FINA 2201 Chapter Notes - Chapter 8: Standard Deviation, Risk Aversion, Risk Premium

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periwinkledinosaur391

3 Mar 2016

School

Northeastern University

Department

Finance & Insurance

Course

FINA 2201

Professor

Mazur Jack

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Document Summary

8-3 risk in a portfolio context: the capm. The returns on two perfectly positively correlated stocks with the same expected return would move up and down together, and a portfolio consisting of these stocks would be exactly as risky as the individual stocks: thus, diversification is completely useless for reducing risk if the stocks in the portfolio are perfectly positively correlated. As a rule, on average, portfolio risk declines as the number of stocks in a portfolio increases: the portfolio"s risk declines as stocks are added, but at a decreasing rate; and once 40 to 50 stocks are in the portfolio, additional stocks do little to reduce risk, the portfolio"s total risk can be divided into two parts, diversifiable risk and market risk. 8-5 some concerns about beta and the capm. 8-6 some concluding thoughts: implications for corporate managers and investors.

Related Questions

1. If we are able to eliminate all of the unsystematic or diversifiable risk in a portfolio then, what is the result?

a.

a risk-free portfolio
b.
a portfolio that has an expected return of zero
c.

a portfolio that contains only systematic risk

2. A portfolio consists 20% of a risk-free asset and 80% of a stock. The risk-free return is 4%. The stock has an expected return of 15% and a standard deviation of 30%. Whatâs the expected return of the portfolio?

a.
9.5%
b.
15.0%
c.
12.8%

d.
2%

3. The risk-free rate is 5% and the expected return on the market portfolio is 13%. A stock has a beta of 1.5, what is its expected return?

a.
12%
b.
19.5%
c.

17%

4. For what value of the correlation coefficient for the returns of a pair of stocks will the benefits of diversification the largest?

a.

1.0
b.

-1.0
c.

0.0
d.

0.5

5. Which of the following is an example of systematic risk?
a.
IBM posts lower than expected earnings.
b.
The overall stock market becomes more risky due to super fasting trading algorithms.
c.

Intel announces record earnings.

6. According to the CAPM (capital asset pricing model), the security market line is a straight line. The intercept of this line should be equal to

a.
zero
b.
the expected risk premium on the market portfolio
c.
the expected return on the market portfolio
d.
the risk-free rate

7. A portfolio has 40% invested in Asset 1, 50% invested in Asset 2 and 10% invested in Asset 3. Asset 1 has a beta of 1.2, Asset 2 has a beta of 0.8 and Asset 3 has a beta of 1.8, whatâs the beta of the portfolio?

a.
0.80
b.
1.06
c.
1.27

8. Suppose you can borrow and lend at the risk free-rate of 3%. Which of the following four risky portfolios has the best return relative to risk. (Hint: Calculate Sharpe Ratios the ratio of risk premium to standard deviation for each portfolio)

a.
portfolio with a standard deviation of 15% and an expected return of 12%
b.
portfolio with a standard deviation of 12% and an expected return of 9%
c.
portfolio with a standard deviation of 25% and an expected return of 18%
d.
portfolio with a standard deviation of 19% and an expected return of 15%

9. Which statements are TRUE regarding risk and return?

Statement I:
Diversification is the process of removing systematic risk from a portfolio.
Statement II:
In general, the greater the risk, the greater the return required by an investor.
Statement III:
Investors should focus on real returns if they are concerned about the purchasing power of their wealth.

a.
Statements II and III only
b.
Statement I only
c.
Statements I and III only
d.
Statements I and II only

10. The beta of the risk-free asset is:
a.

1.0
b.

0.5
c.

0.0
d.

-1.0

1) The principal amount of a bond that is repaid at the end of the loan term is called _________.

2) _________ plots the yields on bonds relative to maturity.

3) A _________ is an unsecured bond, for which no specific pledge of property is made

4) An unexpected decrease in market interest rates will cause a coupon bond's yield to maturity to ___________.

5) The yield to maturity on a premium bond ____________ the bond's coupon rate.

6) Assume a constant dividend growth. The _________ of a stock equals its capital gains yield.

7) If a firm pays a constant annual dividend, then the capital gains yield is equal to ____.

8) According to the dividend growth model, the required rate of return is equal to the capital gains yield if the dividend growth rate is ______.

9) Assume a constant dividend growth. A decrease in the capital gains yield will ______ the current value of a stock.

10) _______________ can be used to value the stock of firms that pay no dividends.

11) The reward for bearing risk is called the ___________.

12) The higher the risk, the _____ the return.

13) The geometric average return is _____ than the arithmetic average return for a given set of returns.

14) A group of assets held together by an investor is referred to as a __________.

15) Unsystematic risk can also be referred to as asset-specific risk, ________ risk, idiosyncratic risk, or unique risk.

16) ________ refers to the practice of investing in a variety of diverse assets as a means of reducing risk.

17) An unexpected increase in the variable costs for a firm is an example of _____________ risk.

18) An unexpected decrease in corporate tax rates is an example of __________ risk.

19) If a risky security has more risk than the overall market, its beta coefficient is _______ 1.

20) All else constant, an increase in the market value of preferred stock will affect a firm's weighted average cost of capital by changing the ______ of preferred stock.

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Question 1

Financial investments are made in efficient markets. The existence of these markets suggests that:

	a.	Investors cannot earn superior returns.
	b.	Investors cannot expect to outperform the market consistently.
	c.	Security prices are random.
	d.	Bearing additional risk will not increase return.

2 points

Question 2

A new issue of corporate securities sold to the general public must be:

	a.	Registered with the SEC.
	b.	Initially sold through brokers.
	c.	Offered initially to existing stockholders.

2 points

Question 3

Money market mutual funds invest in which of the following?

Commercial paper.

Repurchase agreements.

Corporate bonds.

	a.	1 and 2.
	b.	1 and 3.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	All of the choices are correct.

3 points

Question 4

FDIC insures:

	a.	U.S. Treasury bills.
	b.	Money market mutual funds.
	c.	Saving accounts.
	d.	Repurchase agreements.

3 points

Question 5

Which of the following does not have default risk?

	a.	Money market mutual funds.
	b.	Commercial paper.
	c.	Negotiable certificates of deposit.
	d.	U.S. Treasury bills.

2 points

Question 6

The spread is the:

	a.	Difference between the bid and ask prices.
	b.	Commission charged by the broker.
	c.	Difference between the purchase and sale prices.
	d.	Difference between the commissions charged by full-service and discount brokers.

3 points

Question 7

Securities regulations protect investors by:

	a.	Requiring disclosures of information by firms.
	b.	Stopping investors from buying overpriced stock.
	c.	Reducing competition among brokers.
	d.	Establishing commission schedules.

3 points

Question 8

If a stock is bought on margin:

	a.	The full amount of the cost of the investment is borrowed.
	b.	The commissions on the investment are increased.
	c.	The cost of the investment is reduced.
	d.	The interest on the borrowed funds is set by the SEC.

3 points

Question 9

Sarbanes-Oxley, the latest important securities law:

	a.	Reduces potential conflicts between securities analysts and investment bankers.
	b.	Legalizes the sale of securities by investment brokers.
	c.	Requires corporate boards of directors to own stock.
	d.	Mandates that security analysts file their recommendations with the SEC.

2 points

Question 10

Which of the following are true about the present value of a dollar?

It increases as the interest rate increases.

It decreases as the interest rate increases.

It increases as the time period increases.

It decreases as the time period increases.

	a.	1 and 3.
	b.	1 and 4.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	2 and 4.

3 points

Question 11

Time value concepts may not be used to determine:

	a.	The present value of an annuity.
	b.	The margin required on a stock purchase.
	c.	The future value of $100 deposited in a bank.
	d.	The present value of a lump sum.

2 points

Question 12

What is the marginal tax rate?

	a.	The tax rate paid on investment gains from items purchased on margin.
	b.	The tax rate paid on an additional dollar of taxable income.
	c.	The margin required on a stock purchase.
	d.	The present value of a lump sum.

2 points

Question 13

Examples of capital gains include sales of which of the following?

IRA accounts.

Stocks sold for a profit.

Real estate sold for a profit.

	a.	1 and 2.
	b.	1 and 3.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	All of these choices.

3 points

Question 14

With a Roth IRA, the individual:

	a.	May deduct annual contributions.
	b.	Earns tax-free income.
	c.	Defers taxes.
	d.	Avoids estate taxes.

2 points

Question 15

Sources of unsystematic risk include which of the following?

A firms financing decisions.

A firms operations.

Fluctuating market prices.

	a.	1 and 2.
	b.	1 and 3.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	All of these choices.

2 points

Question 16

For diversification to reduce risk:

	a.	The returns on the individual securities should be highly correlated.
	b.	The prices of the stocks should be stable.
	c.	The returns on the individual securities should be negatively correlated.
	d.	One firm should offer dividends and the other should offer capital gains.

2 points

Question 17

Which of the following are true about beta coefficients?

They are a measure of systematic risk.

They relate the return on an individual security to the return on the market.

They measure the variability of an assets return.

	a.	1 and 2.
	b.	1 and 3.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	All of these choices.

3 points

Question 18

Which of the following does an efficient portfolio do?

Maximizes risk for a given return.

Minimizes risk for a given return.

Maximizes return for a given level of risk.

Minimizes return for a given level of risk.

	a.	1 and 3.
	b.	1 and 4.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	2 and 4.

3 points

Question 19

The security market line does not:

	a.	Indicate the relationship between risk and return.
	b.	Relate the market return and beta to a stock's return.
	c.	Identify the optimal portfolio for the investor.
	d.	Use beta coefficients as a measure of risk.

3 points

Question 20

Mutual funds ____ realized capital gains and income (for example, dividends received):

	a.	Retain.
	b.	Reinvest.
	c.	Distribute.
	d.	Distribute or reinvest.

2 points

Question 21

An index fund limits its portfolio to:

	a.	High quality securities.
	b.	Stocks that respond to changes in the consumer price index.
	c.	Stocks included in an aggregate measure of stock prices.
	d.	Stocks of firms in a particular industry.

2 points

Question 22

Mutual funds with beta coefficients greater than 1.0:

	a.	Have outperformed the market.
	b.	Have underperformed the market.
	c.	Have more systematic risk than the market.
	d.	Have less systematic risk than the market.

3 points

Question 23

Which of the following will tend to cause a stock's price to fall?

The firms beta declines.

The firms beta increases.

The risk-free rate declines.

The risk-free rate increases.

	a.	1 and 3.
	b.	1 and 4.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	2 and 4.

2 points

Question 24

The use of P/E ratios to select stocks suggests that:

	a.	High P/E stocks should be purchased.
	b.	Low P/E ratio stocks are overvalued.
	c.	A stock should be purchased if it is selling near its historic low P/E.
	d.	A stock should be purchased if it is selling near its historic high P/E.

2 points

Question 25

What does the efficient market hypothesis require?

Financial markets to be competitive.

Prices to adjust rapidly.

Prices of undervalued securities to fall.

	a.	1 and 2.
	b.	1 and 3.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	All of these choices.

3 points

Question 26

Which of the following does the strong form of the efficient market hypothesis suggest?

Inside information will not lead to superior investment results.

Inside information will lead to superior investment results.

Studying financial statements will not lead to superior investment results.

Studying financial statements will lead to superior investment results.

	a.	1 and 3.
	b.	1 and 4.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	2 and 4.

3 points

Question 27

Which of the following is the least broad-based measure of stock prices?

	a.	NASDAQ market index.
	b.	Dow Jones industrial average.
	c.	S&P 500 stock index.
	d.	AMEX market value index.

3 points

Question 28

What is dollar-cost averaging?

	a.	Periodically buying a round lot of stock.
	b.	Periodically investing a specified dollar amount in a stock.
	c.	A means to increase the average cost basis.
	d.	A means to ensure a positive return.

2 points

Question 29

Stock dividends cause:

	a.	The price of a share of stock to rise.
	b.	The price of a share of stock to fall.
	c.	The value of the firm to rise.
	d.	The value of the firm to fall.

2 points

Question 30

Which of the following occurs when a stock has a two-for-one split?

	a.	The price of the stock doubles.
	b.	The firm's assets increase.
	c.	The firm's liabilities decrease.
	d.	The par value of the stock is reduced.

3 points

Question 31

Dividend reinvestment plans offer which of the following advantages?

Deferment of federal income taxes.

A convenient means to accumulate shares.

Dollar-cost averaging.

	a.	1 and 2.
	b.	1 and 3.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	2.

3 points

Question 32

When the Federal Reserve seeks to expand the money supply, it:

	a.	Sells securities.
	b.	Buy securities.
	c.	Runs a deficit.
	d.	Runs a surplus.

2 points

Question 33

The sum of cash, currency, and demand deposits is:

	a.	M1.
	b.	M2.
	c.	M3.
	d.	M4.

3 points

Question 34

If the Federal Reserve lowers the target federal funds rate:

	a.	The discount rate rises.
	b.	Liquidity in the banking system is increased.
	c.	Security prices fall.
	d.	Required reserves are also decreased.

3 points

Question 35

The anticipation of inflation suggests that the investor should:

	a.	Buy bonds.
	b.	Anticipate higher interest rates.
	c.	Avoid real estate investments.
	d.	Sell stocks of gold companies.

3 points

Question 36

The current ratio is unaffected by:

	a.	Using cash to pay a dividend.
	b.	The collection of an account receivable.
	c.	Selling inventory for a profit.
	d.	Selling bonds and using the funds to finance inventory.

2 points

Question 37

Which of the following are true as the debt ratio increases?

Fewer assets are debt financed.

More assets are debt financed.

The ratio of debt equity increases.

The ratio of debt equity decreases.

	a.	1 and 3.
	b.	1 and 4.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	2 and 4.

2 points

Question 38

The technical approach suggests that future stock prices are forecasted by:

	a.	Past stock rates.
	b.	Financial ratios.
	c.	Accounting statements.
	d.	Monetary policy.

2 points

Question 39

The Dogs of the Dow strategy:

	a.	Forecasts the direction of the Dow Jones averages.
	b.	Suggests buying the Dow stocks with the highest dividend yields.
	c.	Outperforms the S&P 500.
	d.	Suggests buying the lowest-priced Dow stocks.

3 points

Question 40

Behavioral finance combines aspects from which two fields in an attempt to identify human traits that affect investment decisions?

	a.	Accounting and finance.
	b.	Finance and psychology.
	c.	Physics and finance.
	d.	Finance and marketing.

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FINA 2201 Chapter Notes - Chapter 8: Standard Deviation, Risk Aversion, Risk Premium

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