ENH 220 Lecture Notes - Qrs Complex, Pulmonary Circulation, Embolus

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10 Dec 2011

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Myositis - damage to muscle cells from direct invasion by bacteria, parasites, viruses or fungi. Damages the sarcomere in the myofibril and results in inflammation. They are toxic products of bacteria (clostridium perfringens) The strains of c. p that cause food poisoning outbreaks also cause gas gangrene. The spores of the c. p found in soil, on human skin in the intestine of healthy humans, and animals. Gas gangrene is the gas produced by the bacteria that"s growing in the tissues (clostridial myonecrosis) Dead tissues supplies nutrients and anaerobic environment for growth of bacteria. Bacteria realease toxins such as alpha toxin which causes the red blood cells to break then destroy tissue. Toxins injure tissue, usually large muscles (thigh, shoulder butt) and diffuse into nearby healthy tissues and cause necrosis (cell dies, uncontrolled, or accidental) The dead tissue serves as a site form growth of more clostridial bacteria, toxin formation and gas production.

Related Questions

For the following bacteria, Please list the following information:

Causative agent

Signs and Symptoms

Pathogenesis and Major Virulence factors

Epidemiology

Diagnosis

Control (Treatment and Prevention)

Bacterial List

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Escherichia coli

Streptococcus pyogenes

Treponema pallidum

Bordetella pertussis

Corynebacterium diptheriae

Clostridium botulinum

Clostridium perfringes

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Helicobacter pylori

Staphylococcus aureus

Salmonella Typhi

Shigella sonnei

Bacillus anthracis

Mycobacterium leprae

Neisseria meningitides

Streptococcus pneumonia

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Vibrio cholera

Listeria monocytogenes

Clostridium tetani

Chlamydia trachomatis

Ciproflaxin is a broad spectrum antibiotic that kills most normal microbial inhabitants in the human gut. Clostridium difficile is found in small numbers in the normal flora of some healthy adults however this normal inhabitant of the gut is not affected by ciproflaxin. Clostridium difficile is innately resistant to ciproflaxin. After therapy with ciproflaxin patients who normally carry Clostridium difficile often exhibit Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea. The change in ability of Clostridium difficile to cause disease would best be explained by the statement that [choose the statement below that you would argue is the best explanation]

	a.	Ciproflaxin interacted with Clostridium difficile in a manner to make the organism more pathogenic.
	b.	I do not know the answer to this question.
	c.	Ciproflaxin has killed the microbes that normally compete with Clostridium difficile in the gut allowing the microbe to grow uncontrolled.
	d.	Ciproflaxin acted as a mutagen. Ciproflaxin induced a mutation in Clostridium difficile to make the organism more pathogenic.

Please provide support/justification for your answer to the ciproflaxin treatment of Clostridium question.

Bacillus subtilis is growing in a nutrient rich environment. If glucose is depleted, what would be the first response of Bacillus subtilis to the change in the environment?

	a.	utilization of another carbon source.
	b.	formation of an endospore.
	c.	alteration of a DNA sequence.
	d.	I donât know the answer to this question.
	e.	acceptance of DNA via gene transfer. Please provide support/justification for your answer to the Bacillus depleting glucose question.

Which is _*NOT*_ true about the evolution of antibiotic resistance in bacterial populations? It can be mediated by

	a.	modification of a bacteriumâs genome through uptake of new genetic information.
	b.	I do not know the answer to this question.
	c.	alterations of a bacteriumâs genetic material through mutation.
	d.	changes in gene expression that occur in the presence of antibiotics.
	e.	selective growth of bacteria capable of degrading antibiotics.

Please provide support/justification for your answer to the bacterial antibiotic resistance evolution question.

1) What clinical manifestation do Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis share? A) nosocomial infections B) protein A antiphagocytic factor C) hyaluronidase enzyme D) enterotoxins E) staphylokinase 2) Which of the following has been historically classified as Gram-negative bacteria but is genetically more similar to low G + C Gram-positive bacteria? A) mycoplasmas B) Mycobacterium C) Clostridium D) Propionibacterium E) Nocardia 3) What is one virulence factor that differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other species of staphylococci? A) It has a capsule. B) It can produce coagulase. C) It produces catalase. D) It can live on the surface of the skin and in cutaneous oil glands. E) It produces lipase. 4) Over 90% of Staphylococcus aureus isolates are penicillin-resistant. Why? A) They have loosely organized polysaccharide slime layers. B) They produce coagulase. C) Cell division occurs in successively different planes, and the daughter cells remain attached to one another. D) They produce Î²-lactamase. E) They produce staphylokinase, which dissolves fibrin threads in blood clots. 5) A woman comes to the emergency department with fever and vomiting. She soon develops a red rash all over her body, and her blood pressure begins to drop. What is one possible diagnosis? A) erysipelas C) scarlet fever B) endocarditis D) toxic shock syndrome E) staphylococcal food poisoning 6) Bacteria collected from a severely inflamed wound are sent to the lab for analysis. The results come back as follows: Gram-positive cocci in irregular clusters, kinase and coagulase positive, and able to grow in the presence of most antibiotics except vancomycin. The bacteria in the wound are most likely _______ A) Enterococcus. C) Staphylococcus aureus. B) Staphylococcus epidermidis. D) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). E) Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococcus). 7) Which of the following statements about "flesh-eating" streptococci is FALSE? A) It is caused by a group A streptococcus. B) It is also known as necrotizing fasciitis because it travels along the fascia. C) It causes death in over 50% of cases. D) It is considered a common complication of pyoderma. E) It involves toxemia. 8) Streptococcus agalactiae is associated with which of the following diseases? A) neonatal bacteremia B) neonatal meningitis C) neonatal pneumonia D) both neonatal bacteremia and neonatal meningitis E) neonatal bacteremia, neonatal meningitis, and neonatal pneumonia 9) What differentiates virulent strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae from nonvirulent strains? A) the species-specific teichoic acid present in its cell wall B) the type of Lancefield antigen it produces C) the presence of a polysaccharide capsule that protects it from digestion after endocytosis D) the type of toxins it produces E) the extent of the hemolytic zone it produces when it is grown on blood agar 10) Otitis media may lead to dangerous meningitis in children due to infection with _____ A) Streptococcus agalactiae. B) Streptococcus pneumoniae. C) Streptococcus mutans. D) Enterococcus. E) Mycoplasma pneumoniae. 11) Which of the following streptococci is associated with dental caries? A) viridans streptococci B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Streptococcus equisimilis E) Streptococcus arginosus 12) Anthrax, which means "charcoal" in Greek, derives its name from _____ A) the airborne endospores it produces. B) the staining properties of the bacillus under the microscope. C) the black eschars it produces on human skin. D) its ability to invade the bloodstream and produce toxemia. E) the high mortality it causes in infected individuals. 13) Which of the following bacteria produce one of the most deadly bacterial toxins known? A) Clostridium perfringens C) Clostridium tetani B) Clostridium difficile D) Clostridium botulinum E) Corynebacterium species 14) Which of the following bacteria can cause life-threatening pseudomembranous colitis? A) Clostridium difficile B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) Enterococcus species E) Clostridium botulinum 15) How does the toxin from Clostridium tetani produce its action? A) It fuses irreversibly to neuronal cytoplasmic membranes, blocking release of acetylcholine at synaptic clefts. B) The smaller polypeptide of its toxin can block the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters by inhibitory neurons in the central nervous system, causing simultaneous contraction of both muscles in an antagonistic pair. C) It is a pyrogenic toxin, which triggers a diffused rash and, later, sloughing of skin. D) It destroys tissues, including muscle and fat. E) It produces antibodies that attack the neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscle and prevent them from relaxing. 16) Listeria virulence is directly related to its ability to ______ A) produce powerful toxins. B) form very resistant endospores. C) live within cells and thus avoid exposure to the immune system of its host. D) easily become a pathogen in humans. E) resist most antimicrobial agents. 17) The pus from an abscess in a patient's jaw contains microbes that form yellowish grainy masses and appear filamentous under the microscope. Neither antifungal medication nor a normal course of antibiotics has been effective in treating the infection. The abscess is likely the result of infection with A) Actinomyces. B) Mycobacterium. C) Nocardia. D) Propionibacterium. E) Streptococcus. 18) What is the most common disease caused by Propionibacterium? A) acne B) food poisoning C) pneumonitis D) folliculitis 19) Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause of ______ A) acne. C) pharyngitis B) furuncles. D) primary atypical pneumonia. E) otitis media. 20) The soil bacterium Nocardia asteroides can establish opportunistic infections of the _____ A) skin C) central nervous system B) lungs D) cardiovascular system. E) skin, lungs, and central nervous system

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ENH 220 Lecture Notes - Qrs Complex, Pulmonary Circulation, Embolus

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