Biology 1001A Lecture Notes - Lecture 4: Metaphase, Dna Replication, Mitosis

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2 Dec 2012

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Organelles (eukaryotes, prokaryotes) dna replication (ensure stability of genetic material) Bacterial cell cycle: binary fission actively partitioned into daughter cells. Stem cells: cells that are found in all tissues; haematopoietic stem cells (found in bone marrow) Dna division: multiple origins and firing simultaneously more catalysts eukaryotic polymerases are slow. G1 checkpoint: check of mutation and dna repair. G2 checkpoint: are we ready to undergo mitosis?". Metaphase checkpoint: checkpoints ensure cells fix dna and are ready to divide; ensuring daughter cells get amount of chromsomes.

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QUESTION 1. Choose the true statement about prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA replication.

A.Eukaryotic DNA replication involves less protein factors than does prokaryotic DNA replication.

B. Prokaryotic DNA polymerases replicate DNA 5' to 3', while eukaryotic DNA polymerases replicate DNA 3' to 5'.

C. Eukaryotic DNA replication begins at multiple origins of replication, while prokaryotic DNA replication begins at a single origin of replication.

D. Prokaryotic genomes take longer to replicate than eukaryotic genomes.

QUESTION 2. Bacterial cells use DNA replication to:

A. make back-up copies of their genome in case of a mutation.

B. manifest multiple phenotypes at once.

C. copy their genetic material prior to binary fission.

D. build functional proteins.

QUESTION 3. Choose the true statement about the genetic code.

A. A cell's mRNA code is read four nucleotides at a time to specify a single amino acid.

B. The genetic code encodes 64 amino acids, one for each of the 64 corresponding codons.

C. The genetic code is redundant, with multiple codons specifying a single amino acid.

D. The genetic code varies widely among organisms, with each having a different set of codons for a corresponding amino acid.

QUESTION 4. Of the following enzymes, which are correctly matched with their function? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all correctly matched statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.

A. Helicase, relieves torsion stress as DNA unwinds

B. Ligase, covalently bonds adjacent Okazaki fragments

C. Primase, removes RNA primers

D. DNA polymerase III, builds most of the DNA on the leading and lagging strand

QUESTION 5. Which of the following contributes to DNA replication accuracy? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all true statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.

A. The capacity to proofread improves DNA replication accuracy.

B. A slow rate of DNA replication contributes to accuracy.

C. The use of primase improves DNA replication accuracy.

D. DNA replication accuracy is improved thanks to complementary base pairing rules.

In addition to identifying the genetic material, the experiments of Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty with different strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae demonstrated that

	DNA is a double helix.
	DNA may be taken up by bacterial cells and be active.
	DNA is present in bacteriophage T2.
	eukaryotic cells may be genetically transformed.
	DNA binds to the cell wall of the bacterium.

In order to show that DNA in cell extracts is responsible for genetic transformation in Streptococcus pneumoniae, important corroborating evidence should indicate that _______ also destroy transforming activity.

	temperatures high enough to kill cells
	enzymes that hydrolyze proteins
	enzymes that hydrolyze DNA
	enzymes that hydrolyze polysaccharides
	enzymes that hydrolyze RNA

Based on what you have learned about the experiments conducted by Griffith and Avery and colleagues with bacteria, which of the following would result in transformation of living R cells?

	Pure RNA from S cells
	Cell-membrane extracts from S cells
	A mixture of pure RNA and protein from S cells
	Cell-free extracts from S cells
	Pure protein from S cells

A-T base pairs in a DNA double helix

	form three hydrogen bonds with each other.
	are more heat-stable than G-C base pairs.
	are of a substantially different length than G-C base pairs.
	are not accessible to DNA binding proteins.
	are chemically distinct from G-C base pairs.

If 23 percent of the bases in a sample of double-stranded DNA are adenine, what percentage of the bases are uracil?

	27
	50
	0
	73
	23

The uniform diameter of the DNA structure provides evidence for

	antiparallel DNA strands.
	a right-handed helix.
	a double-stranded helix.
	3â² end phosphorylation.
	purineâpyrimidine pairing.

If a sequence of one strand of DNA is 5â²-TGACTATC-3â², what is the complementary strand?

	5â²-ACTGATAG-3â²
	3â²-TGACTATC-5â²
	3â²-ACTGATAG-5â²
	3â²-ACTGATAG-3â²
	5â²-TGACTATC-3â²

What structural aspect of the DNA facilitates dissociation of the two DNA strands for replication?

	3â² end phosphorylation
	Purineâpyrimidine pairing
	Antiparallel DNA strands
	Covalent bonds between sugars and phosphate groups
	Hydrogen bonding between paired bases

If the MeselsonâStahl density gradient experiment had resulted in two bands of DNA molecules after only one round of replication, one containing only ¹⁵N and the second only ¹⁴N, this result would have indicated that replication was

	unidirectional.
	dispersive.
	conservative.
	bidirectional.
	semiconservative.

10.

The nucleoside analogue acyclovir, which is used to treat herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections, lacks a 3â² hydroxyl group (âOH). Predict what will happen if the host cell DNA polymerase incorporates a molecule of acyclovir into an elongating strand of HSV DNA.

	The replication complex will no longer bind to origins of replication.
	The DNA polymerase will only incorporate acyclovir molecules.
	Acyclovir will bind single-strand binding proteins.
	DNA polymerase will not be able to link a successive nucleotide.
	Acyclovir will block the activity of the DNA helicase.

11.

Which of the following does not demonstrate the stability of the DNA double helix?

	Single-strand binding proteins are required to keep the strands apart.
	Paired bases form hydrogen bonds.
	High temperatures are required to denature it.
	DNA synthesis requires energy.
	DNA helicases require ATP.

12.

What effect would a primase inhibitor have on DNA replication?

	DNA polymerase would not be able to add bases to the DNA.
	Primase would be blocked from joining the DNA replication complex.
	Primase would not be able to provide primers for DNA polymerases.
	DNA polymerase would not be able to use DNA as a template.
	There would be no effect on DNA replication.

13.

To replicate their DNA in a timely manner, most eukaryotic chromosomes

	normally have uncoiled DNA.
	have multiple origins of replication.
	contain linear molecules of single-stranded DNA.
	have two replication forks that move in the same direction.
	are composed entirely of DNA.

14.

Which statement about DNA replication is false?

	Okazaki fragments are synthesized as parts of the leading strand.
	Error rates for DNA replication are reduced by proofreading of the DNA polymerase.
	The sliding clamp increases the rate of DNA synthesis.
	Replication forks represent areas of active DNA synthesis on the chromosomes.
	Ligases and polymerases function in the vicinity of replication forks.

15.

In many eukaryotes, there are repetitive sequences called telomeres at the ends of chromosomes. After successive rounds of DNA replication, the _______ strand becomes shorter. In some cells, an enzyme called _______ repairs the shortened strand.

	leading; telomerase
	lagging; telomerase
	lagging; DNA polymerase I
	leading; DNA polymerase I
	leading; replicase

16.

A researcher studies normal human fibroblast cells. They can be maintained in culture but die off after about 30 cell generations. Unexpectedly, a colony of cells continues to survive and divide past 30 generations. Which scenario is most likely true for these cells?

	DNA polymerase is constantly active.
	Primase is able to extend the telomeres.
	The mismatch repair system is extra efficient.
	The telomerase gene is being expressed.
	The cells do not need the ends of their chromosomes.

17.

If DNA polymerase III introduces an incorrect nucleotide, what is the first corrective action made by the DNA repair system?

	The replication complex excises the incorrect nucleotide.
	The excision repair proteins remove the incorrect nucleotide.
	The mismatch repair system scans for base-pairing mismatches.
	There is no correction, because nucleotide errors by DNA polymerases are not repaired.
	DNA ligase connects the correct nucleotide.

18.

Choose the correct order of the following four events in the excision repair of DNA:
(1) Base-paired DNA is made complementary to the template.
(2) Damaged bases are recognized.
(3) DNA ligase seals the new strand to existing DNA.
(4) Part of a single strand is excised.

	1, 2, 3, 4
	2, 1, 3, 4
	3, 4, 2, 1
	2, 4, 1, 3
	4, 2, 3, 1

19.

Six complete cycles of PCR should result in a _______-fold increase in the amount of DNA.

	64
	32
	12
	128
	6

20.

When double-stranded DNA is heated to temperatures above 90Â°C, it denatures. Denaturation is a process that

	breaks covalent bonds.
	hydrolyzes DNA.
	separates double-stranded DNA into two single strands.
	causes new hydrogen bonds to form.
	irreversibly destroys the double helical structure.

Question 1

The process by which RNA is synthesized using DNA as a template is â¦

Select one:

a. replication

b. transcription

c. translation

d. inspiration

Question 2

Which of the following occurs during meiosis but not mitosis?

Select one:

a. DNA condenses into chromosomes

b. nuclear envelop disappears

c. homologous chromosomes separate

d. sister chromatids separate

Question 3

Which part of the animal life cycle is haploid?

Select one:

a. gamete

b. zygote

c. sporophyte

d. spore

Question 4

Single celled eukaryotic organisms are â¦

Select one:

a. viruses

b. bacterial

c. archaea

d. protists

Question 5

Which type of cellular division results in the formation of diploid cells from a diploid parent cell?

Select one:

a. mitosis

b. meiosis

c. interphase

d. A and B but not C

e. all of the above

Question 6

A sequence of DNA that codes for a single protein is a â¦

Select one:

a. gene

b. ribosome

c. mRNA

d. none of the above

Question 7

Which of the following is characteristic of animals?

Select one:

a. heterotrophic

b. sexual reproduction

c. embryonic development

d. all of the above

Question 8

All genes have only two possible alleles.

Select one:

True

False

Question 9

The presence of membrane-bound organelles is characteristic of â¦

Select one:

a. prokaryotes

b. viruses

c. bacteria

d. eukaryotes

Question 10

What are the building blocks of proteins?

Select one:

a. fatty acids

b. amino acids

c. nucleic acids

d. all of the above

Question 11

During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

Select one:

a. Mitosis

b. Interphase

c. Meiosis

d. Replicosis

Question 12

Which of the following characteristic is shared among fungi and animals?

Select one:

a. autotrophic

b. heterotrophic

c. cell walls

d. absorb nutrients

Question 13

A error in DNA replication that goes unrepaired is a â¦

Select one:

a. chromosome

b. chromatid

c. mutation

d. none of the above

Question 14

Alternate forms of a gene are called ________.

Select one:

a. chromatids

b. chromosomes

c. ribosomal subunits

d. alleles

Question 15

The physical expression of a genotype is the phenotype.

Select one:

True

False

Question 16

In complete dominance, a heterozygous genotype results in â¦

Select one:

a. a recessive phenotype

b. a dominant phenotype

c. a third and unique phenotype

d. none of the above

Question 17

Which theory explains the evolution of eukaryotes from prokaryotes?

Select one:

a. phagocytosis

b. endosymbiosis

c. pinocytosis

d. none of the above

Question 18

Which scientist experimented with plants to describe patterns of inheritance?

Select one:

a. Mendel

b. Chase

c. Einstein

d. Watson

Question 19

Which cellular organelle contains aerobic cellular respiration?

Select one:

a. chloroplasts

b. mitochondria

c. nucleus

d. lysosome

Question 20

Which of the following statements is false?

Select one:

a. Haploid gametes are formed by meiosis

b. Mitosis forms genetically identical daughter cells

c. Mitosis results in the formation of four daughter cells from a single parent cell

d. Mitosis forms diploid daughter cells from a diploid parent cell

Question 21

The first forms of life on Earth were ________.

Select one:

a. plants

b. microorganisms

c. birds

d. dinosaurs

Question 22

Which of the following is used to separate chromosomes during nuclear division?

Select one:

a. cytoskeleton

b. microtubules

c. actin and myosin

d. amoeboid movement

e. all of the above

Question 23

Which generation is most dominant in more primitive plants?

Select one:

a. bryophyte

b. sporophyte

c. gametophyte

d. androphyte

Question 24

Which of the following is characteristic of plants?

Select one:

a. autotrophic

b. contain chloroplasts

c. multicellular

d. all of the above

Question 25

During which phase of mitosis do chromosome line up along the middle of the cell?

Select one:

a. prophase

b. metaphase

c. anaphase

d. telophase

Question 26

During which phase of mitosis does DNA condense into distinct chromosomes?

Select one:

a. prophase

b. metaphase

c. anaphase

d. telophase

Question 27

The process by which DNA is used as a template to make new DNA is â¦

Select one:

a. translation

b. replication

c. transcription

d. allocation

Question 28

Which of the following is characteristic of plant but not animal cells?

Select one:

a. chloroplasts

b. water vacuole

c. cell wall

d. all of the above

Question 29

Which meiotic division is most like mitosis?

Select one:

a. Meiosis I

b. Meiosis II

c. Meiosis III

d. Meiosis IV

Question 30

Which enzyme catalyzes replication?

Select one:

a. DNA polymerase

b. RNA polymerase

c. Ribosome

d. all of the above

Biology 1001A Lecture Notes - Lecture 4: Metaphase, Dna Replication, Mitosis

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