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BIOLOGY 1A03 Lecture Notes - Lecture 15: Sanger Sequencing, Chromosome, Gel Electrophoresis

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scarletspider676
21 Apr 2016
School
McMaster University
Department
Biology
Course
BIOLOGY 1A03
Professor
Rosada Silva

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BIOLOGY 1A03 Full Course Notes
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BIOLOGY 1A03 Full Course Notes
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Document Summary

To set up pcr: dna is placed into a tube, a pair of short-single stranded dna primers, free deoxyribonucleotides (dntps, essential ions and salts, dna polymerase tolerant to high temperatures (taq polymerase) Shotgun sequencing-facilitates identification of the dna sequence of the entire genome of an organism. Overlapping dna segments assembled into a consensus region of dna are contigs: phase 1: random sequencing of the dna in each fragment, phase 2: identify regions of overlap between generated fragments. Assembly long continuous sequence of nucleotides in the dna molecule that makes up a chromosome: phase 3:annotating sequence to identify regions of genomic dna that encodes for genes. Sanger sequencing (dideoxy sequencing): the dna to be sequenced serves as a template for. Reasoning was that dideoxynucleotides (ddntps) missing oh groups at 3" would not allow for further elongation of a growing dna. Key components: the denatures single-stranded template dna, short single-stranded dna primers, sufficient free deoxyribonucleotides (dntps, dna polymerase.

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Related Questions

What happens when RNA polymerase hits a nonsense mutation?
a. Transcription stops because nonsense is the same as stop.
b. Translation stops because nonsense encodes stop.
c. Transcription continues until a transcription termination site is reached.
d. Replication con5inues until a ter site is reached which terminates replication. e. none of the above

9. A frame-shift mutation
a. can cause premature translation termination.
b. can be caused by the addition or removal of a base pair. c. can cause the production of a truncated protein.
d. aandc
e. all of the above

10. PCR, polymerase chain reaction requires: a. an RNA template.
b. a thermo-tolerant DNA polymerase.
c. primers that have a 3’- Phosphate.

d. dideoxy nucleotide triphosphates for polymerization. e. bandc

1/ Some bacteria use _______ enzymes as a defense mechanism; these enzymes cut up foreign _______.

a. modification;DNA
b. restriction; DNA
c. restriction; RNA
d. modification: Protein e. modification; RNA

2/ The addition of _______ groups to their DNA is one method used by bacteria to prevent their own DNA from being cut by restriction enzymes.
a. phosphate
b. acetly

c. methyl
d. nicatinamide e. adenyl

3/ Which of the following is a palindromic recognition sequence? a. 5 ́. . . CAATAG . . . 3 ́
b. 5 ́. . . CAATTG . . . 3 ́
c. 5 ́. . . CATTTG . . . 3 ́

d. 5 ́. . . GATTTC . . . 3 ́ e. 5 ́. . . CATCAT . . . 3 ́

4/ DNA, because it has a _______ charge, moves to the _______ end of the field in gel electrophoresis; _______ DNA molecules migrate the most quickly.
a. positive; positive; smaller
b. positive; positive; larger

c. positive; negative; smaller

d. negative; positive; larger e. negative; positive; smaller

5. A 10 base-pair single-stranded DNA fragment was cut by three different restriction enzymes to produce the following fragments:
(1) AC, TAC, and GGATG
(2) TA, CGG, and ATGAC

(3) GAC, GAT, and TACG

The nucleotide sequence of the ten-base fragment is a. ATGCCTACTG.
b. TACGGATGAC.
c. GGATGACTAC.

d. GACGATTACG.
e. The sequence cannot be determined from the information given.

Which of the following did Erwin Chargaff observe?

A)

Base composition changes as the organism ages.

B)

Base composition of DNA does not vary from one species toanother.

C)

In all species the number of adenines equals the number ofguanines.

D)

In all species A + T = G + C.

E)

DNAs isolated from different tissues of the same species havethe same base composition.

The melting temperature (Tm) of a DNA duplex is:

A)

the temperature at which double-stranded nucleic acids degradeinto free nucleotides.

B)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA is toosingle-stranded to ever renature back to double strands.

C)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA is completelymelted.

D)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA has become 50%single-stranded.

E)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA begins to melt.

Given your knowledge and the descriptions of each of thesemethods, which of the following does NOT rely on the ability ofnucleic acids to hybridize with each other?

A)

Southern blotting for the detection of specific DNA fragmentsthat have been separated by gel electrophoresis.

B)

Colony blot hybridization to identify a specific sequence from acollection of sequences that have been inserted into bacteria.

C)

Northern blotting for the detection of specific RNA fragmentsthat have been separated by gel electrophoresis.

D)

A DNA oligonucleotide microarray incubated with probes made fromcDNA.

E)

Western blotting for the detection of specific proteins thathave been separated by gel electrophoresis.

Which of the following is a possible reason why DNA uses thymineinstead of uracil?

A)

Cytidine is deaminated to uracil so it would be difficult forany repair mechanism to differentiate between uracil that belongsin the sequence and uracil that resulted from deamination.

B)

Adenine is deaminated to uracil so it would be difficult for anyrepair mechanism to differentiate between uracil that belongs inthe sequence and uracil that resulted from deamination.

C)

When uracil is bound to a deoxyribose it will become morereactive, forming covalent bonds with other bases.

D)

None of the above.

Which of the following is an enzyme used in cloning to breakcovalent bonds?

A)

DNA ligase

B)

Restriction endonuclease

C)

Reverse transcriptase

D)

DNA polymerase I

E)

Alkaline phosphatase

Which of the following could you use to remove the 5' phosphatesafter cleavage of a plasmid with a single type of restrictionenzyme to ensure that the plasmid would not simply fuse backtogether upon addition of ligase?

A)

Reverse transcriptase

B)

Alkaline phosphatase

C)

DNA ligase

D)

DNA polymerase I

E)

Restriction endonuclease

Which of the following would you use to create a cDNA librarythat you would not use for a genomic library?

A)

Alkaline phosphatase

B)

Reverse transcriptase

C)

Restriction endonuclease

D)

DNA ligase

E)

DNA polymerase I

A plasmid vector typically has which of the followingfeatures?

A)

An origin of replication

B)

A selectable marker to ensure that the only bacteria growingcontain the intact or recombinant vector.

C)

Unique restriction sites for insertion of DNA.

D)

Small size to facilitate entry into the cell and biochemicalmanipulation of the DNA.

E)

All of the above are features of plasmid vectors.

Which of the following is FALSE of genomic or cDNAlibraries?

A)

Genes represented in cDNA libraries include control sequencesthat direct transcription.

B)

cDNA libraries contain cDNAs made from mRNA.

C)

Genomic libraries contain fragments of genomic DNA that aregenerated by partial digests with restriction enzymes.

D)

Genomic libraries usually contain large fragments and are likelyto be constructed in YAC or BAC vectors.

E)

cDNA libraries contain sequences from expressed genes only.

Which of the following is NOT a typical component of apolymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

A)

dNTPs

B)

DNA containing the sequences to be amplified

C)

DNA ligase to connect the fragments together

D)

Primers complementary to each end of the sequence to beamplified

E)

Heat stable Taq polymerase

How can a fusion protein be formed?

A)

Site-directed mutagenesis where a fragment is replaced with asynthetic sequence containing the altered DNA sequence.

B)

Two proteins can recombine in the bacterial cell to form a newhybrid protein.

C)

Portions of two different genes are ligated together to create anew hybrid gene. When expressed the gene product is a fusion of thetwo gene products.

D)

Using oligonucleotide-directed mutagenesis to introduce specificmutations that cause the expressed protein to fuse to otherproteins.

E)

A portion of the gene can be removed to form a shorter gene andtherefore a shorter protein.

Why is green fluorescent protein (GFP) so useful in visualizingfusion proteins in eukaryotes?

A)

The GFP protein recognizes and binds to fusion proteins allowingthe location of the fusion protein to be determined.

B)

The reaction is only dependent on the presence of GFP and oneother cofactor.

C)

It is easily cloned and expressed in bacterial cells.

D)

The presence of just a few molecules of GFP fusion proteins canbe sufficient for observing the proteins microscopically allowingthe study of its location and movements in the cell.

E)

It is derived from fire flies, which are easy to cultivate inthe lab.

You wish to determine the cellular location of a protein butunfortunately it is not particularly antigenic (can t develop astrong antibody response). How could you solve this problem?

A)

Create a fusion protein with an epitope tag that can bevisualized by incubation with fluorescently tagged antibody to theepitope.

B)

Create a fusion with green fluorescent protein (GFP).

C)

Express the protein as a fusion with biotin. The addition of GFPwill cause fluorescence.

D)

A and B might work.

E)

A, B, and C might work.

F)

None of the above will work.

A positive result for the yeast two-hybrid analysis means thefollowing:

A)

The proteins that you are studying can be made into fusionproteins, but do NOT interact with each other within the nucleus ofyeast.

B)

A fusion protein containing the Gal4p activation domain, hasbound to RNA polymerase resulting increase transcription ofnumerous genes, including the reporter gene, and formation ofcolonies.

C)

Two fusion proteins, one containing the Gal4p binding sitedomain and one containing the Gal4p activation domain, haveinteracted through their Gal4p domains resulting in transcriptionof the reporter gene.

D)

Two fusion proteins interact with each other and because of theGal4p binding site domain and the Gal4p activation domain containedin each fusion protein, the reporter genes are activated and thecells die resulting in no colonies.

E)

The colonies growing are expressing the two fusion proteins, butthe two proteins have not interacted with each other.

Which of the following is the approximate size of the humangenome?

A)

3 Gm

B)

300 Kb

C)

3 Mb

D)

3 Gb

E)

3 Mm

Which of the following is correct about the structure orlocation of genes?

Question 22 options:

A)

Prokaryotic genes typically possess their own regulatorysequences that only control expression of a single gene.

B)

Eukaryotic genes often encode introns that are spliced outbefore translation.

C)

Eukaryotic genes are mostly located at the telomeres and thecentromeres of chromosomes.

D)

Eukaryotic genes are typically arranged in operons.

E)

Prokaryotic genes often encode exons that are spliced out beforetranslation