RLG206H5 Lecture 6: buddhism lec6 notes

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salmongrasshopper206

14 Feb 2012

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**mid-term next week check blackboard for mid term test guideline. In the 4th century we have accounts by chinese buddhist monks. If the way of the buddha the greatest why did yao, shun and the duke of chou not know about. Just because buddhism isn t mentioned doesn t mean that it doesn t have value. The five relationships: ruler-subject, father- son ( parent responsible to take care of children, children responsible for respecting parents, husband-wife (husband take care of wife, wife cook food, clean etc, older brother-younger brother, friend-friend. Everyone understands their roles in these relationships we will have a perfect harmonious society. If you re a child do not assume the role of a parent obey your parents. He argued that the wife has to make 3 meals a day wash clothes, etc. that s your job as a wife.

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Competition police crossing continents

Competition authorities are increasingly reaching beyond their country's borders

Feb 22^nd, 2014

WHEN TWO AMERICAN presidents, Theodore Roosevelt and William Howard Taft, embarked on a trustbusting mission a century ago, they were taking government into a new policy area: competition. Industrialization was still relatively new, and any monopolies that had emerged, such as the British and Dutch East India companies, had been created by governments.

The robber-baron companies of the late 19th century were accused of using their industrial muscle to drive competitors out of business. Private monopolies, the argument ran, diminished the benefits of capitalism; by definition, the existence of a monopoly made it impossible for a free market to operate.

Since then, governments have generally had some kind of competition policy, though not necessarily a coherent one. Politicians have tried to juggle several different priorities, among them putting the government in control of "strategic" industries (a category that has always included defense but often also a range of other industries, from airlines to car manufacturing, power generation, and telecoms); shielding domestic businesses from foreign ownership or competition, and protecting consumers from price-gouging.

In the past two decades, a new concern has emerged: that monopolies may be restricting innovation. The technology industry seems to have been particularly prone to creating near-monopolies, from Microsoft in software to Amazon in retailing and Google in an internet search. This is due to network effects. Consumers gravitate to the dominant technology, either because it offers more products or because many of their friends are already using the network concerned. These monopolists, it is feared, will be slow to introduce new technologies that might cannibalize their existing business; and they will be so entrenched that new competitors will find it hard to get a foothold.

Microsoft bundled its Internet Explorer browser with its dominant Windows operating software on personal computers. America's Department of Justice saw this as an attempt to force Netscape, a rival browser, out of the market. In a long court case that began in 1998, Microsoft was initially ordered to break itself in two. This ruling was overturned on appeal and a less onerous settlement was arrived at.

At the time many commentators felt that the authorities had overreached themselves. Internet Explorer was provided free of charge, so it was hard to see how consumers were being harmed. But this is a tricky area. On the one hand, rapid technological change can cause once-dominant companies to lose their position very quickly if they do not adapt; look at Nokia's and BlackBerry's mobile-phone businesses. Some argue that if the market is capable of such adjustment, governments should not get involved. The fact that some consumers make the wrong decision some of the time is not the basis for intervention, as long as all consumers are not being ripped off, says Simon Bishop of RBB Economics, a consultancy. On the other hand, such rapid change makes it hard to tell whether monopoly positions are being exploited, or whether a more competitive market would have produced more innovations.

Competition authorities have also had to rethink their role in cross-border deals. If one multinational takes over another, that might not create a monopoly in the country where the two groups have their headquarters, but it could do so in another country. A proposal for a merger between General Electric and Honeywell, announced in October 2000, was cleared by America's Department of Justice but blocked by the European Commission the following year. That objection appeared to herald a new era of transatlantic takeover disputes; in fact, it remains the only deal so far to have been cleared in America but blocked on the other side of the Atlantic.

However, there have been other instances of transatlantic disputes. In 2009 the European Commission imposed a 1.06 billion ($1.4 billion) fine on Intel, a chipmaker, after a complaint brought by an American rival, AMD. The ruling seemed to suggest that multinationals faced the prospect of double jeopardy because of inconsistent international rules.

We do it our way

There are some philosophical differences between Europe and America. Europe has a long tradition of state ownership of industry; even after privatization, many such companies retain dominant positions, at least in their national markets. In America, by contrast, market leaders have got there the hard way, by having superior technology or being more efficient. In Europe competition policy tends to be rules-based, with the European Commission issuing guidance for future mergers to follow; in America merger decisions tend to be hammered out in the courts, establishing legal precedent.

But multinationals also have to deal with competition policy in emerging markets. China is a particular challenge. The Chinese use competition policy to achieve other ends to keep out foreign firms or attack existing foreign businesses says, one expert. Latin American countries have tended to adopt the American model of competition policy, whereas eastern Europe has followed the example. Merger authorities from different countries have set up the International Competition Network to share the experience. Such efforts may reduce the double-jeopardy problems in international mergers, if only because rules may be applied more consistently.

In the longer term, the question is whether national competition policies will prove adaptable enough to cope with a globalized economy. It may make economic sense for global companies to exploit economies of scale and bring down prices for consumers, but national governments may be reluctant to accept the loss of control involved. In air travel, for example, fares have been reduced under pressure from low-cost airlines, but these newcomers are still being held back by policies that favor flagship carriers. If regulators in rich countries were to prove more zealous than their counterparts in emerging markets in restricting the size of multinationals, Western firms might be put at a competitive disadvantage.

New concerns for competition authorities are emerging all the time. Chris Walters, the acting chief economist of Britain's Office of Fair Trading (OFT), cites the practice of pay-for-delay, whereby a firm that holds a drug patent pays a generic manufacturer not to launch a rival drug to preserve the patent-holders monopoly profits. And David Currie, the chairman of the Competition and Markets Authority (which will take over from the OFT in April), recently pointed to a vast new potential problem, which he described as the growing collection, processing, and use of consumer-transaction data for commercial ends. This is proving an increasingly important source of competitive advantage; we need to be alert to the possibility that it will be an increasing source of consumer detriment.

aquamarinemoose208

1. Marketing traditionally has been divided into a set of fourinterrelated decisions known as the marketing mix, or four Ps,including all of the following EXCEPT:
A. product
B. place
C. performance
D. promotion
E. price

2. Marketers want their firms to develop efficient operationsbecause this kind of efficiency:
A. usually leads to lower prices or greater pricingflexibility.
B. allows the firm to offer greater value to customers.
C. makes it easier to get the products customers want to them whenthey want them.
D. can lead to more attractive margins.
E. All of these

3. The Ethical Decision-Making Framework includes all of thefollowing steps EXCEPT:
A. identify issues.
B. promote the firm's corporate social responsibilityefforts.
C. gather information and identify stakeholders.
D. brainstorm and evaluate alternatives.
E. choose a course of action.

4. The centerpiece of the Marketing Environment Analysis Frameworkis:
A. green marketing.
B. corporate partners.
C. culture.
D. competitive intelligence.
E. consumers.

5. Most "big box" retailers regularly move products from one aisleto another. They also put personal care products in the pharmacyarea, many aisles away from the grocery products. They do thisbecause consumers who spend more time walking through the store arelikely to make:
A. impulse purchases.
B. limited problem solving decisions.
C. extended problem solving decisions.
D. ritual consumption purchases.
E. affective alternative decisions.

6. Edward, the leading salesperson for Harry's Honda dealership,began hearing customers asking for hybrid automobiles several yearsago. Edward alerted Harry, and Harry pre-ordered many Honda hybridsbefore they became available. In this case, the source of needrecognition was:
A. trade show demonstrations.
B. ads in trade journals.
C. customers.
D. the Internet.
E. suppliers.

7. One of the reasons marketers use loyalty segmentation is:
A. the high cost of finding new customers.
B. government tax incentives for loyalty.
C. accounting difficulties associated with identifying newcustomers.
D. rapid population increases.
E. the failure of micromarketing as a workable strategy.

8. Matt was passionate about Abercrombie & Fitch. It was theonly place he'd buy his clothes. If anyone asked him about clothes,he would talk for what seemed like hours about why he only shoppedthere. From a strictly marketing perspective, this word of mouth ispart of:
A. social insistence.
B. brand loyalty.
C. self-actualization.
D. motivation.
E. brand extension.

9. When Procter & Gamble added teeth whitening products underthe Crest brand, the firm was engaged in:
A. corporate branding.
B. brand extension.
C. brand licensing.
D. brand association.
E. perceived value branding.

10. By the time BMW and Mercedes Benz entered the mini-SUV market,there were many competitors, sales had peaked, and profits weredeclining. These firms entered the market during the ______________stage of the product life cycle.
A. introduction
B. leveling
C. maturity
D. growth
E. decline

11. By providing good customer service, firms __________ theirproducts or services.
A. eliminate the communication gap for
B. add value to
C. reduce the zone of tolerance for
D. reduce the empowerment cost associated with
E. increase the perishability of

12. Collecting information at the point of sale is astraightforward and inexpensive way to assess service quality, butthis approach will NOT be useful if:
A. customers cannot assess service quality, as in the case of oilchange or maintenance check.
B. decision-making managers do not get the results of thefeedback.
C. the person who rendered poor service is the same personcollecting the information.
D. customers are rushed and don't take the time to assess theservice.
E. All of these.

13. Ryan gave the manager of his convenience store a set ofbinoculars so she could see the gasoline prices charged by theother convenience store at that intersection. Ryan told the managerto always match the gasoline prices of the other store. Ryan isusing a _____________________ pricing strategy.
A. maximizing profits
B. target profit
C. target return
D. status quo
E. sales

14. At the break-even point:
A. costs are zero.
B. price is maximized.
C. profits are zero.
D. fixed costs are zero.
E. contribution per unit is zero.

15. For marketers to advertise a price as their ______________, theBetter Business Bureau recommends that at least 50 percent of thesales of a product occur at that price.
A. fixed price
B. zone price
C. regular price
D. leader price
E. cost-based price

16. Brenda is working on an automated re-ordering system which willelectronically re-order inventory for her shoe store as purchasesare made. Brenda is working on a supply chain management systemthat will:
A. provide products at the right time.
B. provide products at the right locations.
C. provide the right quantities.
D. minimize system-wide costs.
E. all of these.

17. A manufacturer of high-end products might consider sellingproducts in a warehouse club if:
A. there are no high-end shopping centers within a 100-mile radiusof the warehouse club.
B. the warehouse club has a good reputation.
C. the manufacturer is trying to increase market share.
D. the manufacturer overestimated demand or has a great deal ofreturned merchandise from other retailers.
E. the warehouse club wants to upgrade its image.

18. Because of the way _______________ buy merchandise, customerscan never be confident that the same merchandise will be in stockeach time they visit the store.
A. department stores
B. off-price retailers
C. discount stores
D. downstream value stores
E. category specialist stores

19. The basic goal of integrated marketing communications isto:
A. communicate the value proposition to the target market.
B. create desire.
C. manipulate consumers.
D. outspend competitors.
E. tell the world about your company.

20. The sender of an integrated marketing communication:
A. must work with the advertising specialists to ensure allrecipients interpret the message accurately.
B. can assess the manner in which receivers interpret the messagethrough gross rating points.
C. has little control over what meaning any individual receiverwill take from the message.
D. controls the meaning all receivers take from the message.
E. generally uses a rule-of-thumb interpretation index.

21. In the AIDA model:
A. advertising leads to interest, which hopefully leads to desireand then, action.
B. awareness leads to integration, which hopefully leads to desireand then, action.
C. awareness leads to interest, which hopefully leads to desire andthen, action.
D. awareness leads to interest, which hopefully leads to desire andthen, attention.
E. awareness leads to interest, which hopefully leads todetermination and then, action.

22. When Microsoft introduces a new version of its Windowsoperating system, it typically uses selected magazine, Internet,and direct mail advertising. This combination of advertisingoutlets represents Microsoft's:
A. niche buy.
B. advertising plan.
C. media mix.
D. track testing.
E. supply chain messaging.

23. _____________ advertising has the advantages of being highlytargeted and offering opportunities for personalization.
A. Television
B. Radio
C. Direct mail
D. Outdoor
E. Newspaper

24. In the United States, the regulation of advertising involves acomplex mix of laws and informal restrictions designed to:
A. protect consumers from deceptive practices.
B. stimulate domestic demand.
C. reduce international competition.
D. promote social marketing.
E. institutionalize pull strategies.

25. _________________ is a sales philosophy and process thatemphasizes a commitment to maintaining and investing in long-term,mutually beneficial business relationships.
A. Organizational buying
B. Cold calling
C. Psychographic selling
D. Relationship selling
E. Sales management

blushdolphin201

Q37 Research indicates more than 90 % of the deaths occur in older adult 65 and older due to lack of appropriate immunizations on which annual vaccination should the nurse first instruct the patient?

A Pneumonia

B Varicella

C TDAP

D influenza

Q38 which strategies of care would be least likely to enhance the physical function of older adult choose? Choose 2 answers

A weight control

B hearing and vision screening

C smoking cessation

D illness management

E forcing them to attend all activities

Q39 what are common risk factors that contribute to functional decline in the older adult population?

A physical inactivity

B tobacco use

C low sodium dietary intake

D having small families

Q40 what principle is least related to promoting health and preventing certain disabilities in older adults?

A continue activities of daily life (ADLs)

B Maintain as active a lifestyle as possible and desired

C Monitor illnesses through annual health screening ( AHS)

D keep up on assistive and information technology and other tools

Q41 Which focusing on the psychosocial needs of older adults, authorVirginia satir recommends that Healthcare providers get back to the basic communication. whatare the five basic principles satir describes?

A invite

B follow through

C respect personal space

D maximize understanding

E Arrange environment

F maximize attention levels

G trust

H maximize communication

Q42 how do electronic health records facilitate better care coordination? Choose 2 answers

A saving time typing rather than writing

B increasing the accuracy of diagnosis and health outcomes

C preventing an increase in the number of medical errors

D improving communication among health providers

Q43 Rick a 91 year old male, hasa history of chronic otitis media and is experiencing mild hearing loss in hisright ear,what type of assistive technology would Rick use to improve communicative function?

A icon communication board

B behind the ear ( BTE) hearing aid

C Augmentive and alternative communication ( AAC)

D completely in the canal ( CIC) hearing aid

Q 44 An elderly patient has suffered a stroke and is currently in the process of transitioning out of the hospital and into an assisted living facility. The patient's primary diffulty after the stroke is dealing with dysarthria, whichhas limited the patient's ability to speak. whatcommunication technology would appropriately promote an optimal transition of care for the patient?

A an over the ear (OTE) hearing aid

B an augmentation and alternative communication ( AAC) device

C an assistive listening device ( ALD)

D an analog technology to amplify sound

Q45 what must the nurse inform the patient and family or caregivers about assistive devices? Choose 2 answers

A may lessen the importance of ongoing communication with healthcare providers.

B they may result in complete recovery from chronic illness

C they may limit complications of an illness or disability.

D they may enable independent performance and reduce risk of injury.

Q46 An 81 year old Patient has multiple chronic conditions including uncontrolled hypertension and peripheral artery disease and agrees to try assertive devices for monitoring blood pressure and improving circulation provided by a home health agency. Choose 2 answers

A allowing the patient enough time and opportunity for repetition

B only presenting the most relevant content to the patient.

C refraining from suggesting mnemonic devices to Aid the patients use of Technology

D having an outside educator provide several hours of detailed device instructions

Q47 A goal of the National Health Initiative healthy people 2010 is to increase the quality and extend the years of healthy life. What are two ways that this initiative can achieve its goal? Choose 2 answers

A by pressuring older adults who are lonely to move to nursing homes at younger ages

B By encouraging people to have more children so that the children can help their parents as they grow older

C by helping people overcome views of denial and foreboding as old age approaches

D by trying to spread the view that aging is natural and need not include illness and disease

Q48 match each government program with its description. Answer options may be used more than once or not at all

A provide health insurance for low-income families

B bases basic benefits on a workers average indexed monthly earnings in covered employment

C offers a payment system for long-term care ( LTC) foreligible older Americans and persons with disabilities

D is the health insurance program for those 65 or other people with disabilities

Q49 a senior is being cared for by her daughter. The daughter works a full-time job and is only able to care for her mother before she goes to work. On her lunch break, andafter she gets off work. thesenior expresses to a nurse that she gets lonely during the day and sometimes cannot perform tasks by herself.which community resource should the nurse recommend looking into?

A a local Health Clinic

B Day Care Services for Seniors

C a medication assistance program

D Meals on Wheels.

Q50 the Independence at home demonstration was created by the Affordable Care Act. Which statement is true regarding Primary Care teams participating in this initiative?

A the teams are led by a licensed administrator

B the teams must serve at least 500 Medicare beneficiaries.

C the teams be led by a physician.

D the teams can be lead by a nurse practitioner.

Q51 which important facts about Medicare should nurses know? Choose 2 answers

A Medicare requires income assessment in order to qualify for coverage

B Medicare cover assisted living services for Americans in extreme poverty.

C Medicare recipients range from those simply needing Wellness services to those who are profoundly Frail.

D Medicare covers certain disabled Americans who have not reached age eligibility.

Q52 what is a common preventable error that can occur during the transition of care for older adults?

A unhelpful Hospital staff B inaccurate medication reconciliation.

C disorganized dosing schedule

D lost nursing equipment.

Q53 how is communication further facilitated? Choose 2 answers

A through communication to between and among the patients family caregivers and health care providers

B through active engagement of patients and family caregivers with a focus on meeting the patients goals

C through reliance on use of text messages that are less disruptive to the patient and family.

D through Healthcare Providers conversing with the patient and allowing the patient speak with the family.

Q54 what are appropriate evaluation measures related to successful transitions of care? Choose 2 answers

A emotional and social domains of quality of life.

B all clinical indicators related to Chronic conditions.

C functional status

D exclusion of nursing sensitive measures.

Q55 a critical competency in geriatric nursing is the ability to assess family knowledge of the skills necessary in the care of older adults. What Broad caregiver competencies are included in this assessment?

A knowing the science behind the scenes of geriatrics

B allowing the active participation of the patient in all aspects of care.

C balancing the patient autonomy with safety

D knowing how to safely start an IV.

Q56 what Communications techniques promote safe transition of care in patients with aphasia?

A respond in the affirmative when a question is asked

B speak softer so as to never have a harsh tone

C give the patient time to speak

D use non-verbal gestures to communicate.

Q57 what roles of the nurse protect the patient from harm in a care transition?

A symptom manager,educator, collaborator, carecoordinator.

B medication manager screener educator listener

C liasson with Hospital decision maker collaborator coordinator

D decision maker Symptom Manager care coordinator.

Q58 which statements are true regarding health-related quality of life? Choose 2 answers

A cannot be measured in persons with chronic illness

B is measured by and object Observer, basedon the number of times an individual emits both verbal signs of happiness and well-being

C is measured by individuals perceived healthy days per month.

D can be measured by an instrument developed by the center of Disease Control (CDC)

Q59 several options are available as a care approaches to chronic illness care. Which method best describes palliative care?

A care that is only delivered by family or other personal caregivers

B end-of-life care that suspends active treatment

C a combination of active treatment and comfort measures

D a continued focus on here rather than comfort and quality of life.

Q60 A nurse caring for people at the end of their lives knows that Dysnea is relatively common and interferes with patients'comfort and rest. What is the evidence based intervention for shortness of breath?

A liquid morphine at starting dose of 10 mg every 4 hours and titrating dose upward until dyspnea is relieved.

B administer O2 at least 5 liters per minute

C 5 mg of liquid morphine every 4 hours,along with lorazepam 0.5-2.0 mg every 4-6 hours PRN for anxiety and restlessness.

D elevate the head of the bed no more than 20 degrees.

Q61 what do dying persons typically experience grief over?

A loss of bodily function and independence that occurs as illness becomes more prevalent

B loss ability to give and receive love

C loss of basic beliefs,values and faith.

D the feeling that nobody cares that the person is dying.

Q62 which of the following is often the biggest barrier to overcome in crucial conversations to death and dying?

A mistrust of healthcare providers

B lack of energy

C societal attitudes about death

D cost of care

Q63 The End of life Nursing Education consortium (ELNEC) is a resource targeted to nurse providing end of life care that supports evidence based care of dying patients and their families,as well as self care that lessens stress and anxiety and sustains nurse in providing excellent end of life care. Which of the following are self care principles? Choose 2 answers

A maintaining professional boundaries and relationships with patients and families, by tightly controlling feelings and empathy

B. Making good use of the expertise and support of the interprofessional care team

C. Diminishing attention on maintaining an active personal life since end-of-life care is a callings of sorts

D. Developing expertise in symptom management, which not only helps patients and their families, but increases satisfaction and lessens anxiety among professional caregivers

Q64. In addition to a living will, advanced directives may also include a durable power of attorney that encompasses health care related decision making. Which two of the following are accurate so statements regarding the legal instrument known as the durable power of attorney?

A. The alternative decision maker must be a close relative of a dying persons in order to understand his or her wishes.

B. It allows for an alternative decision maker in the event that the dying persons is incapacitated and no longer able to make health care decision

C. The living will remains a useful tool in providing direction to the alternate decision maker.

D. A durable power of attorney for health care decision also enables the alternative decision maker to also handle finances and other legal matters.

RLG206H5 Lecture 6: buddhism lec6 notes

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