ECON102 Lecture Notes - Lecture 22: Foreign Exchange Market, Core Inflation, Bell System
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Each Federal Reserve Bank is
Answer
| a corporation. | ||
| a government owned enterprise. | ||
| a government subsidized entity. | ||
| a government-sponsored enterprise. |
A transaction in which the Fed agrees to buy a security one day and sell it back the next day is
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| an overnight securitization operation. | ||
| a repurchase agreement. | ||
| a legal tender. | ||
| a rebate sale. |
The Federal Reserve document that states the goals of the FOMC and the target for the federal funds rate is known as the
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| Directive. | ||
| Beige book. | ||
| Bluebook. | ||
| Green book. |
How long is the normal term in office for a Governor of the Federal Reserve Board?
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| Five years | ||
| Seven years | ||
| Fourteen years | ||
| Life |
The federal funds rate is the interest rate on
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| loans to banks from the Fed. | ||
| loans by banks to the Fed. | ||
| short-term loans between banks. | ||
| Treasury bills. |
Expenditures of each Federal Reserve Bank are approved by
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| the U.S. Senate. | ||
| the President of the United States. | ||
| the U.S. Treasury Department. | ||
| the Federal Reserve Board of Governors. |
Federal Reserve Banks pay for their central banking operations through
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| government tax revenue. | ||
| interest on the securities they own. | ||
| fees charged to banks that use their services. | ||
| dividends paid by local banks. |
When the Fed engages in open-market operations, the transactions are conducted by
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| the Open Market Desk at the Federal Reserve Bank of New York. | ||
| the Open Market Desk at the Federal Reserve Board in Washington, D.C. | ||
| the National Bureau of Economic Research. | ||
| the Federal Open Market Committee. |
In 2006, Chairman Greenspan left the Fed because
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| President Bush wanted him to resign. | ||
| he reached mandatory retirement age. | ||
| his term as Governor expired. | ||
| his term as Chairman expired. |
The Federal Reserve publication that discusses forecasts for the economy is known as the
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| Redbook. | ||
| Beigebook. | ||
| Bluebook. | ||
| Greenbook. |
The FOMC directive
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| describes forecasts for the economy. | ||
| states the target for the federal funds rate. | ||
| discusses the regional economies around the country. | ||
| shows the Fed's balance sheet. |
The chairman of the Federal Reserve Board who reduced the inflation rate from over 10 percent to about 3 percent in the early 1980s was
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| Arthur Burns. | ||
| G. William Miller. | ||
| Paul Volcker. | ||
| Alan Greenspan. |
Which Fed chairman ensured the independence of the Federal Reserve in the 1950s?
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| William McChesney Martin | ||
| Arthur Burns | ||
| Paul Volcker | ||
| G. William Miller |
There are ____ Federal Reserve Banks.
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| seven | ||
| ten | ||
| twelve | ||
| fifteen |
Purchases and sales of government securities in the secondary market are known as
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| discount borrowing and lending. | ||
| federal funds purchases and sales. | ||
| discounting. | ||
| open-market operations. |
The monetary base can be divided into
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| currency plus transactions deposits. | ||
| vault cash plus reserves held at the Fed. | ||
| required clearing balances plus currency. | ||
| reserves plus currency. |
The Fed does not generally change reserve requirements to affect the money supply because
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| the impact is too large. | ||
| the Fed needs the approval of Congress to do so. | ||
| it's not legal for the Fed to do so. | ||
| the Fed needs the approval of the President of the United States to do so. |
The Fed has decided to tighten monetary policy, so it decreases the money supply through
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| defensive open-market operations. | ||
| dynamic open-market operations. | ||
| reduced discount loans for profit. | ||
| reduced discount loans for business needs. |
A haircut is
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| the extra collateral the Fed requires above the value of a discount loan. | ||
| the extra principal a commercial bank requires the Fed to pay when making a discount loan. | ||
| the difference between what an investor pays for a bond and what the investor sells the bond for. | ||
| expected personal grooming for a member of the Board of Governors. |
Currency held by the nonbank public plus banks' vault cash plus banks' deposits at the Fed equals
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| the Fed's capital stock. | ||
| discount loans. | ||
| the monetary base. | ||
| required clearing balances. |
The extra collateral the Fed requires above the value of a discount loan is known as
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| the term premium. | ||
| a haircut. | ||
| a covenant. | ||
| secondary credit. |
Currency held by the nonbank public plus banks' reserves equals
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| the Fed's capital stock. | ||
| discount loans. | ||
| the monetary base. | ||
| required clearing balances. |
The money supply divided by the monetary base equals
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| the reserve ratio. | ||
| velocity. | ||
| high-powered money. | ||
| the money multiplier. |
The main liability on the Federal Reserve's balance sheet is
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| discount loans. | ||
| securities. | ||
| monetary base. | ||
| capital. |
A bank in good condition may take out a loan without the Fed questioning the purpose or nature of the loan. Such a loan is known as
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| a no documentation discount loan. | ||
| a haircut. | ||
| a covenant. | ||
| a primary credit discount loan. |
If the Open-Market Desk at the Fed buys securities when the federal funds rate is below the primary credit discount rate, the most likely effect is that the
Answer
| federal funds rate decreases. | ||
| primary credit discount rate decreases. | ||
| primary credit discount rate increases. | ||
| federal funds rate increases. |
In November and December, people use more currency than usual, so the Fed increases the money supply through
Answer
| defensive open-market operations. | ||
| dynamic open-market operations. | ||
| discount loans for profit. | ||
| discount loans for business needs. |
Reserves held by banks at the Fed that earn implicit interest payments in the form of earnings credits for Fed services are known as
Answer
| required clearing balances. | ||
| reserve requirements. | ||
| excess reserves. | ||
| non-transaction deposits. |
Required clearing balances
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| pay interest in the form of earnings credits. | ||
| count as reserves and can be used to meet reserve requirements. | ||
| pay interest equal to the federal funds rate minus one percent. | ||
| are required to be held against transactions deposits. |
| Q1. The total resource cost of goods and services produced by the U. S. economy is known as a. real GDP b. personal income c. national wealth d. national income Q2. The difference between GDP and final sales equals a. depreciation b. exports c. imports d. net inventory change Q3. Current disposable income can be adjusted for price changes and population changes to yield real per capita disposable income. a. true b. false Q4. If a lawn service mows your grass, it is included in the GDP. a. true b. false Q5. In national income accounting, grain fed to a hog at a commercial hog farm is considered a(n) a. final good b. intermediate good c. consumer good d. capital consumption allowance Q6. Imports constitute a minus figure in national income accounting. a. true b. false Q7. The total value added in the production of a final good a. exceeds the price of the final good b. equals the price of the final good c. exceeds the total payments made to owners of productive resources used in the production d. both (b) and (c) Q8. The GDP is reported on a monthly basis by the Department of Commerce. a. true b. false Q9. Transfer payments are added to NI in the process of determining personal income. a. true b. false Q10. U.S. gross domestic product is converted to U.S. gross national product by a. adding the value of output produced by U.S.-owned resources in foreign countries b. subtracting the value of output produced by U.S.-owned resources in foreign countries c. subtracting the value of output produced in the United States by foreign-owned resources d. both (a) and (c) Q11. Final sales are always larger than the GDP. a. true b. false Q12. Because of the value of things produced inside households, (building your own desk, mowing your own lawn, etc.) a. the GDP value is automatically adjusted upward to reflect this b. the GDP value is automatically adjusted downward to reflect this c. Official GDP is surely smaller than true total output d. Official GDP is surely larger than true total output Q13. A government surplus may trigger a decline in the money supply. a. true b. false Q14. Real wages are determined by multiplying money wages by the CPI. a. true b. false Q15. The more volatile the inflation rate, the weaker the money supply as a standard of deferred payment. a. true b. false Q16. An increase in the money supply always causes an increase in the price level. a. true b. false Q17. Your nominal wages rose during the same period from $200 a week to $260. By how much did your real income rise? a. 30 percent b. 16.7 percent c. 8.33 percent d. 12 percent Q18. In the past 10 years or so, average real wages of U.S. workers in nonagricultural industries have a. increased about 40 percent b. increased slightly c. remained about the same d. declined Q19. If a new cash deposit creates excess reserves of $5,000 and the required reserve ratio is 10 percent, the banking system can increase the money supply by a maximum of a. $50,000 b. $500 c. $5,000 d. $4,500 Q20. The effect of a change in the money supply on economic activity may be offset by a change in velocity. a. true b. false Q21. The current base period for the CPI is a. 1967 b. 1977 c. 1982â1984 d. 1990 Q22. In the circular flow, an increase in the money supply tends to result when a. planned I equals planned S b. planned I is less than planned S c. planned I is greater than planned S d. there is a surplus government budget Q23. COLA is a form of indexation. a. true b. false Q24. The total checkable deposits a bank may have can be determined by dividing its reserves by the reserve requirement. a. true b. false Q25. The Financial Services Modernization Act a. reinforced the Glass Steagall Act b. prevented mergers of banks c. eliminated barriers between banks, brokerage houses, and insurance companies d. eliminated all banking regulations Q26. Each Federal Reserve Bank has its own board of directors. a. true b. false Q27. The most frequently used tool of U.S. monetary policy is a. the discount rate b. the reserve requirement c. open-market operations d. moral suasion Q28. When the Fed conducts open-market operations, it primarily uses a. Treasury bills b. long-term U.S. government bonds c. bonds of publicly traded corporations d. overnight loans of major banks Q29. The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System has a. 6 members b. 7 members c. 1 member from each Federal Reserve Bank d. 20 members Q30. If the Fed desires to increase checkable deposits, it may lower the reserve requirement. a. true b. false Q31. The interest rate at which banks borrow excess reserves from each other is known as the a. prime rate b. federal funds rate c. discount rate d. T-bill rate Q32. If member banks need to borrow reserves, they must do so through the discount window. a. true b. false Q33. The Fed Chairman appears before Congress semi-annually to present the Monetary Policy Report. a. true b. false Q34. In terms of the total number of payments, which of the following comprises the largest share? a. cash b. personal checks c. debit cards d. credit cards Q35. By buying government securities, the Federal Open Market Committee adds to member banks' reserves. a. true b. false Q36. More than 50 percent of commercial banks in the United States belong to the Federal Reserve System. a. true b. false Q37. The Federal Reserve System is built around a. 4 regional banks b. 6 regional banks c. 12 district banks d. 1 bank with several branches Q38. The time lags lead monetarists to contend that monetary policy is counterproductive. a. true b. false Q39. The marginal propensity to consume is a. the fraction of an increase in income that would be spent on consumer goods b. the additional desire people have for consumer goods c. the fraction of a person's total income normally spent for consumer goods d. the change in consumption resulting from a $1 change in the price level Q40. The consumption function shows a. how fast the economy is consuming its capital b. that the amount of national income determines the rate at which the economy consumes its resources c. that households' incomes determine how much the households will spend for consumer goods d. the rate at which people actually use up their consumer goods Q41. In the simple Keynesian model, if output exceeds aggregate expenditures, a. there will be no response from businesses b. inventories will decrease and businesses will increase output c. inventories will increase and businesses will increase output d. inventories will increase and businesses will decrease output Q42. If planned construction investment increases by $30 billion and the MPC is two-thirds, total output will increase by a. $30 billion b. $20 billion c. $45 billion d. $90 billion Q43. "A given change in business investment will cause a larger change in equilibrium output." This statement describes an important Keynesian concept called the a. multiplier effect b. marginal propensity to consume c. marginal propensity to invest d. consumption function Q44. In the multiplier formula, 1/MPS equals the multiplier. a. true b. false Q45. The classical economists held that chronic unemployment was likely. a. true b. false Q46. As income increases, the absolute level of planned consumption will increase. a. true b. false Q47. The new classical school contends that government fiscal policy is better than monetary policy in controlling inflation. a. true b. false Q48. Higher price levels are associated with lower aggregate expenditure at every level of income. a. true b. false Q49. Any time that planned leakages exceed planned injections, the economy will expand. a. true b. false Q50. According to the Keynesian model, increased foreign spending for U.S. goods is likely to a. reduce total employment in the United States b. increase total employment in the foreign country c. reduce total output in the United States d. increase total output in the United States |
