ACC 110 Lecture Notes - Whopper, Freakonomics
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A424
Homework #3
Due Tuesday, February 28
Worth 100 Points
Note: Students are expected to work independently (i.e., on your own) on all homework assignments. Please type and post to Canvas.
Part I. Risk Assessments
| 1. For each illustration, select the component of audit risk that is most directly illustrated. The components of audit risk may be used once, more than once, or not at all. (10 points, 1 point each). |
| Components: Inherent Risk (IR), Control risk (CR), or Detection Risk (DR) |
a. A client fails to discover employee fraud on a timely basis because bank accounts are not reconciled monthly.
b. Cash is more susceptible to theft than an inventory of coal.
c. Confirmation of receivables by an auditor fails to detect a material misstatement.
d. Disbursements have occurred without proper approval.
e. There is inadequate segregation of duties.
f. A necessary substantive audit procedure is omitted.
g. Notes receivable are susceptible to material misstatement, assuming there are no related internal controls.
h. Technological developments make a major product obsolete.
i. The client is very close to violating debt covenants.
j. XYZ Company, a client, lacks sufficient working capital to continue operations.
2. Read Case 1.6, Nextcard, Inc. from our Casebook. Pretend you are the auditor for Nexcard, Inc. in the planning phase of the audit for FY 2000 and perform the following risk assessment procedures. That is, just focus on the information in the case prior to the discovery of the fraud (pages 83-86). (50 points total)
a. Perform a risk assessment as part of your audit plan for fiscal year 2000. Set or assess each component/factor of the audit risk model. Describe in detail how you set or assessed each factor (i.e., include specific risk factors from the case and explain how they influenced your assessment). (25 points)
b. Perform a fraud risk assessment for the risk of material misstatement due to fraudulent financial reporting. That is, identify and briefly describe specific fraud risk factors (i.e., more than 1) for each of the three components of the fraud risk triangle, specific to fraudulent financial reporting. (15 points)
c. Identify and describe one significant pervasive risk present during the Nextcard audit. In doing so, explain how the pervasive risk affects the risk of material misstatement. Then, describe how the auditor could respond to that pervasive risk (how could they change the audit plan to address that risk). (5 points)
d. Identify and describe one significant specific risk present during the Nextcard audit. In doing so, explain how the specific risk affects the risk of material misstatement. Then, describe how the auditor could respond to that specific risk (how could they change the audit plan to address that risk). (5 points)
Part II. Evidence and Management Assertions
1. For each of the following specific audit procedures, indicate the type of audit procedure it represents: (1) inspection of records or documents, (2) inspection of tangible assets, (3) observation, (4) inquiry, (5) confirmation, (6) recalculation, (7) reperformance, (8) analytical procedures, and (9) scanning. (10 points, 1 point each)
a. sending a written request to the entityâs customers requesting that they report the amount owed to the entity
b. examining large sales invoices for a period of two days before and after year-end to determine if sales are recorded in the proper period.
c. agreeing the total of the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger to the accounts receivable general ledger account.
d. discussing the adequacy of the allowance for doubtful accounts with the credit manager.
e. comparing the current-year gross profit percentage with the gross profit percentage for the last four years.
f. examining a new plastic extrusion machine to ensure that this major acquisition was received.
g. watching the entityâs warehouse personnel count the raw materials inventory.
h. performing test counts of the warehouse personnelâs count of the raw material.
i. obtaining a letter from the entityâs attorney indicating that there were no lawsuits in progress against the entity.
j. tracing the prices used by the entityâs billing program for pricing sales invoices to the entityâs approved price list.
2. For each of the audit procedures listed above in Part II. 1. (a-j), identify the category (assertions about classes of transactions and events, or assertions about account balances) and identify the primary management assertion being tested. (30 points, 3 points each)
Identify two categories of revenue for Panera Bread from the table in the article Revenue Recognition: Key differences between U.S. GAAP and IFRSs. Compare and contrast the companyâs current U.S. GAAP revenue recognition with the potential adoption of IFRS. Provide the IASB Framework or the IAS statement, the changes in revenue recognition as well as potential challenges the company may face in adoption.
Table:
| Subject | U.S. GAAP | IFRSs |
|---|---|---|
| Concept/objective | realized or realizable and earned. | According to paragraph 83 of the IASB's Framework for the Preparation and Presentation of Financial Statements, revenue is recognized when (1) "it is probable that any future economic benefit" will flow to the entity and (2) such a benefit can be measured reliably. Further, paragraph 93 of the IASB Framework indicates that revenue normally must be earned before it can be recognized. |
| Definition of revenue | Paragraph 78 of FASB Concepts Statement No. 6, Elements of Financial Statements, defines revenue as "inflows or other enhancements of assets of an entity or settlements of its liabilities (or a combination of both) from delivering or producing goods, rendering services, or other activities that constitute the entity's ongoing major or central operations." | Paragraph 74 of the IASB Framework states, "The definition of income encompasses both revenue and gains. Revenue arises in the course of the ordinary activities of an entity and is referred to by a variety of different names including sales, fees, interest, dividends, royalties and rent." Paragraph 7 of IAS 18 defines revenue as "the gross inflow of economic benefits during the period arising in the course of the ordinary activities of an entity when those inflows result in increases in equity, other than increases relating to contributions from equity participants." |
| Sale of goods or products | SAB Topic 13 indicates that revenue from the sale of goods or products should not be recognized until it is earned and realized, or realizable. Revenue is generally earned and realized, or realizable, when all of the following conditions have been satisfied: There is persuasive evidence of an arrangement. Delivery has occurred (e.g., an exchange has taken place). The sales price is fixed or determinable. Collectibility is reasonably assured. In addition, ASC 605-15 provides guidance on product transactions that include a right of return. Further, various industry- and transaction-specific guidance is provided in other U.S. GAAP. | Under paragraph 14 of IAS 18, revenue from the sale of goods is recognized if all of the following conditions are met: The "entity has transferred to the buyer the significant risks and rewards of ownership of the goods." The "entity retains neither continuing managerial involvement to the degree usually associated with ownership nor effective control over the goods sold." The "amount of revenue can be measured reliably." "[I]t is probable that the economic benefits associated with the transaction will flow to the entity." The "costs incurred or to be incurred in respect of the transaction can be measured reliably." |
| Rendering services | >Like revenue from product sales, revenue from service transactions should not be recognized until it is earned and realized, or realizable. Revenue is generally earned and realized, or realizable, when all of the following conditions have been satisfied: There is persuasive evidence of an arrangement. Service has been rendered. The sales price is fixed or determinable. Collectibility is reasonably assured. Other than the limited guidance in >ASC 605-20, no specific guidance on the rendering of services exists under U.S. GAAP. The appropriate method for recognizing revenue in such transactions depends on the individual transaction but is usually based on the proportional performance as of the balance sheet date. | Paragraph 20 of IAS 18 states, "When the outcome of a transaction involving the rendering of services can be estimated reliably, revenue associated with the transaction shall be recognised by reference to the stage [i.e., percentage] of completion of the transaction at the balance sheet date." Paragraph 20 goes on to list specific conditions for determining whether an outcome of a transaction can be estimated reliably. And subsequent paragraphs provide guidance on determining the stage of completion. Paragraph 26 of IAS 18 states, "When the outcome of the transaction involving the rendering of services cannot be estimated reliably, revenue shall be recognised only to the extent of the expenses recognised that are recoverable." |
| Software arrangements | ASC 985-605 provides guidance on recognizing revenue in a software arrangement. | There is no specific guidance on software revenue recognition in IFRSs. An entity should apply the provisions of IAS 18 as appropriate. |
| Construction-type contracts | ASC 605-35 provides guidance on construction-type contracts. ASC 605-35-25-90 indicates that when the percentage-of-completion method is deemed inappropriate (e.g., when dependable estimates cause the outcome to be doubtful), the completed-contract method is preferable. ASC 605-35-25-25 through 25-27, the customer must approve the scope and price of change orders before the related revenue can be recognized. | IAS 11, Construction Contracts, provides guidance on construction-type contracts. Paragraph 32 of IAS 11 indicates that when the percentage-of-completion method is deemed inappropriate (e.g., when the outcome of the contract cannot be estimated reliably), revenue is recognized to the extent that costs have been incurred, provided that the costs are recoverable. Use of the completed-contract method is prohibited under IFRSs. Paragraph 13 of IAS 11 specifies that when it is probable that the customer will approve the scope and price of a change order, the related revenue can be recognized. |
| Milestone method | ASC 605-28 provides guidance on the application of the milestone method for recognizing revenue in research or development arrangements. | There is no specific guidance in IFRSs on the application of the milestone method for recognizing revenue in research or development arrangements. |
| Multiple-element arrangements | ASC 605-25 provides guidance on multiple-element revenue arrangements and establishes detailed criteria for determining whether each element may be separately considered for recognition. This guidance does not apply to arrangements or deliverables that are within the scope of other authoritative literature (e.g., ASC 985-605). | Paragraph 13 of IAS 18 indicates that the recognition criteria under IAS 18 are usually applied separately to each transaction unless either of the following conditions applies: "[I]t is necessary to apply the recognition criteria to the separately identifiable components of a single transaction in order to reflect the substance of the transaction." Two or more transactions "are linked in such a way that the commercial effect cannot be understood without reference to the series of transactions as a whole." |
| Bill-and-hold arrangements | The SEC staff lists specific criteria that must be met for revenue to be recognized in bill-and-hold arrangements before delivery of the product. (Non-SEC entities also use these revenue recognition criteria because no other authoritative guidance in U.S. GAAP addresses the accounting for these transactions.) The criteria restrict revenue recognition to limited circumstances. | Illustrative Examples to IAS 18 list criteria for recognizing revenue under bill-and-hold arrangements before delivery of the product. While the objective for recognizing revenue in bill-and-hold arrangements may be similar to that in U.S. GAAP, the criteria are not the same. |
| Gross versus net | ASC 605-45 provides guidance on whether to report revenue on the basis of the gross amount billed to the customer (as a principal) or the net amount retained by the company (as an agent). | Paragraph 8 of IAS 18 requires that revenue be reported on a net basis in agency relationships but does not provide specific guidance to consider. Improvements to IFRSs issued in April 2009) provides examples that indicate whether an entity is acting as a principal or as an agent. |
| Customer loyalty programs | Revenue recognition for customer loyalty programs is not specifically addressed in U.S. GAAP. (The EITF attempted to address this issue but did not reach a consensus.) Although entities account for customer loyalty programs in different ways, such programs are typically accounted for under ASC 605-25 as multiple-element arrangements or under an incremental-cost model. | IFRIC 13 indicates that customer loyalty programs are deemed multiple-element revenue transactions and that the fair value of the consideration received should be allocated between the components of the arrangement. |
| Rebates, discounts, incentives, and other consideration | ASC 605-50 indicates that consideration given by an entity to its customers is presumed to be a reduction of revenue unless an identifiable benefit whose fair value can be reasonably estimated is received. | Paragraph 10 of IAS 18 states that revenue "is measured at the fair value of the consideration received or receivable taking into account the amount of any trade discounts and volume rebates allowed by the entity." There is no specific guidance on other types of consideration given by an entity to its customers. |
| Specific industry and other guidance | Certain standards in U.S. GAAP provide specialized guidance on revenue recognition, including guidance that applies to specific industries and transactions. | IFRSs provide no (or limited) revenue recognition guidance that applies to specific industries or transactions. |
Budget constraints on marketing research are most likely to leadto:
a wrong interpretation of the research results. | ||
an incorrectly formulated sample size and design. | ||
incorrect reasons regarding why the research is needed. | ||
pretest measurements of competitive brand sales. |
2 points
QUESTION 2
Stacy, a marketing manager at a beverage manufacturing firm,conducts a customer survey to determine the reason for a dip in thesales of Zeal, a cola, in the last quarter. The survey reveals thatthere is an immediate customer demand requiring the use of organicingredients to Zeal. The firm decides to enhance Zeal with theintroduction of organic ingredients. This new product would fallinto the category of ________.
new-to-the-world products | ||
new-to-the-firm products | ||
improvements and revisions of existing products | ||
additions to existing product lines |
2 points
QUESTION 3
Lauren is a brand manager at a company that manufacturestoothpaste. She wants to increase the sales of an existing brand oftoothpaste. To do so, she calls for a meeting with a teamcomprising of members from the administrative department, the humanresource department, and the finance department. All of thesemembers work together to come up with ways to improve the company'stoothpaste brand positioning. Such a team is an example of a________.
category-management system | ||
cross-functional team | ||
departmental team | ||
marketing-management system |
2 points
QUESTION 4
________ are methods used to determine how resources should beallocated among the various strategic business units (SBUs) in anorganization.
Vector models | ||
Matrix models | ||
Variable models | ||
Portfolio models |
2 points
QUESTION 5
For high-involvement products that require extensive decisionmaking, marketers should provide consumers with:
ready availability of the products in a variety of outlets andat competitive prices. | ||
factual information that highlights the competitive advantage ofthe products. | ||
minimum information to encourage a quick purchasing process. | ||
eye-catching advertisements and in-store displays to encouragethem to make a purchase. |
2 points
QUESTION 6
The number of times, on average, that audience members areexposed to an advertisement within a given time period is knownas:
frame rate. | ||
time to target market. | ||
reach intensity. | ||
average frequency. |
2 points
QUESTION 7
Ariston Inc. manufactures a wide range of personal careproducts. Its method of sales forecasting involves conductingdetailed surveys of retailers who stock the company's productstoward the end of a fiscal year. The aim of this survey is toestimate the quantity of Ariston's products the retailers arelikely to order in the next fiscal year. Which of the followingapproaches of sales forecasting is Ariston using?
Customer expectations method | ||
Time-series analysis | ||
Sales forecast composite method | ||
Jury of executive opinion method |
2 points
QUESTION 8
________ carry broad product assortments and compete on thebasis of offering a good selection in different product categoriesand offering lower prices on products in their largeassortments.
Specialty stores | ||
Mass merchandisers | ||
Category killers | ||
Convenience stores |
2 points
QUESTION 9
Which of the following best describes personal selling?
Personal selling is a paid form of communications about anorganization, its products, or its activities that is transmittedthrough a mass medium. | ||
Personal selling is an activity that offers customers orresellers a direct inducement for purchasing a product. | ||
Personal selling is a nonpaid form of communication that seeksto influence the attitudes, feelings, and opinions of stockholders,suppliers, employees, and political bodies about anorganization. | ||
Personal selling is face-to-face communication with potentialbuyers to inform them about and persuade them to buy anorganization's product. |
2 points
QUESTION 10
Which of the following best explains why Delicia Co., amanufacturer of potato chips, prices each bag of potato chips at 99cents rather than $1.00?
To encourage consumers to think the chips are less expensive | ||
To increase sales by offering the chips at a discountedprice | ||
To create a signal that these chips are exceptionally fine | ||
To attract those consumers who are not too sure about thequality of the chips |
2 points
QUESTION 11
Which of the following is NOT a step in the marketing researchprocess?
Performance of the research | ||
Plan of the research | ||
Preview of the research | ||
Preparation of the research report |
2 points
QUESTION 12
In the context of product purchasing, the diffusion ofinnovation is:
used to describe the ability of an organization to createentirely new products. | ||
applied to products at the introductory stage of the productlife cycle. | ||
used to describe an audit task. | ||
the spread of a product through the population. |
2 points
QUESTION 13
Distribution allowances are typical examples of ________.
push strategies | ||
profile strategies | ||
pull strategies | ||
mixed promotional strategies |
2 points
QUESTION 14
Which of the following is a benefit of mathematical modeling asa marketing research method?
It is ideal for investigating customer beliefs, attitudes,satisfaction, and other issues. | ||
It generates a substantial number of ideas when compared withother methods. | ||
It is involved in the analysis and interpretation of primarydata exclusively. | ||
It provides an efficient way to study problems with extremelylarge secondary data sets. |
2 points
QUESTION 15
Identify the persuasion objective of the sales force in personalselling.
To reassure consumers of product or service superiority throughdemonstrable actions | ||
To enable prompt delivery of the product or service that exceedscustomer expectations | ||
To ensure immediate follow-up calls and visits to addressunresolved or new concerns | ||
To clearly distinguish attributes of a firm's products orservices from those of competitors |
2 points
QUESTION 16
Which of the following statements is true of the influences ofprice, product, and promotions on consumer behavior?
Consistent bombarding of messages about a product will put offpotential consumers. | ||
Salespeople do not have a direct impact on consumer behavior andits patterns. | ||
Value-conscious consumers buy products on the basis of placerather than other attributes. | ||
Marketing communications play a critical role in informingconsumers about products and services. |
2 points
QUESTION 17
According to the VALS⢠model, Experiencers are:
driven to demonstrate success. | ||
driven by a desire for social or physical activity. | ||
driven by knowledge and principles. | ||
driven by the level of resources and innovation. |
2 points
QUESTION 18
In which of the following stages of the new product developmentprocess is the new product proposal evaluated and responsibilityfor a project assigned to a project team?
Product development | ||
Idea screening | ||
Test marketing | ||
Project planning |
2 points
QUESTION 19
Which of the following is an advantage of secondary data overprimary data?
Secondary data sources are limited, making the information morevaluable. | ||
Secondary data are cheaper to obtain and utilize. | ||
Secondary data are collected specifically for the researchproblem under investigation. | ||
Secondary data are always available for strategy-specificresearch questions. |
2 points
QUESTION 20
An automobile manufacturing firm decides to meet all itssuppliers while planning to manufacture a new automobile that is aminor variant of an existing model in terms of design andperformance. The firm wants to provide its loyal customers withautomobiles at a low price without compromising on performance.According to authors Crawford and DiBenedetto, this new productfalls into the category of ________.
price redemptions | ||
repositionings | ||
price exemptions | ||
cost reductions |
