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BIOL 1005 Chapter Notes - Chapter 6: Elastic Energy, Thermodynamics, Multicellular Organism

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grayelephant515
2 Oct 2015
School
Virginia Tech
Department
Biological Sciences
Course
BIOL 1005
Professor
Sheppard

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Document Summary

Activation energy in a chemical reaction, the energy needed to force electron shells of reactants together. Active site the region of an enzyme molecule that binds substrates and performs the catalytic function of the enzyme. Adenosine diphosphate (adp) a molecule composed of the sugar ribose, the base adenine, and two phosphate groups; a component of atp. Adenosine triphosphate (atp) a molecule composed of the sugar ribose, the base adenine, and three phosphate groups; the major energy carrier in cells. The last two phosphate groups are attached by high-energy bonds. Catalyst a substance that speeds up a chemical reaction without itself being permanently changed in the process; a catalyst lowers the activation energy of a reaction. Chemical energy a form of potential energy that is stored in molecules and may be released during chemical reactions. Chemical reaction a process that forms and breaks chemical bonds that hold atoms together in molecules.

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Related Questions

A catabolic pathway would predictably result in the
A) reduction of a sugar.
B) synthesis of a macromolecule.
C) breakdown of a macromolecule.
D) breakdown of an atom.
2.
The drug Ritonavir is used to treat people with HIV/AIDS. It worksby binding to the active site of HIV-1 protease, an enzyme used bythe AIDS virus to create new proteins for production of newviruses.Once bound, the HIV-1 protease cannot produce proteins.Ritonavir can be classified as a(n)
A) competitive inhibitor.
B) allosteric inhibitor.
C) activator.
D) non-competitive inhibitor.
3.
During cellular respiration, __________ is the final electronacceptor that allows the regeneration of the cell’s supply of NAD+.In fermentation, ____________ is the final electron acceptor forNAD+ regeneration.
A) pyruvate / lactic acid
B) pyruvate / oxygen
C) ethanol / CO2
D) oxygen / pyruvate
4.
Which of the following clues would tell you if a cell isprokaryotic or eukaryotic?
A) whether or not the cell carries out cellular metabolism
B) the presence or absence of ribosomes
C) whether or not the cell is partitioned by internalmembranes
D) whether or not the cell contains DNA
5.
Phosphofructokinase (PFK) is an allosteric enzyme that regulatesglycolysis. When cellular concentrations of ATP and citrate become__________, this enzyme’s activity decreases. When cellularconcentrations of AMP become ________, the enzyme isactivated.
A) high / high
B) high / low
C) low / high
D) low / low
6.
______________ is an enzyme that can utilize the free energy in thehydrogen gradient (voltage) produced between the inner and outermembrane of the mitochondrion. The enzyme uses this energy toproduce ________.
A) ATP synthase/ ATP
B) PFK/ ATP
C) PFK/ glucose
D) ATP synthase/ ADP
7.
ATP is able to do cellular work because it
A) has a high energy phosphate bond that can be hydrolyzed torelease energy.
B) converts light energy into chemical bond energy.
C) contains the sugar ribose, which can provide additional energyfor a cell.
D) its hydrolysis is endergonic.
8.
A solution of starch at room temperature does not readily decomposeto form a solution of simple sugars because
A) the starch solution has less free energy than the sugarsolution.
B) the activation energy barrier for this reaction cannot besurmounted.
C) the hydrolysis of starch to sugar is endergonic.
D) starch hydrolysis is nonspontaneous.
9.
A person exposed to toxins would have more activity in their___________compared to an unexposed person.
A) lysosomes
B) Golgi bodies
C) rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
10.
Which of the following statements about fermentation is true?
A) The function of fermentation is to regenerate the fermentingcells' supply of NAD+.
B) Fermentation allows a fermenting cell to gain more energy perglucose molecule than a non-fermenting cell.
C) Fermentation produces either lactic acid or ethanol that thefermenting cell can use as an energy source.
D) Fermentation is a universal process that occurs in all cells andall organisms.
11.
A glucose molecule is completely broken down to carbon dioxide andwater in glycolysis and the citric acid (Krebs) cycle, but togetherthese two processes yield only a few molecules of ATP. Whathappened to most of the energy that the cell obtains from theoxidation of glucose?
A) It was lost as heat.
B) It is stored in the carbon dioxide and water molecules releasedby these processes.
C) It is stored in the ATP that was formed by glycolysis and thecitric acid cycle.
D) It is stored in NADH and FADH2
12.
The First Law of Thermodynamics states that
A) entropy tends to increase in a system.
B) entropy tends to decrease in a system.
C) energy cannot be created nor destroyed.
D) the quality of energy in the universe is decreasing.
13.
The endosymbiotic theory states that _______________ evolved as aresult of a symbiotic relationship between different types ofbacteria. _____________ is thought to be the selective factor thatmade this symbiosis advantageous.
A) mitochondria / A change in the Earth’s atmosphere from anaerobicto aerobic
B) endoplasmic reticulum / A decrease in the amount of foodavailable in the environment
C) chloroplasts / A change in the Earth’s atmosphere from aerobicto anaerobic
D) lysosomes / A decrease in the amount of food available in theenvironment
14.
A mutation in a fruit fly affects one of the proteins that pumphydrogen ions across the inner mitochondrial membrane; thismutation makes that particular protein function less efficiently.When comparing aerobic cellular respiration in this fly with awild-type fly, you would predict that the mutant fly would
A) produce less ATP than a wild-type fly.
B) show no difference in ATP production when compared to awild-type fly.
C) produce more ATP than a wild-type fly.
D) not be able to produce any ATP via aerobic cellularrespiration.
15.
Proteins that are destined to be exported from the cell have unique_________________ that are recognized by signal recognitionparticles and thus moved to the _________________ duringtranslation.
A) phosphofructokinases / nucleus
B) codons / rough endoplasmic reticulum
C) signal recognition sequences / rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) signal recognition sequences / free ribosomes
16.
During the Krebs cycle
A) NADH is oxidized.
B) ATP is produced.
C) pyruvate is produced.
D) Acetly CoA gains a carbon to form pyruvate.
17.
Why does the oxidation of organic compounds by molecular oxygen toproduce CO2 and water release free energy?
A) Electrons are being moved from atoms that have a lower affinityfor electrons (such as C) to atoms with a higher affinity forelectrons (such as O).
B) The electrons have a higher potential energy when associatedwith water and CO2 than they do in organic compounds.
C) The covalent bond in O2 is unstable and easily broken byelectrons from organic molecules.
D) The covalent bonds in organic molecules and molecular oxygenhave more kinetic energy than the covalent bonds in water andcarbon dioxide.
18.
In a chemical reaction, if ?G is negative, it means that thereaction is
A) exergonic, and work needs to be done for the reaction toproceed.
B) exergonic, and work can be done with energy released from thereaction.
C) endergonic, and work needs to be done in order for the reactionto proceed.
D) endergonic, and work can be done with energy released from thereaction.
19.
The energy for an endergonic reaction comes from a(n) ___________reaction.
A) ADP + P --> ATP
B) endergonic.
C) exergonic.
D) anabolic
20.
Glycolysis
A) involves catabolic reactions and ATP is produced.
B) involves anabolic reactions and ATP is produced.
C) involves catabolic reactions and creates energy.
D) involves anabolic reactions and creates energy.

1. C6H12O6 + 6O2 Ã 6CO2 + 6H2O Glucose is being _____ to _____ and oxygen is being _____ to _____. a. oxidized; carbon dioxide; reduced; water b. oxidized; water; reduced; carbon dioxide Incorrect c. reduced; water; oxidized; carbon dioxide d. reduced; carbon dioxide; oxidized; water

2. Which of the following stages in the breakdown of the piece of toast you had for breakfast generates the most ATP? a. the citric acid cycle Incorrect b. glycolysis c. the digestion of starch to glucose d. oxidative phosphorylation

3. Which of the following is a catabolic pathway? a. gluconeogenesis b. production of starch Incorrect c. glycolysis d. production of glycogen

4. Per molecule, the oxidation of a fatty acid results in _____ energy storage than the oxidation of glucose. a. the same b. less Incorrect c. more d. None of the above; fatty acids cannot be oxidized.

5. Of the eight reactions in the citric acid cycle, how many are oxidation-reduction reactions? a. one b. two c. three d. four e. five

6. The process of glycolysis transfers the energy in sugar molecules into the stored energy of activated carriers such as ATP and NADH. Which statement is true about glycolysis? a. Only eukaryotic organisms do glycolysis. b. The ten reactions of glycolysis are identical in all eukaryotic cells, but are different in prokaryotic cells due to their diverse metabolic strategies. Incorrect c. The ten reactions of glycolysis are identical in almost all living organisms on the planet. d. There are many ways to oxidize glucose and transfer energy into activated carriers; the diversity of organisms on the planet is reflected in the diversity of their mechanisms of glycolysis.

7. Referring to the sentence completed in #13 above, the purpose of the latter reaction (in active muscle cells) is to _____. a. accumulate lactic acid in the cell, which provides additional energy for the production of ATP Incorrect b. slow down glycolysis until oxygen becomes available again c. accelerate the Krebs cycle, which will restore the oxygen supply d. regenerate NAD+ so that glycolysis can continue in the absence of oxygen

8. What are the products of the citric acid cycle? a. carbon dioxide, NADH, FADH2 and GTP b. carbon dioxide, NAD+, FAD and GTP c. NADH, FADH2, and acetyl CoA Incorrect d. carbon dioxide and water

9. Which statement is true about enzymes? a. Enzymes catalyze chemical reactions because they make inherently endergonic reactions exergonic. b. Each enzyme in a cell can catalyze many different chemical reactions involving chemically different substrates. Incorrect c. Enzymes can only catalyze reactions in one direction. d. After catalyzing a reaction, an enzyme is permanently altered and can no longer bind substrate. e. None of the above is true. 1

10. ∆G measures the change in free energy in a system as it converts reactant (Y) into product (X). When [X] = [Y], ∆G is equal to _____. a. RT b. ΔG° + RT c. ΔG° d. ln [X]/[Y]

11. The ∆G° for the hydrolysis of ATP is -7.3 kcal/mol. What conditions in the cell would lead to a ∆G for ATP hydrolysis of -11 kcal/mol? a. An increase in the ATP/ADP ratio b. An increase in anabolic activity in the cell c. Transport of ATP out of the compartment where the reaction is occurring Incorrect d. A decrease in the ATP/ADP ratio

12. In the first reaction of glycolysis, a phosphate transferred from ATP to a glucose molecule to produce glucose-6-phosphate and ADP. Under conditions existing in the cell, the free energy change for this reaction is -8.0 kcal/mole. Which of the following statements is true? Recall that the ∆G° for the hydrolysis of ATP is -7.3 kcal/mol. a. Glucose concentrations in the cell are always low, making this reaction more favorable than would be expected. b. This reaction is less favorable than would be expected, given the ∆G° of ATP hydrolysis. c. Glucose-6-P concentrations in the cell are very low relative to glucose concentrations, making the reaction more favorable than would be expected. d. The ∆G° for the addition of a phosphate to glucose must be -0.7 kcal/mole.

13. Protein E can bind to two different proteins, S and I. The binding reactions are described by the following equations and values: E + S --> ES Keq for ES = 10 E + I> EI Keq for EI = 2 Given the equilibrium constant values, which one of the following statements is true? a. When S is present in excess, no I molecules will bind to E. b. E binds I more tightly than S. c. The binding energy of the ES interaction is greater than that of the EI interaction. d. Changing an amino acid on the binding surface of I from a basic amino acid to an acidic one will probably make the free energy of association with E more negative.

1. In addition to identifying the genetic material, the experiments of Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty with different strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae demonstrated that
DNA is a double helix.
DNA may be taken up by bacterial cells and be active.
DNA is present in bacteriophage T2.
eukaryotic cells may be genetically transformed.
DNA binds to the cell wall of the bacterium.
2. In order to show that DNA in cell extracts is responsible for genetic transformation in Streptococcus pneumoniae, important corroborating evidence should indicate that _______ also destroy transforming activity.
temperatures high enough to kill cells
enzymes that hydrolyze proteins
enzymes that hydrolyze DNA
enzymes that hydrolyze polysaccharides
enzymes that hydrolyze RNA
3. Based on what you have learned about the experiments conducted by Griffith and Avery and colleagues with bacteria, which of the following would result in transformation of living R cells?
Pure RNA from S cells
Cell-membrane extracts from S cells
A mixture of pure RNA and protein from S cells
Cell-free extracts from S cells
Pure protein from S cells
4. A-T base pairs in a DNA double helix
form three hydrogen bonds with each other.
are more heat-stable than G-C base pairs.
are of a substantially different length than G-C base pairs.
are not accessible to DNA binding proteins.
are chemically distinct from G-C base pairs.
5. If 23 percent of the bases in a sample of double-stranded DNA are adenine, what percentage of the bases are uracil?
27
50
0
73
23
6. The uniform diameter of the DNA structure provides evidence for
antiparallel DNA strands.
a right-handed helix.
a double-stranded helix.
3′ end phosphorylation.
purine–pyrimidine pairing.
7. If a sequence of one strand of DNA is 5′-TGACTATC-3′, what is the complementary strand?
5′-ACTGATAG-3′
3′-TGACTATC-5′
3′-ACTGATAG-5′
3′-ACTGATAG-3′
5′-TGACTATC-3′
8. What structural aspect of the DNA facilitates dissociation of the two DNA strands for replication?
3′ end phosphorylation
Purine–pyrimidine pairing
Antiparallel DNA strands
Covalent bonds between sugars and phosphate groups
Hydrogen bonding between paired bases
9. If the Meselson–Stahl density gradient experiment had resulted in two bands of DNA molecules after only one round of replication, one containing only 15N and the second only 14N, this result would have indicated that replication was
unidirectional.
dispersive.
conservative.
bidirectional.

semiconservative.
10. The nucleoside analogue acyclovir, which is used to treat herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections, lacks a 3′ hydroxyl group (–OH). Predict what will happen if the host cell DNA polymerase incorporates a molecule of acyclovir into an elongating strand of HSV DNA.
The replication complex will no longer bind to origins of replication.
The DNA polymerase will only incorporate acyclovir molecules.
Acyclovir will bind single-strand binding proteins.
DNA polymerase will not be able to link a successive nucleotide.
Acyclovir will block the activity of the DNA helicase.
11. Which of the following does not demonstrate the stability of the DNA double helix?
Single-strand binding proteins are required to keep the strands apart.
Paired bases form hydrogen bonds.
High temperatures are required to denature it.
DNA synthesis requires energy.
DNA helicases require ATP.
12. What effect would a primase inhibitor have on DNA replication?
DNA polymerase would not be able to add bases to the DNA.
Primase would be blocked from joining the DNA replication complex.
Primase would not be able to provide primers for DNA polymerases.
DNA polymerase would not be able to use DNA as a template.
There would be no effect on DNA replication.
13. To replicate their DNA in a timely manner, most eukaryotic chromosomes
normally have uncoiled DNA.
have multiple origins of replication.
contain linear molecules of single-stranded DNA.
have two replication forks that move in the same direction.
are composed entirely of DNA.
14. Which statement about DNA replication is false?
Okazaki fragments are synthesized as parts of the leading strand.
Error rates for DNA replication are reduced by proofreading of the DNA polymerase.
The sliding clamp increases the rate of DNA synthesis.
Replication forks represent areas of active DNA synthesis on the chromosomes.
Ligases and polymerases function in the vicinity of replication forks.
15. In many eukaryotes, there are repetitive sequences called telomeres at the ends of chromosomes. After successive rounds of DNA replication, the _______ strand becomes shorter. In some cells, an enzyme called _______ repairs the shortened strand.
leading; telomerase
lagging; telomerase
lagging; DNA polymerase I
leading; DNA polymerase I
leading; replicase
16. A researcher studies normal human fibroblast cells. They can be maintained in culture but die off after about 30 cell generations. Unexpectedly, a colony of cells continues to survive and divide past 30 generations. Which scenario is most likely true for these cells?
DNA polymerase is constantly active.
Primase is able to extend the telomeres.
The mismatch repair system is extra efficient.
The telomerase gene is being expressed.
The cells do not need the ends of their chromosomes.
17. If DNA polymerase III introduces an incorrect nucleotide, what is the first corrective action made by the DNA repair system?
The replication complex excises the incorrect nucleotide.
The excision repair proteins remove the incorrect nucleotide.
The mismatch repair system scans for base-pairing mismatches.
There is no correction, because nucleotide errors by DNA polymerases are not repaired.
DNA ligase connects the correct nucleotide.
18. Choose the correct order of the following four events in the excision repair of DNA:
(1) Base-paired DNA is made complementary to the template.
(2) Damaged bases are recognized.
(3) DNA ligase seals the new strand to existing DNA.
(4) Part of a single strand is excised.
1, 2, 3, 4
2, 1, 3, 4
3, 4, 2, 1
2, 4, 1, 3
4, 2, 3, 1
19. Six complete cycles of PCR should result in a _______-fold increase in the amount of DNA.
64
32
12
128
6
20. When double-stranded DNA is heated to temperatures above 90°C, it denatures. Denaturation is a process that
breaks covalent bonds.
hydrolyzes DNA.
separates double-stranded DNA into two single strands.
causes new hydrogen bonds to form.
irreversibly destroys the double helical structure.