In addition to identifying the genetic material, the experiments of Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty with different strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae demonstrated that

	DNA is a double helix.
	DNA may be taken up by bacterial cells and be active.
	DNA is present in bacteriophage T2.
	eukaryotic cells may be genetically transformed.
	DNA binds to the cell wall of the bacterium.

2.

In order to show that DNA in cell extracts is responsible for genetic transformation in Streptococcus pneumoniae, important corroborating evidence should indicate that _______ also destroy transforming activity.

	temperatures high enough to kill cells
	enzymes that hydrolyze proteins
	enzymes that hydrolyze DNA
	enzymes that hydrolyze polysaccharides
	enzymes that hydrolyze RNA

3.

Based on what you have learned about the experiments conducted by Griffith and Avery and colleagues with bacteria, which of the following would result in transformation of living R cells?

	Pure RNA from S cells
	Cell-membrane extracts from S cells
	A mixture of pure RNA and protein from S cells
	Cell-free extracts from S cells
	Pure protein from S cells

4.

A-T base pairs in a DNA double helix

	form three hydrogen bonds with each other.
	are more heat-stable than G-C base pairs.
	are of a substantially different length than G-C base pairs.
	are not accessible to DNA binding proteins.
	are chemically distinct from G-C base pairs.

5.

If 23 percent of the bases in a sample of double-stranded DNA are adenine, what percentage of the bases are uracil?

	27
	50
	0
	73
	23

6.

The uniform diameter of the DNA structure provides evidence for

	antiparallel DNA strands.
	a right-handed helix.
	a double-stranded helix.
	3â² end phosphorylation.
	purineâpyrimidine pairing.

7.

If a sequence of one strand of DNA is 5â²-TGACTATC-3â², what is the complementary strand?

	5â²-ACTGATAG-3â²
	3â²-TGACTATC-5â²
	3â²-ACTGATAG-5â²
	3â²-ACTGATAG-3â²
	5â²-TGACTATC-3â²

8.

What structural aspect of the DNA facilitates dissociation of the two DNA strands for replication?

	3â² end phosphorylation
	Purineâpyrimidine pairing
	Antiparallel DNA strands
	Covalent bonds between sugars and phosphate groups
	Hydrogen bonding between paired bases

9.

If the MeselsonâStahl density gradient experiment had resulted in two bands of DNA molecules after only one round of replication, one containing only ¹⁵N and the second only ¹⁴N, this result would have indicated that replication was

	unidirectional.
	dispersive.
	conservative.
	bidirectional.
	semiconservative.

10.

The nucleoside analogue acyclovir, which is used to treat herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections, lacks a 3â² hydroxyl group (âOH). Predict what will happen if the host cell DNA polymerase incorporates a molecule of acyclovir into an elongating strand of HSV DNA.

	The replication complex will no longer bind to origins of replication.
	The DNA polymerase will only incorporate acyclovir molecules.
	Acyclovir will bind single-strand binding proteins.
	DNA polymerase will not be able to link a successive nucleotide.
	Acyclovir will block the activity of the DNA helicase.

11.

Which of the following does not demonstrate the stability of the DNA double helix?

	Single-strand binding proteins are required to keep the strands apart.
	Paired bases form hydrogen bonds.
	High temperatures are required to denature it.
	DNA synthesis requires energy.
	DNA helicases require ATP.

12.

What effect would a primase inhibitor have on DNA replication?

	DNA polymerase would not be able to add bases to the DNA.
	Primase would be blocked from joining the DNA replication complex.
	Primase would not be able to provide primers for DNA polymerases.
	DNA polymerase would not be able to use DNA as a template.
	There would be no effect on DNA replication.

13.

To replicate their DNA in a timely manner, most eukaryotic chromosomes

	normally have uncoiled DNA.
	have multiple origins of replication.
	contain linear molecules of single-stranded DNA.
	have two replication forks that move in the same direction.
	are composed entirely of DNA.

14.

Which statement about DNA replication is false?

	Okazaki fragments are synthesized as parts of the leading strand.
	Error rates for DNA replication are reduced by proofreading of the DNA polymerase.
	The sliding clamp increases the rate of DNA synthesis.
	Replication forks represent areas of active DNA synthesis on the chromosomes.
	Ligases and polymerases function in the vicinity of replication forks.

15.

In many eukaryotes, there are repetitive sequences called telomeres at the ends of chromosomes. After successive rounds of DNA replication, the _______ strand becomes shorter. In some cells, an enzyme called _______ repairs the shortened strand.

	leading; telomerase
	lagging; telomerase
	lagging; DNA polymerase I
	leading; DNA polymerase I
	leading; replicase

16.

A researcher studies normal human fibroblast cells. They can be maintained in culture but die off after about 30 cell generations. Unexpectedly, a colony of cells continues to survive and divide past 30 generations. Which scenario is most likely true for these cells?

	DNA polymerase is constantly active.
	Primase is able to extend the telomeres.
	The mismatch repair system is extra efficient.
	The telomerase gene is being expressed.
	The cells do not need the ends of their chromosomes.

17.

If DNA polymerase III introduces an incorrect nucleotide, what is the first corrective action made by the DNA repair system?

	The replication complex excises the incorrect nucleotide.
	The excision repair proteins remove the incorrect nucleotide.
	The mismatch repair system scans for base-pairing mismatches.
	There is no correction, because nucleotide errors by DNA polymerases are not repaired.
	DNA ligase connects the correct nucleotide.

18.

Choose the correct order of the following four events in the excision repair of DNA:
(1) Base-paired DNA is made complementary to the template.
(2) Damaged bases are recognized.
(3) DNA ligase seals the new strand to existing DNA.
(4) Part of a single strand is excised.

	1, 2, 3, 4
	2, 1, 3, 4
	3, 4, 2, 1
	2, 4, 1, 3
	4, 2, 3, 1

19.

Six complete cycles of PCR should result in a _______-fold increase in the amount of DNA.

	64
	32
	12
	128
	6

20.

When double-stranded DNA is heated to temperatures above 90Â°C, it denatures. Denaturation is a process that

	breaks covalent bonds.
	hydrolyzes DNA.
	separates double-stranded DNA into two single strands.
	causes new hydrogen bonds to form.
	irreversibly destroys the double helical structure.

If an organismâs diploid chromosome number is 18, how many different possible combinations of homologous chromosomes lining up during meiosis exist for the eggs or sperm produced by that organism?

	A.	512
	B.	9
	C.	18
	D.	128
	E.	36

At the end of metaphase I, _______________ separate.

	A.	sister chromatids
	B.	germ cells
	C.	homologous chromosomes
	D.	haploid chromatids
	E.	centrioles

Mendel observed that dominant traits

	A.	are seen in all of the F1 hybrid pea plants in his experiments.
	B.	are expressed in all plants.
	C.	were absent in the F1 generation of pea plants that he used in his experiments.
	D.	were the only traits seen in the F2 generation of pea plants in his experiments.
	E.	are only expressed in hybrids.

Cytokinesis in plant cells differs from cytokinesis in animal cells because

	A.	there is no difference.
	B.	in plant cells, the cell plate must also divide into two parts.
	C.	the contractile protein, actin, is important only in plant cells.
	D.	plant cells have a rigid cell wall.
	E.	a contractile ring forms only in plant cells.

Sickle cell anemia is an example of what type of inheritance?

	A.	complete dominance
	B.	incomplete dominance
	C.	codominance
	D.	multiple alleles
	E.	recessive dominance

Which of the following statements is true:

	A.	The dominant allele is masked in homozygous dominant individuals.
	B.	With recessive genetic disorders, if both parents are carriers, the offspring will all be affected.
	C.	In carriers, the recessive allele causes an intermediate phenotype.
	D.	In recessive genetic disorders, the mother and/or father of an affected individual must also be affected.
	E.	With dominant genetic disorders, the mother and/or father of an affected individual must also be affected.

Skin cancers typically develop in the

	A.	upper layers of the epidermis.
	B.	lower layers of the dermis.
	C.	subcutaneous layer.
	D.	lower layers of the epidermis.
	E.	upper layers of the dermis.

Duchenne muscular dystrophy (MD) is inherited from an X-linked recessive allele. What is the probability that a son with Duchenne MD inherited this disease from his biological father?

	A.	1/2
	B.	0
	C.	1/16
	D.	1/4
	E.	1/8

The genetic makeup of a particular trait in an individual is its

	A.	genotype.
	B.	heterozygosity.
	C.	phenotype.
	D.	filial.
	E.	dominance.

What structure holds the sister chromatids to the spindle fibers?

	A.	chromatin
	B.	kinetochore
	C.	MPF
	D.	centromere
	E.	cyclin

If you view a cell in which the genetic material is beginning to be visible as separate bodies, and the nucleus has disappeared from view, you may surmise that the cells is in

	A.	telophase.
	B.	anaphase.
	C.	interphase.
	D.	metaphase.
	E.	prophase.

Gregor Mendel was successful in his analysis of the genetics of pea plants because

	A.	he examined and analyzed both the F1 and F2 generations.
	B.	he studied the parental plants to determine their differences.
	C.	he decided to only look at his results in an objective manner.
	D.	he studied a trait that had a strange inheritance pattern.
	E.	pea plants have genetics different from other organisms.

Tall corn plants (T) are dominant to dwarf plants (tt). Solid green leaves (G) are dominant to leaves with a white tip (gg). A cross between two corn plants yielded the following phenotypes: 51 tall plants with a white tip on their leaves; 43 dwarf plants with solid leaves; 48 dwarf plants with white tips on their leaves; 45 tall plants with solid leaves. What are the genotypes of the parents that produced these plants?

	A.	None of the above
	B.	TtGg x Ttgg
	C.	ttGG x TTgg
	D.	TtGg x TtGg
	E.	TtGg x ttgg

In humans, a gene that has been identified as causing a type of skin cancer is the

	A.	superwoman echidna.
	B.	mutant superman.
	C.	sonic hedgehog.
	D.	mutant mole rat.
	E.	superhero aardvark.

The segregation principle states that in sexually reproducing diploid organisms the two copies of each gene

	A.	segregate from each other during meiosis.
	B.	must always be the same allele.
	C.	separate from each other during mitosis.
	D.	will both wind up in either the sperm or egg.
	E.	move together as a unit during meiosis.

In what phases is the genetic material in the cell correctly referred to as chromatids?

	A.	metaphase and telophase
	B.	anaphase and metaphase
	C.	interphase and telophase
	D.	interphase and prophase
	E.	metaphase and prophase

Consider two traits for an organism, determined by two genes, each of which is governed by at least two alleles. In the case of a dihybrid individual, the gametes formed will be of either the parental type or the recombinant type. Recombinant type gametes are formed because of

	A.	the principle of dihybrids.
	B.	multiple alleles.
	C.	heterozygosity.
	D.	incomplete dominance.
	E.	independent assortment.

An allele is

	A.	an alternate form of a gene.
	B.	always recessive.
	C.	the main factor determining a trait.
	D.	always one of a pair.
	E.	the dominant form of a gene.

After the DNA is replicated, and it condenses in prophase, two identical rods of DNA are seen. These are

	A.	spindle fibers.
	B.	kinetochores.
	C.	chromatids.
	D.	chromatin.
	E.	centromeres.

Special cells found in the gonads that give rise to gametes upon division are called

	A.	egg cells.
	B.	somatic cells.
	C.	germ cells.
	D.	stem cells.
	E.	basal cells.

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