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ECON 2105 Lecture Notes - Lecture 2: Opportunity Cost, Mixed Economy

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tealmoose397
11 Sep 2016
School
GS, GSU
Department
Economics
Course
ECON 2105
Professor
Barilla

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Document Summary

We study scarcity because scarcity makes us make choices about our consumption (purchases) Our purchases depend on our resources (land, labor, and capital) Land, labor, and capital are also the means of production. The more valuable the resources, the more people are willing to pay for them. Rational behavior: when you work towards achieving a goal you have set: when you purchase a product, you are seeking satisfaction, as a consumer, you are seeking utility. Manufacture valuable products to ensure consumers will buy them: the goal of a rational producer is to maximize profit. Private sector: producers and consumers: when defining an economy, look at the ownership of resources. With ownership comes control which comes with decision making. Communism: when the public sector and private sector are one in the same: self governed. The us has a mixed economy because there is both public and private sector ownership: more capitalism than socialism.

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Related Questions

1. The Houston Chronicle reported that in Houston, the average price of new homes has decreased, while at the same time, the number of new homes sold has increased. This situation could be explained by which one of the following: (draw curves before answering)

  1. An Increase in demand
  2. An Increase in supply
  3. A Decrease in demand
  4. A Decrease in supply

2. In another market, the average price of new homes fell, while at the same time, the number of new homes sold decreased. The situation would best be explained by (Draw the curves before answering)

  1. An Increase in Demand
  2. An Increase in Supply
  3. A Decrease in demand
  4. A Decrease in supply

3. A consumer is said to have achieved maximum total utility when:

  1. Purchases of Good A give the same satisfaction as purchases of Good B.
  2. Purchases of the last dollar spent on Good A give the same satisfaction as purchases of the last dollar spent on Good B.
  3. The average purchases per dollar of Good A give the same satisfaction as the average purchases per dollar of Good B.
  4. The total utility derived from Good A is the same as the marginal utility derived from Good B.

4. You are given the following information about a firm's present output position: MPP (Marginal Physical Product) of Land = 12; MPP of Labor = 16; Price of Land = $2; Price of Labor = $4. With no additional money to spend, this firm should:

5. A firm achieves the least cost in production by substituting factors until

  1. their factor prices are equal
  2. their marginal products are equal to the factor prices
  3. their marginal products are each equal to zero
  4. the ratios of their marginal product equal the ratio of their prices
  5. none of the above

6.The economy is currently on its production possibilities frontier (PPF). A politician says that it is possible to get more of everything--more infrastructure, more schools, more national defense, more spending on social programs, and so on. The politician is

  1. correct if he is assuming a rightward-shifting PPF.
  2. incorrect if he is assuming a rightward-shifting PPF.
  3. correct if he is assuming a PPF that does not change.
  4. none of the above

7. Assume your swimsuit business is at its maximum profit position, and one new change occurs: consumer incomes decrease. If swimsuits are normal goods, the equilibrium price of swimsuits will __________, and the CONSUMER surplus will ________.

  1. increase, increase
  2. decrease, decrease
  3. increase, decrease
  4. decrease, increase

8. Firms that shuts-down in the short-run still must pay:

  1. Marginal cost
  2. Variable cost
  3. Fixed cost
  4. Total cost

9. The term externalities refer to:

  1. Black-market economic activity.
  2. The impact on markets of imported goods.
  3. The costs and benefits of a market activity borne by a third party.
  4. The inequitable distribution of income.

10. If full external costs are not internalized, firms will tend to allocate more of society's scarce resources to produce than is societally warranted, and if full external benefits are not internalized, firms will allocate less of society's resources to produce than is societally justified. True/False.

11. Joe was very careful about smoking in his home until he bought a fire insurance policy. After buying the policy, he became careless. His attitude is: "I'm insured. What do I care if this place burns down; I'll just collect the money". Joe's attitude is an example of ______________.

12. Megatrust Bank had historically scrutinized loans very carefully and extended them, only to persons whom they considered very creditworthy. They made relatively few loans. However, after the government provided guarantees to sub-prime loans, Megatrust relaxed its standards and increased its loan volume. (And its default rate as well.) This is an example of _______________.

13. In the short-run, if a perfectly competitive firm finds itself operating at a loss, it will

  1. Reduce the size of its plant to lower fixed costs.
  2. Raise the price of its product.
  3. Shut down.
  4. Continue to operate as long as it covers its variable cost.

14. If income today is more equally distributed than it was in 1960, a Lorenz Curve depicting today's distribution would be

  1. More bowed and to the left of the 1960's curve.
  2. More bowed and to the right of the 1960's curve.
  3. Less bowed and to the left of the 1960' curve.
  4. Less bowed and to the right of the 1960's curve.

15. Which of the following statements is true?

  1. As output increases, the average fixed cost becomes smaller and smaller.
  2. Average fixed cost does not change as output increases.
  3. The marginal cost curve intersects the average fixed cost curve at its minimum point.
  4. When marginal cost is greater than average fixed cost, average fixed cost increases.
  5.  

16. A firm in any of the market structures we have studied will maximize its profit (or minimizes its loss) when its

  1. Average costs are at a minimum
  2. Marginal revenue and marginal cost are the same.
  3. Marginal revenue is less than marginal cost.
  4. Marginal revenue is zero.

17. If the demand for a good increase, when the price of other good increases, these goods are

  1. Capital goods
  2. Substitute goods
  3. Complementary goods
  4. Luxury goods

18. Which of the following pairs of products are complementary goods?

  1. mobile phones and laptops
  2. pens and pencils
  3. sugar and artificial sweeteners
  4. radios and television
  5. toothbrushes and toothpaste

19. The amount of a good that is given up to produce another good is:

  1. Scarcity
  2. Specialization
  3. Opportunity cost
  4. Trade
  5. Efficiency

20. The most important characteristic of the equilibrium price is that it:

  1. Guarantees that producers earn a profit.
  2. Increases the quantity demanded.
  3. Clears the market.
  4. Decreases the quantity supplied.

21. Rank the following market structures based on the number of participating firms: From the fewest number of firms to the most number of firms:

  1. Oligopoly
  2. Perfect Competition
  3. Monopoly
  4. Monopolistic Competition

22. If firms in a monopolistically competitive market are earning economic profits which of the following scenarios would best reflect the change facing incumbent firms as the market adjusts to its new equilibrium?

  1. an increase in demand
  2. a decrease in demand
  3. a downward shift in their marginal cost curve
  4. an upward shift in their marginal cost curve


23. If labor in Mexico is less productive than labor in the United States in all areas of production, 

  1. neither nation can benefit from trade
  2. Mexico can benefit from trade but the United States cannot
  3. Mexico will not have a comparative advantage in any good
  4. both nations can benefit from trade

24. Which of the following statements is false?

  1. The typical monopolistically competitive firm could reduce its average total cost if it produced more output.
  2. Monopolistically competitive firms advertise to increase the elasticity of the demand curve they face.
  3. Expensive advertising might help consumers if it is a signal that the product is good.
  4. Brand names acquired at great cost might help consumers by assuring quality.

25. Suppose the state of Wyoming passes a law that increases the tax on cigarettes. As a result, smokers who live in Wyoming start purchasing their cigs in surrounding states. Which of the following principles does this best illustrate:

  1. people respond to incentives
  2. rational people think at the margin
  3. a trademark can make everyone better off
  4. markets are usually a good way to organize economic activity

Q3. The assumption of rational self-interest implies that people will choose to enrich themselves even if doing so violates the rights or property of others.

a. true

b. false

Q4. If you can earn $10 an hour as a retail clerk, $12 an hour as an office assistant, $16 an hour as a house painter, and $20 an hour repairing bicycles, what is your opportunity cost of working to repair bicycles?

a. $12 an hour

b. $10 an hour

c. $20 an hour

d. $16 an hour

Q5. In the graph of a production possibilities curve, both the horizontal and vertical axes measure the annual quantities of goods produced.

a. true

b. false

Q6. Scarcity arises because

a. international companies are slow to explore for new resources.

b. resources are finite and unable to meet all human wants and needs.

c. many countries waste goods because of inefficient political systems.

d. import taxes retard production.

Q7. A production possibilities curve with clothing and food on the axes shows which of the following?

I. A society cannot have an unlimited amount of each good.

II. For an efficient society, an increase in clothing production will necessitate a decrease in food production.

III. A society will always produce the maximum amount of both clothing and food.

a. II only

b. I only

c. III only

d. both I and II

Q8. All points on the production possibilities curve are efficient.

a. true

b. false

Q9. Economic growth can be pictured in a production possibilities curve diagram by

a. shifting the production possibilities curve out.

b. moving from right to left along the curve.

c. moving from left to right along the curve.

d. shifting the production possibilities curve in.

Q10. Suppose the current unemployment rate is 15 percent. If it rises to 20 percent,

a. the production possibilities curve will shift inward.

b. the economy will move closer to the production possibilities curve.

c. the economy will operate further inside the production possibilities curve.

d. the economy will move up along the production possibilities curve.

Q11. Clean air is a scarce resource.

a. true

b. false

Q12. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. A good is anything that gives satisfaction or happiness to individuals.

b. Wants may include humanitarian and altruistic goals.

c. Wants are unlimited and include all material and nonmaterial desires.

d. Economic goods are available in desired quantities at a zero price.

Q13. The current size of the U.S. labor force is less than 100 million workers.

a. true

b. false

Q14. The factors of production are

a. never as useful as people expect them to be.

b. valuable only because they are owned by corporations seeking to make a profit from them.

c. scarce resources.

d. abundant without limit on the planet.

Q15. Why do firms seek to use the least-cost combination of inputs?

a. because they won't be able to stay in business if they don't

b. because that is the combination that their employees prefer

c. because managers and supervisors find their jobs are easiest when the least-cost combination is used

d. because they want to keep costs low in order to appear to the media as a well-run business

Q16. Which one of the following best describes how economists view prices?

a. Low prices are good; high prices are bad.

b. High prices are good; low prices are bad.

c. The best price is a fair price.

d. Prices are signals of relative scarcity.

Q17. The person who creates a product innovation and brings it to market is providing the resource of

a. labor.

b. land.

c. entrepreneurship.

d. capital.

Q18. Gifts of nature used in the production process are considered

a. entrepreneurship.

b. labor.

c. land.

d. capital.

Q19. In a free market economy,

a. government decides what is produced, and producers decide who gets to consume it.

b. as a good becomes relatively more scarce, its price declines.

c. firms choose only to produce the most fashionable goods, regardless of the cost of production.

d. goods and services are allocated by a price system.

Q20. Resources are also known as

a. stocks, bonds, and other financial instruments.

b. minerals.

c. factors of production.

d. factories.

Q21. The size of the U.S. labor force has declined over the past 20 years as many jobs have been outsourced from the United States to other countries.

a. true

b. false

Q22. Which one of the following is TRUE?

a. The growth of the U.S. population over the next several decades will come from immigration.

b. Population growth makes a country poorer, because there are more mouths to feed.

c. Real per capita GDP can increase only if there is inflation.

d. Real per capita GDP can increase only if there is no inflation.

Q23. Which one of the following is FALSE?

a. The U.S. labor force will continue to grow through immigration.

b. Inflation stops economic growth.

c. Increased availability of reliable communication channels at lower and lower costs have led to companies relocating their manufacturing operations offshore.

d. The size of the U.S. labor force continues to grow despite many jobs being moved off-shore.

Q24. What is the purpose of a market system?

a. to facilitate efficient exchange

b. to encourage consumers to buy goods on credit

c. to ensure an equal distribution of income

d. to ensure that everyone is treated fairly

Q25. The market system is also called the price system because

a. people pay money in markets.

b. everything has a price tag.

c. rising prices are the signal to producers to make more of a particular good.

d. inflation is a disturbing problem.

Q26. Production refers to

a. any activity that causes a material conversion of an object.

b. any activity that results in the conversion of resources into goods and services that can be consumed.

c. any activity carried on by a firm, whether a corporation, partnership, or sole proprietorship.

d. physically producing material goods only.

Q27. An increase in the price of coffee, holding other things constant, will

a. decrease the demand for coffee.

b. increase the demand for coffee.

c. decrease the quantity of coffee demanded.

d. decrease the supply of coffee.

Q28. The supply curve shifts when the firm experiences a change in its production technology.

a. true

b. false

Q29. A surplus results when the quantity supplied exceeds the quantity demanded.

a. true

b. false

Q30. Table 3.1

Price per Constant-Quality Unit Quantity Demanded of Constant-Quality Units per Year Quantity Supplied of Constant-Quality Units per Year

$1.00 1,000 200

2.00 800 400

3.00 600 600

4.00 400 800

5.00 200 1,000

What condition characterizes a surplus?

a. Quantity supplied exceeds quantity demanded.

b. Quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied.

c. Consumers are unhappy with the price.

d. Producers are unhappy with the price.

Q31. An increase in quantity demanded is caused by

a. an increase in income.

b. a decrease in the price of a complement.

c. a change in expectations about price in the future.

d. a decrease in the price of the good.

Q32. The demand curve is downward sloping because

a. price and quantity have a direct relationship.

b. price is always constant.

c. demand is based on supply.

d. price and quantity have an inverse relationship.

Q33. An increase in the price of one good will decrease the demand for a substitute good.

a. true

b. false

Q34. The market demand curve is the vertical summation of the demand curves of all the individuals in the market.

a. true

b. false

Q35. The equilibrium price of a good is a price that everyone is happy with.

a. true

b. false

Q36. Which one of the following would cause a rightward shift of the supply curve?

a. A new tax is imposed on production of the good.

b. Some firms that have been producing the good go out of business.

c. Firms producing the good find ways of lowering their production costs.

d. There is an increase in demand for the good.

Q37. Which of the following is a determinant of demand?

a. cost of production

b. number of suppliers

c. technology of production

d. income

Q38. The market demand curve for a particular good

a. will not be affected by any of the determinants of individual demand.

b. is the horizontal sum of each individual demand curve for the good.

c. will show a direct relationship between price and quantity demanded.

d. may be less than an individual demand curve for the good.

Q39. Table 4.4

Quantity of CDs Purchased Total Utility Marginal Utility

1 75

2 135

3 185

4 35

5 25

6 15

According to Table 4.4, what is the total utility when six CDs are purchased?

a. 65

b. 260

c. 120

d. 220

Q40. A rational consumer will never purchase a product when its

a. marginal utility is decreasing.

b. total utility is decreasing.

c. marginal utility is slightly positive.

d. marginal utility is negative.

Q41. The price elasticity of demand becomes relatively greater as more substitutes are easily available.

a. true

b. false

Q42. Which of the following statements is true with respect to total utility and marginal utility?

a. Marginal utility is always equal to total utility.

b. Total utility will always be negative when marginal utility is positive.

c. Total utility is minimized when marginal utility is zero.

d. Marginal utility can decline as total utility rises.

Q43. Table 4.3

Quantityof Soda Marginal Utility of Soda Quantityof Pizza Marginal Utility of Pizza

1 50 1 100

2 25 2 80

3 0 3 60

4 -25 4 40

After consuming what quantity of soda does the consumer in Table 4.3 experience diminishing marginal utility?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 1

d. 4

Q44. If the price elasticity of demand is 0.5, a 10 percent increase in the price will cause

a. the quantity demanded to decrease by 20 percent.

b. the quantity demanded to decrease by 50 percent.

c. the quantity demanded to increase by 50 percent.

d. the quantity demanded to decrease by 5 percent.

Q45. Which one of the following would make the demand for satellite subscription TV relatively less elastic?

a. The cost of administering the satellite service is lowered.

b. Cable TV service becomes less widely available.

c. Other networks of wireless entertainment become more widely available.

d. The cost of transmitting satellite signals is lowered.

Q46. A price increase will cause a relatively large drop in quantity demanded when

a. demand is perfectly inelastic.

b. the price elasticity of demand is 0.

c. there is very little time allowed for consumers to react.

d. the consumer has easy access to a number of substitute goods.

Q47. Table 4.6

Price Quantity Demanded

$20 90

$16 110

$12 130

$ 8 150

According to the data in Table 4.6, what is the elasticity of demand between a price of $20 and a price of $16?

a. 0.60

b. 0.75

c. 0.90

d. 1.25

Q48. Price elasticity of demand is the responsiveness

a. of the quantity demanded to changes in supply.

b. of the quantity demanded to changes in income.

c. of the quantity demanded to changes in price.

d. of the quantity demanded to changes in quantity.

Q49. Everyone who views the latest adventure movie in theaters will derive the same utility from seeing it.

a. true

b. false

Q50. The law of diminishing marginal utility asserts that total utility becomes negative when marginal utility begins to diminish.

a. true

b. false