ECON 110 Chapter Notes - Chapter 23: Aggregate Supply, Aggregate Demand, Equilibrium Point

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Price changes shift ae curve since changes in price affect desired income. A rise in price level lowers the real value of money in the private sector, while a fall decreases it. Price changes for bonds offset each other between the buyer and seller. Rise in price shifts ae curve down and vice-versa. National income is the same as real gdp (y) Ad curves are negatively sloped because a fall in price level increases the real value of private sector"s holdings, increasing wealth and, with it, desired expenditure. Ae falls with equilibrium point, so ad rises point is higher. Changes in the autonomous component of ae shifts ad curve. Aggregate demand shock: any change (excluding price) causing the ae curve to shift will also cause the ad curve to shift. Upward shifts in ae cause shifts to the right in ad.

Related Questions

10,A change in the price levelâ ________ the AE curve andâ ________ the AD curve.

âshifts; shifts

has no effectâ on; results in a movement along

results in a movementâ along; results in a movement along

results in a movementâ along; shifts

âshifts; results in a movement along

17,When the price levelâ falls, the aggregate planned expenditure curve shiftsâ ________, equilibrium expenditureâ ________ and there is a movementâ ________ along the aggregate demand curve.

âupward; increases; upward

âdownward; decreases; downward

âupward; decreases; downward

âupward; increases; downward

âdownward; increases; upward

21,Which of the following increases the size of the expenditureâ multiplier?

an increase in autonomous spending

a decrease in the marginal propensity to consume

a decrease in the marginal propensity to import

an increase in the marginal income tax rate

an increase in investment

23,If the quantity of real GDP demanded is greater than the quantity of real GDPâ supplied, then

the price level falls and firms decrease production.

aggregate demand changes to restore equilibrium.

the economy must be producing at potential GDP.

the price level falls to restore the macroeconomic equilibrium

the price level rises and firms increase production.

24, ________ can trigger an expansion.

Equality between aggregate expenditure and real GDP

A decrease in induced expenditure

A downward shift of the AE line

An increase in autonomous expenditure

A decrease in autonomous expenditure

greyarmadillo136

TRUE / FALSE

1. True False In the aggregate expenditures model presented in the textbook,

investment is assumed to rise with increases in real GDP and fall with decreases in real GDP.

2. True False When C + I_g = GDP in a private closed economy, S = I_g and there are no unplanned changes in inventories.

3. True False The risk-free interest rate is the rate on long-term U.S. government bonds.

4. True False Bond prices and interest rates are directly or positively related.

5. True False The public debt is the accumulation of all deficits and surpluses that have occurred through time.

6. True False The M₂ money supply may be larger or smaller than the M₁ money supply depending on the size of small-denominated time deposit balances and Money Market Mutual Fund balances held by individuals.

7. True False Excess reserves are the amount by which required reserves exceed actual reserves.

8. True False The public debt is held as Treasury bills, Treasury notes, Treasury bonds, and U.S. savings bonds.

9. True False The equilibrium price level and equilibrium level of real GDP occur at the intersection of the aggregate demand curve and the aggregate supply curve.

10. True False Investment is highly stable; it increases over time at a very steady rate.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

11. A recessionary expenditure gap is:

A. the amount by which the full-employment GDP exceeds the level of aggregate expenditures.

B. the amount by which equilibrium GDP falls short of the full-employment GDP.

C. the amount by which investment exceeds saving at the full-employment GDP.

D. the amount by which aggregate expenditures exceed the full-employment level of GDP.

12. The multiplier effect indicates that:

A. a decline in the interest rate will cause a proportionately larger increase in investment.

B. a change in spending will change aggregate income by a larger amount.

C. a change in spending will increase aggregate income by the same amount.

D. an increase in total income will generate a larger change in aggregate expenditures.

13. Which one of the following is true about the U.S. Federal Reserve System?

There are 12 regional Federal Reserve Banks.

B. The head of the U.S. Treasury also chairs the Federal Reserve Board.

C. There are 14 members of the Federal Reserve Board.

D. The Open Market Committee is smaller in size than the Federal Reserve Board.

14. If the nominal interest rate is 18 percent and the real interest rate is 6 percent, the inflation rate is:

A. 18 percent.

B. 24 percent.

C. 12 percent.

D. 6 percent.

15.

Refer to the above diagram for a private closed economy. The equilibrium level of GDP is:

A. $400.

B. $300.

C. $200.

D. $100.

16. Which of the following represents the most expansionary fiscal policy?

A. a $10 billion tax cut

B. a $10 billion increase in government spending

C. a $10 billion tax increase

D. a $10 billion decrease in government spending

17.

Refer to the above table. The economy shown is a:

A. private economy.

B. private open economy.

C. mixed closed economy.

D. mixed open economy.

18. Currency held in the vault of First National Bank is:

A. counted as part of M₁.

B. counted as part of M₂, but not M₁.

C. only counted as part of M₁ if it was deposited into a checking account.

D. not counted as part of the money supply.

19. If the dollar appreciates relative to foreign currencies, we would expect:

A. the multiplier to decrease.

B. the country's exports and imports to both fall.

C. the country's net exports to rise.

D. the country's net exports to fall.

20. The most important determinant of consumption and saving is the:

A. level of bank credit.

B. level of income.

C. interest rate.

D. price level.

21. The multiple by which the commercial banking system can increase the supply of money on the basis of each dollar of excess reserves is equal to:

A. the reciprocal of the required reserve ratio.

B. 1 minus the required reserve ratio.

C. the reciprocal of the income velocity of money.

D. 1/MPS.

22. Which one of the following would not shift the aggregate demand curve?

A. a change in the price level

B. depreciation of the international value of the dollar

C. a decline in the interest rate at each possible price level

D. an increase in personal income tax rate

23. The cyclically-adjusted budget tells us:

A. that in a full-employment economy the Federal budget should be in balance.

B. that tax revenues should vary inversely with GDP.

C. what the size of the Federal budget deficit or surplus would be if the economy was at full

employment.

D. the actual budget deficit or surplus realized in any given year.

24. The aggregate supply curve:

A. is explained by the interest rate, real-balances, and foreign purchases effects.

B. gets steeper as the economy moves from the top of the curve to the bottom of the curve.

C. shows the various amounts of real output that businesses will produce at each price level.

D. is downsloping because real purchasing power increases as the price level falls.

25.

Refer to the above diagram. If the equilibrium price level is P₁, then:

A. aggregate demand is AD₂.

B. the equilibrium output level is Q₃.

C. the equilibrium output level is Q₂.

D. producers will supply output level Q₁

26. Discretionary fiscal policy refers to:

A. any change in government spending or taxes that destabilizes the economy.

B. the authority that the President has to change personal income tax rates.

C. intentional changes in taxes and government expenditures made by Congress to stabilize the economy.

D. the changes in taxes and transfers that occur as GDP changes.

27.

Refer to the above diagram. Which tax system has the most built-in stability?

A. T₄

B. T₃

C. T₂

D. T₁

28.

Refer to the given graph. A shift of the consumption schedule from C₁ to C₂ might be caused by a(n):

A.	recession.

B.	wealth effect of an increase in stock market prices.

C.	increase in income tax rates.

D.	increase in saving.

29. When a bank loan is repaid the supply of money:

A. is constant, but its composition will have changed.

B. is decreased.

C. is increased.

D. may either increase or decrease.

30. The Federal budget deficit is found by:

A. subtracting government tax revenues plus government borrowing from government spending in a particular year.

B. subtracting government tax revenues from government spending in a particular year.

C. cumulating the differences between government spending and tax revenues over all years since the nation's founding.

D. subtracting government revenues from the noninvestment-type government spending in a particular year.

31.

Refer to the above information. Money supply M₁ for this economy is:

A. $ 60.

B. $ 70.

C. $ 130.

D. $ 140.

32. Which of the following statements is true as a result of Federal Reserve efforts to rescue the financial industry from the financial crisis of 2007 and 2008?

From February 2008, to May 2009, the Fed oversaw the consolidation of 20 major financial institutions into fewer than a dozen.

B. From March 2008, to February 2009, the Fed experienced a 50 percent decline in the value of assets held.

C. From February 2008, to March 2009, Fed assets more than doubled to nearly $2 trillion.

D. From February 2008, to March 2009, Fed lending caused the U.S. public debt to rise by over $1 trillion.

33. Which of the following is the basic economic policy function of the Federal Reserve Banks?

holding the deposits or reserves of commercial banks

B. acting as fiscal agents for the Federal government

C. controlling the supply of money

D. the collection or clearing of checks among commercial banks

34. In a fractional reserve banking system:

A. bank panics cannot occur.

B. the monetary system must be backed by gold.

C. banks can create money through the lending process.

D. the Federal Reserve has no control over the amount of money in circulation.

35.

Refer to the diagram that applies to a private closed economy. The APC is equal to 1 at income level:

36. Assume the Continental National Bank's balance statement is as follows:

Assuming a legal reserve ratio of 20 percent, how much in excess reserves would this bank have after a check for $10,000 was drawn and cleared against it?

A. $ 3,000

B. $ 24,000

C. $ 6,000

D. $ 16,000

37. Answer the question on the basis of the following table for a commercial bank or thrift:

Refer to the above table. When the legal reserve ratio is 25 percent, the excess reserves of this single bank are:

A. $0.

B. $1,000.

C. $5,000.

D. $30,000.

38. Which of the following is a tool of monetary policy?

A. open market operations

B. changes in banking laws

C. changes in tax rates

D. changes in government spending

39. An increase in nominal GDP increases the demand for money because:

A. interest rates will rise.

B. more money is needed to finance a larger volume of transactions.

C. bond prices will fall.

D. the opportunity cost of holding money will decline.

40. Answer the next question on the basis of the following table:

At equilibrium in the above market for money, the total amount of money demanded is:

A. $500.

B. $480.

C. $460.

D. $440.

41. For most financial assets investors must be compensated for:

A. non-diversifiable and diversifiable risk.

B. diversifiable risk and time preference.

C. non-diversifiable risk and time preference.

D. non-diversifiable and diversifiable risk, and time preference.

42. Reserves must be deposited in the Federal Reserve Banks by:

A. only commercial banks which are members of the Federal Reserve System.

B. all depository institutions, that is, all commercial banks and thrift institutions.

C. state chartered commercial banks only.

D. federally chartered commercial banks only.

43.

Refer to the diagrams. Assuming a constant price level, an increase in aggregate expenditures from AE₁to AE₂ would:

A.	move the economy from A to C along AD₁.

B.	move the economy from C to A along AD₁.

C.	increase aggregate demand from AD₁ to AD₂.

D.	decrease aggregate demand from AD₂ to AD₁.

44. The discount rate is the interest:

A. rate at which the central banks lend to the U.S. Treasury.

B. rate at which the Federal Reserve Banks lend to commercial banks.

C. yield on long-term government bonds.

D. rate at which commercial banks lend to the public.

45. What concept describes how quickly an investment increases in value when interest is paid not only on the original amount invested, but also on the accumulated interest payments?

A. present value

B. future value

C. compound interest

D. real rate of interest

46. The aggregate demand curve:

A. is upsloping because a higher price level is necessary to make production profitable as production costs rise.

B. is downsloping because production costs decline as real output increases.

C. shows the amount of expenditures required to induce the production of each possible level of real output.

D. shows the amount of real output that will be purchased at each possible price level.

47. The Security Market Line depicts the relationship between the:

A. average expected rate of return on stocks and the average expected rate of return on bonds.

B. average expected rate of return of a financial asset and the discount rate.

C. risk level of a financial asset and the prime interest rate.

D. average expected rate of return and risk level of a financial asset.

48. Arbitrage causes all financial assets:

A. of the same risk level to have the same price.

B. to have the same expected rate of return.

C. to have the same beta.

D. of the same risk level to have the same average expected rate of return.

49.

Refer to the diagrams. The numbers in parentheses after the AD₁, AD₂, and AD₃ labels indicate the levels of investment spending associated with each curve. All figures are in billions. If the money supply is MS₁ and the goal of the monetary authorities is full-employment output Q_f, they should:

A.	increase the money supply from $80 to $100.

B.	increase the money supply from $80 to $120.

C.	maintain the money supply at $80.

D.	decrease the money supply from $80 to $60.

50. Given the expected rate of return on all possible investment opportunities in the economy:

A. an increase in the real rate of interest will reduce the level of investment.

B. a decrease in the real rate of interest will reduce the level of investment.

C. a change in the real interest rate will have no impact on the level of investment.

D. an increase in the real interest rate will increase the level of investment.

END OF THE EXAM

When demand for a good is very elastic, revenue ________ when the price falls.

(2)

An elasticity measure less than one means that demand is __________.

(3)

An elasticity measure greater than one means that demand is __________.

(4)

The Latin expression ceteris paribus means

	having made all other necessary changes.
	holding constant all other variables.
	assuming all households have similar incomes.
	given the level of income in the economy.

(5)

A variable measured in terms of money is called a ____________________.

	real variable
	nominal variable
	macroeconomic variable
	microeconomic variable

(6)

Which of the following is true about the importance of money in economics?

	Money is important in both macroeconomics and microeconomics.
	Money is important in macroeconomics but not microeconomics.
	Money is important in microeconomics but not macroeconomics.
	Money is not important in either microeconomics or macroeconomics.

(7)

What is the difference between normative and positive economics?

	Positive economics is descriptive and predictive; normative economics is prescriptive.
	Positive economics highlights the positive aspects of the economy; normative economics highlights the average features.
	Positive economics studies the actions of individuals; normative economics studies the actions of households.
	Positive economics is an applied social science; normative economics is a theoretical social science.

(8)

The slope of the demand curve is negative because

	the quantity of a good demanded decreases as income declines.
	the quantity of a good demanded increases as income declines.
	the quantity of a good demanded increases as the price declines.
	the quantity of a good demanded decreases as the price declines.

(9)

What is the result of an increase in the price of bread, a normal good?

	The demand curve shifts to the right.
	The demand curve shifts to the left.
	The quantity demanded increases.
	The quantity demanded decreases.

(10)

What is the effect on demand for bread when the price of bagels, a substitute for bread, rises?

	The demand curve for bread shifts to the right.
	The demand curve for bread shifts to the left.
	The quantity of bread demanded increases.
	The quantity of bread demanded decreases.

(11)

Which of the following would cause the supply curve for bread to shift inward?

	An increase in the price of bread
	An increase in the price of bagels
	A decrease in the price of bread
	An increase in the price of flour

(12)

An improvement in technology shifts the supply curve outward because

	at every price, firms find producing the good to be more profitable.
	the price of the good increases.
	at every price, firms find producing the good to be less profitable.
	the price of the good decreases.

(13)

Which of the following factors does not affect how much bread a baker is willing to produce?

	The price of bread
	The demand for bread
	The cost of inputs
	Technology

(14)

How do expectations of prices affect how much of a good producers are willing to sell?

	Expectations of prices affect only demand, not supply.
	Actual prices, not expectations of prices, affect supply.
	If producers expect prices to fall in the future, they supply less at every price.
	If producers expect prices to rise in the future, they supply less at every price.

(15)

When the price of a good is above equilibrium level,

	the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied.
	the quantity supplied exceeds the quantity demanded.
	the supply curve shifts to the left.
	the supply curve shifts to the right.

(16)

At a price of P₀ in the diagram below, which of the following statements is true?

	Supply equals demand.
	There is excess demand.
	There is excess supply.
	There is scarcity.

(17)

If demand for bread increases at every price, the equilibrium price of bread will

	fall.
	rise.
	remain unchanged.
	depend on income.

(18)

If the demand for bread declines, then

	at the original equilibrium price, there is excess demand.
	at the original equilibrium price, there is excess supply.
	the supply curve shifts to the right.
	the supply curve shifts to the left.

(19)

Peanut butter and jelly are complementary goods. When the price of peanut butter rises, the demand for jelly ________ and the price of jelly ________.

	rises; falls
	rises; rises
	falls; rises
	falls; falls

(20)

The measure of elasticity that economists use is

	always a positive number.
	always a negative number.
	positive when demand is elastic and negative when demand is inelastic.
	negative when demand is elastic and positive when demand is inelastic.

(21)

Which of the following formulas is the correct expression for the slope of a line?

(22)

Graphically how would an increase in income affect the demand for hamburgers?

	The slope of the demand curve would increase.
	The slope of the demand curve would decrease.
	The demand curve would shift outward, parallel to the original demand curve.
	The demand curve would shift inward, parallel to the original demand curve.

(23)

Given the equation P = $6.00 ? $.40Q, where P is the price of the good and Q is the quantity of the good demanded, how many units will this consumer demand if the price is $3.60?

	1.44 units
	3 units
	3.6 units
	6 units

(24)

Which of the following is true about unit elasticity?

	Revenues remain unchanged when the price changes.
	Elasticity of demand increases as one moves down the demand curve.
	Elasticity of demand decreases as one moves down the demand curve.
	The elasticity of demand is greater than one at every point along the demand curve.

(25)

Which of the following could be a determinant of the quantity demanded of a good?

	The price of the good
	The price of related goods
	Income
	Expectations about the future price of the product
	All of the above

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ECON 110 Chapter Notes - Chapter 23: Aggregate Supply, Aggregate Demand, Equilibrium Point

ECON 110 Full Course Notes

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