MHR 749 Lecture Notes - Lecture 5: Subfactor, Job Evaluation, Job Analysis

49 views3 pages

mauvehound402

3 Apr 2017

School

Department

Course

Professor

For unlimited access to Class Notes, a Class+ subscription is required.

Document Summary

Job evaluation: the process of systematically determining the relative worth of jobs to create a job structure for the organization. Job evaluation is based on job content and internal job value and external market links. An internal job structure based on job content refers to the skills required for the job, its duties and its responsibilities. An internal job structure based on job value refers to the relative contribution of the skills, duties and responsibilities of a job to the organization"s goals. Job structure: hierarchy of jobs based on value to the organization; provides the basis for the pay structure. Decide whether to use single or multiple plans. The purpose needs to: supports organizational strategy, supports workflow, is fair to employees & motivates behaviour toward organization objectives. A structure based on job content refers to the skills required for the job, its duties and its responsibilities.

Related Questions

Q1. Members are most likely to experience role conflict and divided loyalties in:
a. a cross-functional project team
b. a self-managed operational team
c. a traditional work team
d. an executive team

Q2. Which of the following was not mentioned as a primary determinant of performance for a functional team?
a. how long the current leader has been in that position
b. trust and cooperation among the team members
c. the organization and coordination of activities
d. member agreement about objectives and strategies

Q3. Which is not likely to improve the effectiveness of a self-managed team?
a. let members share in financial gains from improved performance
b. change the membership frequently to give the team fresh ideas
c. provide accurate, timely information relevant to team activities
d. give members training in interpersonal and problem solving skills

Q4. Which process is most likely to occur in an after-activity review?
a. determination of responsibility for errors and mistakes
b. recognition of members for their contributions to the team
c. analysis of what was done well and what needs to be changed
d. selection of the most qualified team leader for the next activity

Q5. Which type of activity is least likely to be delegated to a self-managed team?
a. evaluating each team member's task performance
b. firing a team member who has unsatisfactory performance
c. determining the work procedures to be used by the team
d. determining which team member will carry out each task

Q6. The primary responsibility of the leader of a decision group is to:
a. suggest good ideas for solving the problem
b. ensure that everybody has equal influence
c. encourage group members to reach an agreement quickly
d. structure the discussion in a systematic manner

Q7. The primary purpose of a dialogue session is to:
a. debate competing proposals and identify the best one for the team
b. help members learn more about each other's interests and aspirations
c. encourage members to express their dissatisfaction with each other openly
d. increase understanding of implicit assumptions and mental models

Q8. What was found in research on the effectiveness of self-managed teams?
a. productivity and quality improved substantially
b. organizational commitment usually increased
c. turnover and absenteeism were lower
d. the results were inconsistent across studies

Q9. Which condition is least important for the success of a new strategy?
a. it is based on the core competencies of the organization
b. it is compatible with significant changes in the external environment
c. it has a few clear themes relevant to the shared values of the members
d. it is similar to a strategy that was previously successful

Q10. Which of the following actions by the CEO is not likely to improve the effectiveness of an executive team?
a. clearly define objectives consistent with shared values of team members
b. talk with individuals whenever possible to reduce time in meetings
c. give the team considerable discretion but specify limits of team authority
d. rely more on advice from members with the most expertise

Q11. Which statement about institutionalization in organizations is most accurate?
a. it describes how subunits with expertise gain power in organizations
b. it makes it easier for organizations to adapt to a changing environment
c. it describes how people use power to gain more power
d. it demonstrates why political tactics are unnecessary to maintain power

Q12. What is the best summary of findings in research on leadership succession?
a. chief executives have little influence on organization performance due to the overwhelming influence of economic and market conditions
b. chief executives have a strong impact on organization performance and are the primary determinant of whether the organization prospers or declines
c. chief executives have a moderate impact on organizational performance when measured over a period of several years
d. chief executives influence stock prices but have little or no influence on the firm's actual economic performance

Q13. What pattern of behavior is least likely during the first few months on the job for the new CEO in an organization that is prosperous?
a. the CEO will quickly select a new strategy and make major changes in the organization to look like a confident and dynamic leader
b. the CEO will make changes in the functional areas in which he or she has the most prior experience
c. the CEO will attempt to demonstrate some small successes in dealing with immediate problems to build a favorable image and gain more discretion
d. the CEO will gather and analyze information about the organization and environment in order to determine an appropriate strategy

Q14. Which of the following was not given as a guideline for external monitoring?
a. examine a wide range of developments and trends in the environment
b. make an extra effort to learn what clients and customers want and need
c. identify both the strengths and weaknesses of competing products
d. rely primarily on your own intuition to analyze the environment

Q15. In what situation are executive teams least likely to be useful?
a. the organization includes several business units with diverse products
b. there is intense competition among executives to become the next CEO
c. the organization has a complex and turbulent environment
d. the executives in the team have very diverse backgrounds and perspectives

Q16. Which is not a core performance determinant in the flexible leadership theory?
a. process reliability and efficiency
b. leader experience and technical skills
c. human resources and relations
d. innovation and adaptation

Q17. Research at CCL indicates that the least amount of learning occurred for managers who had:
a. assignments for which they were well prepared
b. challenges they had to face alone
c. opportunities to make mistakes
d. diverse experiences with different types of challenges

Q18. Which statement about leadership development in organizations is least likely to be accurate:
a. leadership development should be consistent with organization strategy
b. developmental activities should be coordinated with formal training
c. self development activities should be maximized to reduce costs
d. leadership development should be integrated with succession planning

Q19. Which of the following usually includes a mix of formal training and learning from experience working on management projects?
a. mentoring
b. job rotation programs
c. action learning
d. behavior modeling

Q20. Which developmental method is most useful for helping managers to understand their inner feelings and values?
a. outdoor challenge programs
b. personal growth programs
c. mentoring programs
d. multisource feedback workshops

Q21. Which approach is used most often for improving leadership?
a. multi-source feedback workshops
b. formal mentoring programs
c. job rotation programs
d. formal training programs

Q22. What two methods are most useful for improving conceptual skills?
a. case analysis and behavior role modeling
b. feedback workshops and simulations
c. simulations and case analysis
d. behavior role modeling and feedback workshops

Q23. In most feedback workshops for management development, the primary source of information about a manager's behavior is:
a. other managers in the workshop who fill out a checklist
b. observers who record the person's behavior during a simulation
c. observation of a videotape taken of the manager doing regular work
d. questionnaires filled out by people with whom the manager works

Q24. Training programs to enhance leadership skills:
a. are widely used for managers in organizations
b. are seldom used for effective managers
c. are used mostly for department supervisors
d. are used mostly for top executives in large organizations

Q25. Which is least likely to be a reason for the "glass ceiling" in large organizations?
a. differences in leadership behavior displayed by men and women
b. implicit theories about the attributes required for effective leadership
c. popular stereotypes about the skills and traits of men and women
d. less encouragement and developmental opportunities for women

graybeaver288

Question 1

Identify the item below that is not one of the four different types of data processing activities.

		deleting
		reading
		creating
		using

Question 2

All of the following are advantages of an ERP system except

		ERPs permit manufacturing plants to receive new orders in real time.
		in an ERP, data input is captured or keyed once.
		it takes considerable experience and training to use an ERP system effectively.
		ERPs permit management to gain greater visibility into every area of the enterprise.

Question 3

Sam Jones has been the controller of Downtown Tires for 25 years. Ownership of the firm recently changed hands and the new owners are conducting an audit of the financial records. The audit has been unable to reproduce financial reports that were prepared by Sam. While there is no evidence of wrongdoing, the auditors are concerned that the discrepancies might contribute to poor decisions. Which of the following characteristics of useful information is absent in the situation described above?

		relevant
		reliable
		complete
		timely
		understandable
		verifiable
		accessible

Question 4

An ERP system might facilitate the purchase of direct materials by all of the following except

		preparing a purchase order when inventory falls to reorder point.
		routing a purchase order to a purchasing agent for approval.
		communicating a purchase order to a supplier.
		selecting the best supplier by comparing bids.

Question 5

Antia Carmie is the largest collector and retailer of Japanese fans in the St. Louis area. Antia uses computer technology to provide superior customer service. The store's database system was designed to make detailed information about each Japanese fan easily accessible to her customers. Accordingly, the fan price and condition are provided for each fan, along with many pictures of each fan. In Antia's database, the price of the Japanese fans is a(n)

		entity.
		attribute.
		field.
		record.

Question 6

Which of the following is not considered a source document?

		A copy of the company's shipping document.
		A copy of the company's ledger.
		A copy of the company's sales journal.
		A copy of the company's financial statements.

Question 7

In an ERP system, the module used to record data about transactions in the disbursement cycle is called

		financial.
		order to cash.
		customer relationship management.
		purchase to pay.

Question 8

Baggins Incorporated identifies new product development and product improvement as the top corporate goals. An employee developed an innovation that will correct a shortcoming in one of the company's products. Although Baggins current Return on Investment (ROI) is 12%, the product innovation is expected to generate ROI of only 10%. As a result, awarding bonuses to employees based on ROI resulted in

		goal conflict.
		information overload.
		decreased value of information.
		goal congruence.

Question 9

________ are examples of activities that constitute inbound logistics.

		Activities that transform inputs into final products or services
		Activities that provide post-sale support to customers
		Activities that consist of receiving, storing, and distributing the materials used as inputs by the organization to create goods and/or services it sells
		Activities that help customers to buy the organization's products or services

Question 10

In which transaction cycle would information for inventory purchases be most likely to pass between internal and external accounting information systems?

		the revenue cycle
		the expenditure cycle
		the human resources / payroll cycle
		the financing cycle

Question 11

The collection of customer payment is part of which transaction cycle?

		the human resources cycle
		the production cycle
		the revenue cycle
		the expenditure cycle

Question 12

Which of the following is an example of source data automation?

		POS (point-of-sale) scanners in retail stores
		a bill of lading
		a subsidiary ledger
		a utility bill

Question 13

All of the following are guidelines for developing a good coding system except

		be as sophisticated as possible to promote usage.
		be consistent with its intended use.
		be flexible to allow for growth.
		be consistent with the company's organization structure.

Question 14

What is a key decision that needs to be made with regards to borrowing money from lenders?

		the location
		pro forma income statement
		how much capital to acquire
		job descriptions

Question 15

Identify the false statement below.

		A service company does not have an inventory system.
		Retail stores do not have a production cycle.
		Financial institutions have installment-loan cycles.
		Every organization should implement every transaction cycle module.

Question 16

The chart of accounts of a fast-food restaurant would probably include

		a list of customers.
		a list of financial statement accounts.
		a list of vendors.
		a list of employees.

Question 17

Which statement below regarding the AIS is false?

		Traditionally, most AIS have been designed so that both financial and operational data are stored in a manner that facilitates their integration in reports.
		The AIS must be able to provide managers with detailed and operational information about the organization's performance.
		Both traditional financial measures and operational data are required for proper and complete evaluation of performance.
		The AIS was often just one of the information systems used by an organization to collect and process financial and nonfinancial data.

Question 18

In Petaluma, California, electric power is provided to consumers by Pacific Power. Each month Pacific Power mails bills to 186,000 households and then processes payments as they are received. What is the best way for this business to ensure that payment data entry is efficient and accurate?

		well-designed paper forms
		turnaround documents
		source data automation
		sequentially numbered bills

Question 19

Data must be converted into information to be considered useful and meaningful for decision making. There are seven characteristics that make information both useful and meaningful. If the same information can be reproduced by two independent and knowledgeable people, it is representative of the characteristic of

		verifiability.
		truthful.
		relevance.
		reliability.

Question 20

		entity.
		attribute.
		field.
		record.

lilaccod491

QUESTION 1 The knowledge of financial accounting can assist people with decisions such as whether to extend credit to a business. True False 0.2 points Saved QUESTION 2 Employees of a company would not have a reason to use the information provided by financial accounting. True False 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 3 Financial accounting should be used for assessing the financial health of large organizations only. True False 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 4 Financial accounting can be helpful for a job candidate who is assessing the financial future of a potential employer. True False 0.2 points Saved QUESTION 5 Lenders might use the information produced by financial accounting when making loan decisions. True False 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 6 Credit analysts prefer not to use information provided by financial accounting, as it is not accurate. True False 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 7 Financial accounting is helpful to investment advisors. True False 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 8 Financial accounting is more useful than managerial accounting. True False 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 9 The decision to buy or rent equipment is an example of a decision aided by managerial accounting. True False 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 10 Which of the following statements is true of financial accounting? A. It is used by external parties to make investment decisions. B. It is used to make lease or purchase decisions. C. Managerial accounting is another name for financial accounting, D. It is primarily used to make internal decisions of a business. E. The effectiveness of advertising can be judged using financial accounting. 0.2 points Saved QUESTION 11 The charge for using money over time, often associated with long-term loans, is known as: A. interest. B. principal. C. distribution charge. D. cash dividend. E. preferred dividend. 0.2 points Saved QUESTION 12 Which of the following is a common feature of financial and managerial accounting? A. Both have same objectives B. Both are prepared according to U.S. GAAP C. Both are reported at year end in the annual report D. Both are analyzed by external users while making investment decisions E. Both are used by the management in making decisions 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 13 Dividends are required to be paid to stockholders on an annual basis. True False 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 14 An individual who owns one or more shares of stock in a corporation is an owner of that corporation. True False 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 15 Corporations do not exist as separate legal entities apart from their owners. True False 0.2 points Save Answer

QUESTION 16 It is very difficult to buy or sell ownership shares of a corporation in a stock exchange. True False 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 17 Stock markets match up investors who wish to buy shares with those who wish to sell them. True False 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 18 Legal process by which owners of an organization apply to a state government to have it identified as an entity legally separate from its owners is called: A. stocking. B. filling. C. attributing. D. registration. E. incorporation. 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 19 An advantage of ownership in a sole proprietorship over ownership in a corporation is: A. tax benefits. B. having a board of directors. C. the ability to raise capital through issuance of stock. D. separation of owner and business as legal entities. E. limited liability for debts. 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 20 Who hires the management of a corporation? A. Stockholders B. Board of directors C. Creditors D. Government E. SEC 0.2 points Saved QUESTION 21 Inventory refers to the: A. excess amount paid for an asset over its fair value. B. intangible assets of a business. C. merchandise bought or manufactured for the purpose of selling. D. amount of net income reinvested by company for future operations. E. revenue generated from investment. 0.2 points Saved QUESTION 22 Investors use financial information to predict whether a: A. company will recruit more employees. B. company's stock price will increase C. company has invested in buildings. D. company will pay salaries. E. company's bond price will increase. 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 23 Financial accounting can be compared to a portrait. True False 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 24 Financial statements provide the form and structure for the conveyance of financial information that will create a likeness of the reporting organization. True False 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 25 The information reported in financial statements must be exact for an investor to make any decision. True False 0.2 points Saved

beigeant306

MHR 749 Lecture Notes - Lecture 5: Subfactor, Job Evaluation, Job Analysis

Document Summary

Get access

Related Documents

MHR 749 Study Guide - Midterm Guide: Subfactor, Job Evaluation, Paq

MHR 749 Chapter Notes - Chapter 5: Job Evaluation, Equal Pay For Equal Work, Job Analysis

MHR 749 Chapter Notes - Chapter 5: Job Evaluation, Job Analysis

Related Questions