run its course to bring down the highcost of living.

33. When an economy's overall production grows faster than itspopulation, this is referred to as:
A) long-run growth per capita.
B) an increase in nominal GDP.
C) deflation.
D) the paradox of thrift.

34. Fiscal policy attempts to affect the overall level of spendingin the economy through:
A) changes in the inflation rate.
B) changes in the quantity of money or the interest rate.
C) changes in tax policy or government spending.
D) discretionary regulation of profits and wages.

35. With regard to the aggregate price level, economists generallybelieve:
A) price stability is a desirable goal.
B) inflation is worse than deflation.
C) deflation is worse than inflation.
D) inflation actually benefits most retired people.

36. Recessions are periods when:
A) output rises.
B) the aggregate price level rises.
C) the unemployment rate is falling.
D) output and employment are falling.

37. Monetary policy attempts to affect the overall level ofspending in the economy by changes in:
A) taxes.
B) taxes and spending.
C) taxes and interest rates.
D) interest rates and the quantity of money.

38. The basic difference between an economic recession and economicdepression is that:
A) the latter is a shorter economic downturn than the former.
B) during recessions output falls faster than duringdepressions.
C) during depressions employment falls faster than duringrecessions.
D) the former is a longer economic downturn than the latter.

39. The central mission of modern macroeconomics is to prevent_____ from happening again.
A) recessions
B) inflation
C) deflation
D) anything like the Great Depression

40. Fiscal policy refers to:
A) the control of interest rates.
B) the control of government spending and taxations.
C) the control of the quantity of money.
D) the control of interest rates and of government spending.

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Question 3

According to Joseph Schumpeter, the theory of creative destruction describes a process by which

	A	some new products unleash a gale of destruction that drive other new products out of the market.
B		new products unleash a gale of destruction that drives old products out of the market.
C		new products are created by the destruction of capital.
D		the creation of new products never involves the destruction of old products.

Question 4

Which of the following countries had the highest GDP per capita in 2012?

		A Qatar
B		United States
C		Japan
D		Norway

Question 5

________ save a ________ of their income. This ________ capital in their economy and raises economic growth.

	A	Developing countries; large proportion; decreases
B		Developing countries; small proportion; increases
C		High-income countries; large proportion; increases
D		High-income countries; small proportion; increases

Question 6

The demand for loanable funds is determined by the willingness of ________ to borrow money to engage in new investment projects.

A		government
B		households
C		banks
D		firms

Question 7

The U.S. economy has been more stable since 1950.

True

False

Question 8

When the economy reaches a trough in a business cycle, which of the following will occur?

A		Income, production, and employment will continue to fall.
B		Income, production, and employment will begin to rise.
C		Income and production will rise, but employment will continue to fall.
D		Employment rises, but income and production will continue to fall.

Question 9

In a closed economy, what is the relationship between saving and investment?

A		Saving is greater than investment.
B		Investment is greater than saving.
C		Investment is equal to saving.
D		Investment may be greater or smaller than saving.

Question 10

The per-worker production function shows the relationship between ________ per hour worked and ________ per hour worked, holding ________ constant.

A		labor; real GDP; technology
B		capital; real GDP; technology
C		labor; capital; real GDP
D		capital; labor; real GDP

Question 11

New growth theory states that increases in ________ capital will result in ________ at the ________ level.

	A	knowledge; increasing returns to scale; firm
	B	physical; decreasing returns to scale; firm
	C	knowledge; decreasing returns to scale; economy
D		knowledge; increasing returns to scale; economy

Question 12

Which of the following is not a reason why the Industrial Revolution occurred when and where it did?

A		The British government was committed to upholding private property rights.
B		The British government was able to eliminate arbitrary increases in taxes.
C		The British government was able to more easily seize wealth.
D		Institutional changes by the British government helped protect wealth.

Question 13

Growth in real GDP per capita for the world economy was greatest during

A		the seventeenth century.
B		the eighteenth century.
C		the nineteenth century.
D		the twentieth century.

Question 14

Which of the following is a normative statement about economic growth?

A		Economic growth is associated with higher labor productivity growth.
B		Economic growth increases GDP per capita.
C		Economic growth hurts developing countries.
D		Foreign direct investment stimulates economic growth.

Question 15

The effect of a recession on a company like Whirlpool Corporation is such that

A		sales decline more sharply for Whirlpool as compared to firms that do not produce durable goods.
B		profits fall less sharply as compared to firms that do not produce durable goods.
C		the decline in sales is more short-lived as compared to firms that do not produce durable goods.
D		there is no difference in the impact of the recession on its profits as compared to firms that do not produce durable goods.

Question 16

For the recessions in the United States since the 1950s,

A		cyclical unemployment has been non-existent.
B		unemployment rises on average by about 1.2 percentage points 12 months after a recession begins.
C		unemployment falls on average by 2 percentage points 12 months after a recession begins.
D		unemployment rises on average about 5 percentage points 12 months after a recession begins.

Question 17

You are an economic advisor to the president. You are asked to recommend a policy to promote long-term economic growth in the economy. Which of the following policies would you choose?

A		a reduction in sales taxes
B		an investment tax credit
C		a reduction in taxes on luxury yachts
D		All of these

Question 18

In comparison to a government that runs a balanced budget, when the government runs a budget deficit,

	A	the equilibrium interest rate will fall.
	B	business investment will fall.
	C	household savings will fall.
	D	None of these

Question 19

If labor productivity growth slows down in a country, this means that the growth rate in ________ has declined.

A		labor force participation
B		the quantity of goods or services that can be produced by one hour of work
C		the working-age population
D		nominal GDP

Question 20

Policies to promote growth by increasing saving and investment work through

A		decreasing the supply of loanable funds, lowering the interest rate, raising the level of investment in physical capital.
B		increasing the supply of loanable funds, increasing the interest rate, raising the level of investment in physical capital.
C		increasing the supply of loanable funds, lowering the interest rate, lowering the level of investment in physical capital.
D		increasing the supply of loanable funds, lowering the interest rate, raising the level of investment in physical capital.

Q1. In the short run, an increase in the discount rate usually

a. causes the equilibrium level of real GDP and the price level to fall.

b. leads banks to hold fewer excess reserves.

c. leads to an increase in the price of existing bonds.

d. results in decreases in other interest rates.

Q2. Both Keynesians and monetarists agree that monetary policy works by shifting aggregate supply.

a. true

b. false

Q3. The effect of expansionary monetary policy is to

a. increase real output and decrease the price level.

b. decrease real output and increase the price level.

c. increase real output and increase the price level.

d. decrease real output and decrease the price level.

Q4. The price of bonds and the interest rate are

a. unrelated.

b. inversely related.

c. related, but we are not sure how.

d. positively related.

Q5. If the Fed increases the reserve requirement,

a. banks will issue more loans.

b. consumers will save more.

c. banks will issue fewer loans.

d. consumers will save less.

Q6. A central bank that engages in inflation targeting is following a monetary rule.

a. true

b. false

Q7. The Federal Reserve increased the money supply significantly during the Great Depression, but prices continued to fall anyway.

a. true

b. false

Q8. Keynesian theory argues that

a. decreases in the money supply lead to increases in the interest rate which increases investment which increases the level of real GDP.

b. increases in the money supply lead to decreases in the interest rate which increases investment which increases the level of real GDP.

c. increases in the money supply lead to decreases in the interest rate which decreases investment which decreases the level of real GDP.

d. increases in the money supply cause consumers to spend more which reduces the unemployment rate and therefore increases real GDP.

Q9. The effect of contractionary monetary policy is to

a. decrease real output and increase the price level.

b. increase real output and decrease the price level.

c. increase real output and increase the price level.

d. decrease real output and decrease the price level.

Q10. Keynesian economists believe that monetary policy works through its effect on

a. long-run aggregate supply.

b. the interest rate.

c. consumer confidence.

d. the federal budget deficit.

Q11. An expansionary monetary policy results in lower interest rates, which in turn

a. lead to higher rates of taxation.

b. cause firms to invest more.

c. lead to lower bond prices.

d. cause consumers to save more.

Q12. Contractionary monetary policy is used to combat recessions.

a. true

b. false

Q13. Economic growth can also be defined as the cumulative contribution of the rate of growth of capital, the rate of growth of labor, and the rates of growth of capital and labor productivity.

a. true

b. false

Q14. Small differences in the annual growth rate of a country add up to large differences over time because of compounding.

a. true

b. false

Q15. Economic growth occurs when

a. there is an increase in the inflation rate.

b. there is an increase in the amount of capital.

c. there is an increase in the unemployment rate.

d. the production possibilities curve becomes flatter.

Q16. Which one of the following is TRUE?

a. Small changes in the annual growth rate amount to a measurable difference in the long-term growth trend of a country.

b. For every country that experiences an increase in its growth rate, there must be another experiencing a decline.

c. A well-defined system of property rights benefits only the wealthy, and consequently it produces income inequality that will stifle economic growth.

d. Restricting imports will enhance a country's economic growth.

Q17. Economic growth is reflected in

growth in total output.

b. an increase in tax revenue.

c. increases in the level of employment.

d. increase in per capita real GDP.

Q18. Economic growth is reflected in the production possibilities curve becoming flatter.

a. true

b. false

Q19. Research has shown that the growth of developing countries is most strongly enhanced by

a. providing a good secondary education.

b. increasing the money supply.

c. providing incentives to have large families.

d. providing colleges and universities.

Q20. Which of the following is the most important factor affecting economic growth?

a. the rate of interest

b. the exchange rate

c. the price level

d. the rate of saving

Q21. Secondary schooling makes measurable contributions to economic growth in developing countries.

a. true

b. false

Q22. Poorly defined property rights inhibit economic growth.

a. true

b. false

Q23. Which one of the following helps preserve incentives to develop new technologies?

a. tariffs

b. income taxes

c. patents

d. quantity restrictions on imports

Q24. Studies indicate that

a. there is no relationship between economic growth and saving.

b. there is a negative relationship between economic growth and saving.

c. there is a positive relationship between economic growth and saving.

d. saving does not contribute to capital formation.

Q25. The European Union is

a. an organization established to resolve trade disputes among member nations.

b. a group of countries that impose tariffs on one another's agricultural goods.

c. a restricted trade zone.

d. a common market.

Q26. Which one of the following is FALSE?

a. Trade of goods facilitates the exchange of intellectual property as well.

b. The end result of trade is that richer countries take advantage of poorer ones.

c. A country enjoys an absolute advantage if it can produce a good with fewer resources than any other country can.

d. Countries that engage in trade will end up specializing according to their own comparative advantage.

Q27. If there are two goods and two countries, then one country can have

a. an absolute advantage in both goods but a comparative advantage in only one good.

b. an absolute advantage in both goods and a comparative advantage in both goods.

c. an absolute advantage in neither good and a comparative advantage in both goods.

d. an absolute advantage in one good, an absolute disadvantage in the other good, and a comparative advantage in neither.

Q28. An infant industry is one in which

a. the firms are too new and too small to compete internationally.

b. no country has a comparative advantage.

c. no country has an absolute advantage.

d. the products are only consumed domestically.

Q29. The European Union is an example of a common market.

a. true

b. false

Q30. An import quota will make the supply curve for the imported good

a. unitary elastic.

b. negatively sloped.

c. perfectly elastic.

d. perfectly inelastic.

Q31. If the infant-industry argument is used to protect an industry that has already matured then

a. consumers lose because they pay a price for a product which is below the world price.

b. consumers lose because they pay a price for a product which is above the world price.

c. no one loses.

d. stockholders lose because the firm cannot compete with other firms.

Q32. Protection should be withdrawn from an infant-industry when the companies in the industry

a. reach a sufficient size to compete with foreign firms.

b. become profitable.

c. are listed on the domestic stock exchange.

d. double their sales revenues.

Q33. Which of the following is a true statement?

a. Exporters benefit from trade and importers do not.

b. Free trade harms domestic producers of goods that face import competition.

c. Consumers benefit from trade and producers do not.

d. Everyone benefits from free trade in the short run.

Q34. In the United States today, imports are over

a. 22 percent of GDP.

b. 26 percent of GDP.

c. 14 percent of GDP.

d. 18 percent of GDP.

Q35. Table 16.6

Product Country X Country Y

Gallons of Ice Cream 2,000 1,000

Yards of Textiles 6,000 2,000

Table 16.6 shows the combinations of quantities of two goods, gallons of ice cream and yards of textiles, that can be produced with all of the resources available in two countries, X and Y.

Refer to Table 16.6. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. Country X has a lower opportunity cost of producing ice cream than does Country Y.

b. Country Y has a comparative advantage in producing textiles.

c. Country X has a comparative advantage in producing ice cream.

d. In Country X, the opportunity cost of producing a gallon of ice cream is three yards of textiles.

Q36. Table 16.1

Alpha's Production Possibilities

A B C D E

Cookies 4 3 2 1 0

Coffee 0 5 10 15 20

Beta's Production Possibilities

A B C D E

Cookies 8 6 4 2 0

Coffee 0 6 12 18 24

Table 16.1 shows the quantities of cookies and coffee that can be produced with the full amount of resources available in each of two countries, Alpha and Beta.

Refer to Table 16.1. The table shows the production possibilities of cookies and coffee in Alpha and Beta measured in tons. In Alpha the domestic cost of 1 ton of cookies

a. is 5 tons of coffee.

b. changes with the level of coffee production.

c. changes with the level of cookie production.

d. averages 4 tons of coffee.

Q37. Table 16.1

Alpha's Production Possibilities

A B C D E

Cookies 4 3 2 1 0

Coffee 0 5 10 15 20

Beta's Production Possibilities

A B C D E

Cookies 8 6 4 2 0

Coffee 0 6 12 18 24

Table 16.1 shows the quantities of cookies and coffee that can be produced with the full amount of resources available in each of two countries, Alpha and Beta.

Refer to Table 16.1. If these two countries, Alpha and Beta, specialize based on comparative advantage

a. Beta will specialize in producing both items.

b. Alpha will specialize in cookies, and Beta will specialize in coffee production.

c. Alpha will specialize in coffee, and Beta will specialize in cookies.

d. Alpha will specialize in producing both items.

Q38. A country is made richer by its exports and poorer by its imports.

a. true

b. false

Q39. The demand for Japanese yen will increase when

a. Japan becomes more productive relative to the United States.

b. Americans change preferences in favor of domestically produced goods.

c. America is perceived as more stable politically and economically than Japan.

d. real interest rates in Japan fall.

Q40. If labor productivity improves in India relative to other countries,

a. the demand for the Indian rupee will decrease, leading to its appreciation.

b. the demand for the Indian rupee will decrease, leading to its depreciation.

c. the demand for the Indian rupee will increase, leading to its depreciation.

d. the demand for the Indian rupee will increase, leading to its appreciation.

Q41. Assume that there is an increased demand in the United States for Australian wines. If all other factors are held constant, this will result in

a. an appreciation of the Australian dollar.

b. a movement along the demand curve for Australian wine.

c. a decrease in the supply of U.S. dollars in the foreign exchange market.

d. an appreciation of the U.S. dollar.

Q42. Capital account transactions occur

a. when a U.S. citizen purchases stock in a U.S. corporation.

b. because of foreign investments.

c. when you move money from one U.S. bank to another U.S. bank.

d. when a U.S. company purchases goods from a foreign company.

Q43. When a country intervenes in foreign currency markets to maintain a fixed exchange rate

a. it is engaged in hedging.

b. it increases the foreign exchange risk faced by its citizens.

c. it does so by using its foreign exchange reserves.

d. it smoothes out fluctuations in the level of business activity.

Q44. An increase in the U.S. demand for Japanese yen causes

a. an increase in the dollar-price of yen.

b. an increase in the demand for U.S. goods.

c. an increase in the yen-price of dollars.

d. a decrease in the supply of yen.

Q45. Other factors held constant, a rise in the price level in Japan that exceeds the rise in the price level in other countries will most likely result in

a. a decrease in the supply of the Japanese yen.

b. an increase in the supply of Japanese goods.

c. a depreciation of the dollar.

d. a decline in the level of Japanese exports.

Q46. The fact that the United States has a trade deficit means that

a. U.S. workers cannot compete with workers overseas.

b. the United States has a surplus in its capital account.

c. interest rates in the United States are low compared to the world average.

d. the United States has a deficit in its capital account.

Q47. Which of the following statements is true about the role of gifts given to U.S. citizens from foreigners?

a. Gifts are only included in the balance of payments if the gift is over $1,000,000.

b. Gifts given to U.S. citizens are not included in the balance of payments, but gifts given to foreigners are included as deficit items.

c. Gifts are included in the balance of payments.

d. Gifts are not included in the balance of payments.

Q48. Every transaction concerning the exportation of American goods constitutes a

a. demand for foreign currency and a supply of dollars.

b. demand for dollars, with no effect on markets for foreign currencies.

c. supply of foreign currency, with no effect on the market for dollars.

d. supply of foreign currency and demand for dollars.

Q49. If the capital account is in surplus, the current account will be in deficit.

a. true

b. false

Q50. The balance of payments consists of the

a. capital account, official reserve transactions account, and recent account.

b. current account, official reserve transactions account, and monetary account.

c. current account, capital account, and official reserve transactions account.

d. current account, capital account, and gold flows.

BU1003 Chapter Notes - Chapter 15: Neutrality Of Money, Business Cycle, Longrun

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