Microbiology and Immunology 2500A/B Lecture Notes - Lecture 5: Pia Mater, Meningitis, Viral Meningitis

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orangealligator209

14 Feb 2018

School

Western University

Department

Microbiology and Immunology

Course

Microbiology and Immunology 2500A/B

Professor

Dr.Summers

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Document Summary

Itis = inflammation: meningitis = infection of meninges. Microglia cells are the "tissue macrophages" of the cns. White blood cells and antibodies are not normally present in the cns. Brain damage, blindness, hearing loss, learning disabilities. Clinical symptoms in infants can be subtle, variable and non-specific: fever constant crying. Poor feeding inability to maintain eye contact a bulge in the soft spot on top of a baby"s head (fontanel) stiffness in the baby"s body and neck skin rash in cases of meningococcal meningitis. The disease: bacterial meningitis diagnosis: history and symptoms blood tests for inflammatory markers, culture lumbar puncture (spinal tap) cloudy csf. Presence of white cells (neutrophils) low glucose if neutrophils are present not normal probs bacterial infection. Fio which are present which means viruses imaging (ct) Severe neck stiffness causes a patient"s knees to flex when the neck is flexed.

Related Questions

#1 Visceral sensory information enters the CNS on afferent fibers within

A) dorsal roots S_2 to S_4.

B) dorsal roots T_1 to L_2.

C) cranial nerves V, VII, IX, and X.

D) both B and C

E) A, B, and C

#2 Which of the following is not a function of the neuroglia?

A) support

B) memory

C) phagocytosis

D) secretion of cerebrospinal fluid

E) maintenance of blood-brain barrier

#3 Mary is in an automobile accident and suffers a spinal cord injury. She has lost feeling in her lower

body. Her doctor tells her that swelling is compressing a portion of her spinal cord. Which part of

her cord is likely to be compressed?

A) the anterior gray commissures

B) the anterior white commissures

C) the anterior gray horns

D) ascending tracts

E) descending tracts

#4 The efferent division of the peripheral nervous system innervates:

A) skeletal muscle cells

B) glandular cells

C) smoothmusdecells

D) heart muscle cells

E) all of the above

#5 Cerebrospinal fluid flows within the

A) pia mater.

B) dura mater.

C) filum terminale.

D) arachnoid mater.

E) subarachnoid space.

#6 A patient develops a tumor of a cranial nerve that leads to difficulty in speaking from a loss of

tongue movement.which cranial nerve is affected?

A) glossopharyngeal

B) vagus

C) spinal accessory

D) hypoglossal

E) trigeminal

#7 Parkinson disease is the result of

A) inadequate production of dopamine by substantia nigra neurons.

B) inadequate production of GABA by neurons in the basal nuclei.

C) weak response of the red nuclei of the mesencephalon.

D) decreased levels of acetylcholine from neurons in the substantia nigra.

E) hyperactivity of the limbic system.

#8 Based on the motor homunculus, which of the followingbody regions has the largest motor units?

A) larynx B) hands C) tongue D) face E) back

#9 If the corpus callosum is surgically cu!

A) conscious decisions are made without regard to sensations from the left side.

B) objects toudred by the left hand can be recognized but not verbally identified.

C) symptoms of the "disconnection syndrome" appear.

D) the two cerebral hemispheres operate independently.

E) all of the above

#10 The flexor reflex

A) moves a limb away from a painful stimulus.

B) is an example of a monosynaptic reflex.

C) prevents a musde from generating damaging tension.

D) usually depends on cranial neurons.

E) prevents a muscle from overstretching.

#11 The subdural space lies between

A) the dura mater and the arachnoid mater.

B) the arachnoid mater and the pia mater.

C) the endosteum and the periosteum.

D) the pia mater and the dura mater.

E) the pia mater and the subarachnoid space.

#12 _____ is a condition resulting from an inflammation of a facial nerve.

A) Cerebral palsy

B) Addison disease

C) Bell palsy

D) any of the

#12 Clusters of RER and free ribosomes in neurons are called

A) microglia.

B) neurofilaments.

C) neurofibrils.

D) Nisslbodies.

E) perikaryon.

#1 Visceral sensory information enters the CNIS on afferent fibers within

A) dorsal roots 52 to 54.

B) dorsal roots T1 to L2.

C) cranial nerves V VIL DC and X.

D) bothB and C

E) a, n, and C

#2 Which of the following is not a function of the neuroglia?

A) support

B) memory

C) phagocytosis

D) secretion of cerebrospinal fluid

E) maintenance of blood-brain barrier

#3 Mary is in an automobile accident and suffers a spinal cord injury. She has lost feeling in her lower

body. Her doctor tells her that swelling is compressing a portion of her spinal cord. Which part of

her cord is likely to be compressed?

A) the anterior gray commissures

B) the anterior white commissures

C) the anterior gray horns

D) ascending tracts

E) descending tracts

#4 The efferent division of the peripheral nervous system innervates:

A) skeletal muscle cells

B) glandular cells

C) smoothmusdecells

D) heart muscle cells

E) all of the above

#5 Cerebrospinal fluid flows within the

A) pia mater.

B) dura mater.

C) filum terminale.

D) arachnoid mater.

E) subarachnoid space.

#6 A patient develops a tumor of a cranial nerve that leads to difficulty in speaking from a loss of

tongue movement. IA/hich cranial nerve is affected?

A) glossopharyngeal

B) vagus

C) spinai accessory

D) hypoglossal

#7 Parkinson disease is the result of

A) inadequate production of dopamine by substantia nigra neurons.

B) inadequate production of GABA by neurons in the basal nuclei.

C) weak response of the red nuclei of the mesencephalon.

D) decreased levels of acetylcholine from neurons in the substantia nigra.

E) hyperactivity of the limbic system.

#8 Based on the motor homunculus, which of the followingbody regions has the largest motor units?

A) larynx B) hands C) tongue D) face E) back

#9 If the corpus callosum is surgically cu!

A) conscious decisions are made without regard to sensations from the left side.

B) objects toudred by the left hand can be recognized but not verbally identified.

C) symptoms of the "disconnection syndrome" appear.

D) the two cerebral hemispheres operate independently.

E) all of the above

#10 The flexor reflex

A) moves a limb away from a painful stimulus.

B) is an example of a monosynaptic reflex.

C) prevents a musde from generating damaging tension.

D) usually depends on cranial neurons.

E) prevents a muscle from overstretching.

#11 The subdural space lies between

A) the dura mater and the arachnoid mater.

B) the arachnoid mater and the pia mater.

C) the endosteum and the periosteum.

D) the pia mater and the dura mater.

E) the pia mater and the subarachnoid space.

#12 _____ is a condition resulting from an inflammation of a facial nerve.

A) Cerebral palsy

B) Addison disease

C) Bell palsy

D) any of the

#12 Clusters of RER and free ribosomes in neurons are called

A) microglia.

B) neurofilaments.

C) neurofibrils.

D) Nisslbodies.

E) perikaryon.

Highlight or bold the answer you select for multiple choice or type in your answer in the blank space provided.

1. Which of the following is not true of the nervous system?

Consists of central and peripheral systems

(b) Central nervous system is composed of brain and spinal cord

(d) Meninges are membranes that cover brain and spinal cord

(e) Normally free of microbes

2. Which of the following is a common cause of meningitis in nonimmunized young children?

(a) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(b) Escherichia coli

(d) Haemophilus influenzae

(e) None of the above

3. A complication of infection with this organism (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome) can occur if the organism becomes widely distributed in the body, leading to endotoxin shock and death. The organism is:

(a) Haemophilus influenzae type A

(b) Neisseria meningitidis

(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

4. Which of the following bacterial meningitis diseases currently is the most common type in the U.S., with increased incidences in infants and in the 15- to 24-year-old age group, and has three types or strains of the infectious microbe?

(a) Haemophilus meningitis

(b) Listeriosis

(d) Meningococcal meningitis

(e) a and c

5. Before development of a vaccine against this microbe, the disease it caused accounted for two-thirds of bacterial meningitis cases during the first year of life but is still the number one leading cause of mental retardation in patients who survive serious disease due to permanent central nervous system disorders. What is the microorganism?

(a) Haemophilus influenzae type B

(b) Haemophilus influenzae type A

(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

6. Which of the following bacteria that may cause meningitis is Gram-positive and therefore does not cause endotoxin shock in infected individuals?

(a) Escherichia coli

(b) Neisseria meningitidis

(d) Haemophilus influenzae type B

(e) None of these

7. Avid swimmers and hot tub enthusiasts sometimes acquire an opportunistic infection caused by Naegleria fowleri that results in a meningoencephalitis. This organism is a (an):

(a) Protist

(b) Helminth

(d) Amoeba

(e) a and d

8. Which of the following in NOT true about listeriosis?

(a) Foodborne transmission is the most common source of infection.

(b) It is a leading cause of bacterial meningitis today.

(d) It is sometimes acquired as a zoonosis.

(e) Individuals with impaired immune systems are highly susceptible to this disease.

9. Viral meningitis is usually always fatal if untreated, unlike bacterial meningitis, which is always self-limiting and nonfatal. True or false?

10. Which of the following is acid-fast and causes Hansen's disease?

(a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

(b) Clostridium tetani

(d) Haemophilus influenzae

(e) Mycobacterium leprae

11. An immunofluorescent antibody test (IFAT) has replaced the older test for the presence of inclusions in neurons (Negri bodies) for the detection of infections caused by:

(a) Neisseria meningitidis

(b) Enteroviruses

(d) Rabies virus

(e) Haemophilus influenza

12. The viruses that cause encephalitis are most likely to be:

(a) Togaviruses

(b) Enteroviruses

(d) Rabies virus

(e) Hepatitis viruses

13. What do the following viral encephalitis diseases have in common: eastern equine encephalitis, western equine encephalitis, Venezuelan equine encephalitis, St. Louis encephalitis, West Nile fever?

(a) They are all caused by the same virus.

(b) They are have the horse as a common intermediate host.

(d) Birds are never involved in the life cycle of the viruses that cause these diseases.

(e) Both a and d.

14. The only bacterium known to damage peripheral nerves is:

(a) Naegleria fowleri

(b) Mycobacterium leprae

(d) Neisseria meningitidis

(e) Haemophilus influenzae

15. All of the following are true about Clostridium tetani, the causative agent of tetanus, EXCEPT:

(a) They are spore-forming rods.

(b) They are part of the normal bowel microflora of horses, cattle, and humans.

(d) Their toxin elicits muscle stiffness, spasms, and paralysis in the victim.

(e) They require oxygen to survive.

16. A vaccine that was developed in 1933 has proven effective in reducing the incidence of disease caused by:

(a) Clostridium botulinum

(b) Mycobacterium leprae

(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

17. The most common form of disease caused by Clostridium botulinum is:

(a) Infant

(b) Wound

(d) Foodborne

(e) None of these

18. The endospores of this organism are the most heat-resistant known; it is:

(a) Clostridium tetani

(b) Clostridium botulinum

(d) Streptococcus thermicos

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

19. All of the following are true about Clostridium botulinum, the causative agent of botulism, EXCEPT:

(a) Their ability to form toxin depends on infection with a bacteriophage.

(b) They can produce one of eight different toxins, all of which cause human disease.

(d) Although their endospores are highly heat-resistant, their toxin can be inactivated by only a few minutes' boiling.

(e) All of the above are true.

20. All of the following are true about poliomyelitis EXCEPT:

(a) Most poliovirus infections are inapparent or mild and nonparalytic.

(b) Polio can be caused by three strains of picornaviruses.

(c) The Salk vaccine contains live, attenuated polioviruses while the Sabin vaccine contains formalin-inactivated polioviruses.

(d) Transmission is by the fecal-oral route and pharyngeal secretions.

(e) Poliomyelitis has afflicted man for thousands of years.

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Microbiology and Immunology 2500A/B Lecture Notes - Lecture 5: Pia Mater, Meningitis, Viral Meningitis

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