BIO 101 Lecture Notes - Lecture 18: Missense Mutation, Reading Frame, Peptide

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coralshark287

8 Apr 2016

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Document Summary

Dna (information storage) mrna (information carrier) proteins (active cell machinery) Adds all complementary base pairs but from rna. To make double stranded, use reverse transcriptase again to remove all the rna nucleotides. Or use rna polymerase to make it double stranded. Certain virus can cause this-must get into host cell-take over the host cells machinery and dictates what proteins that cell will make (rna viruses) When a dna is transcribed using a mrna as the template, you are transcribing a single gene, because mrna only codes for a gene. Genetic disorder-a disorder that can be passed down through genes. Normally, genetic information flows from dna to rna to proteins. Dna polymerase iii adds a mismatched base but notices the mistake and corrects it. Silent-change in nucleotide that does not change amino acid specified by codon. Changes in genotype but no change in phenotype. Missence-change in nucleotide that changed amino acid specified by codon.

Related Questions

Which of the following did Erwin Chargaff observe?

A)	Base composition changes as the organism ages.

B)	Base composition of DNA does not vary from one species toanother.

C)	In all species the number of adenines equals the number ofguanines.

D)	In all species A + T = G + C.

E)	DNAs isolated from different tissues of the same species havethe same base composition.

The melting temperature (Tm) of a DNA duplex is:

A)	the temperature at which double-stranded nucleic acids degradeinto free nucleotides.

B)	the temperature at which double-stranded DNA is toosingle-stranded to ever renature back to double strands.

C)	the temperature at which double-stranded DNA is completelymelted.

D)	the temperature at which double-stranded DNA has become 50%single-stranded.

E)	the temperature at which double-stranded DNA begins to melt.

Given your knowledge and the descriptions of each of thesemethods, which of the following does NOT rely on the ability ofnucleic acids to hybridize with each other?

A)	Southern blotting for the detection of specific DNA fragmentsthat have been separated by gel electrophoresis.

B)	Colony blot hybridization to identify a specific sequence from acollection of sequences that have been inserted into bacteria.

C)	Northern blotting for the detection of specific RNA fragmentsthat have been separated by gel electrophoresis.

D)	A DNA oligonucleotide microarray incubated with probes made fromcDNA.

E)	Western blotting for the detection of specific proteins thathave been separated by gel electrophoresis.

Which of the following is a possible reason why DNA uses thymineinstead of uracil?

A)	Cytidine is deaminated to uracil so it would be difficult forany repair mechanism to differentiate between uracil that belongsin the sequence and uracil that resulted from deamination.

B)	Adenine is deaminated to uracil so it would be difficult for anyrepair mechanism to differentiate between uracil that belongs inthe sequence and uracil that resulted from deamination.

C)	When uracil is bound to a deoxyribose it will become morereactive, forming covalent bonds with other bases.

D)	None of the above.

Which of the following is an enzyme used in cloning to breakcovalent bonds?

A)	DNA ligase

B)	Restriction endonuclease

C)	Reverse transcriptase

D)	DNA polymerase I

E)	Alkaline phosphatase

Which of the following could you use to remove the 5' phosphatesafter cleavage of a plasmid with a single type of restrictionenzyme to ensure that the plasmid would not simply fuse backtogether upon addition of ligase?

A)	Reverse transcriptase

B)	Alkaline phosphatase

C)	DNA ligase

D)	DNA polymerase I

E)	Restriction endonuclease

Which of the following would you use to create a cDNA librarythat you would not use for a genomic library?

A)	Alkaline phosphatase

B)	Reverse transcriptase

C)	Restriction endonuclease

D)	DNA ligase

E)	DNA polymerase I

A plasmid vector typically has which of the followingfeatures?

A)	An origin of replication

B)	A selectable marker to ensure that the only bacteria growingcontain the intact or recombinant vector.

C)	Unique restriction sites for insertion of DNA.

D)	Small size to facilitate entry into the cell and biochemicalmanipulation of the DNA.

E)	All of the above are features of plasmid vectors.

Which of the following is FALSE of genomic or cDNAlibraries?

A)	Genes represented in cDNA libraries include control sequencesthat direct transcription.

B)	cDNA libraries contain cDNAs made from mRNA.

C)	Genomic libraries contain fragments of genomic DNA that aregenerated by partial digests with restriction enzymes.

D)	Genomic libraries usually contain large fragments and are likelyto be constructed in YAC or BAC vectors.

E)	cDNA libraries contain sequences from expressed genes only.

Which of the following is NOT a typical component of apolymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

dNTPs

B)	DNA containing the sequences to be amplified

C)	DNA ligase to connect the fragments together

D)	Primers complementary to each end of the sequence to beamplified

E)	Heat stable Taq polymerase

How can a fusion protein be formed?

A)	Site-directed mutagenesis where a fragment is replaced with asynthetic sequence containing the altered DNA sequence.

B)	Two proteins can recombine in the bacterial cell to form a newhybrid protein.

C)	Portions of two different genes are ligated together to create anew hybrid gene. When expressed the gene product is a fusion of thetwo gene products.

D)	Using oligonucleotide-directed mutagenesis to introduce specificmutations that cause the expressed protein to fuse to otherproteins.

E)	A portion of the gene can be removed to form a shorter gene andtherefore a shorter protein.

Why is green fluorescent protein (GFP) so useful in visualizingfusion proteins in eukaryotes?

A)	The GFP protein recognizes and binds to fusion proteins allowingthe location of the fusion protein to be determined.

B)	The reaction is only dependent on the presence of GFP and oneother cofactor.

C)	It is easily cloned and expressed in bacterial cells.

D)	The presence of just a few molecules of GFP fusion proteins canbe sufficient for observing the proteins microscopically allowingthe study of its location and movements in the cell.

E)	It is derived from fire flies, which are easy to cultivate inthe lab.

You wish to determine the cellular location of a protein butunfortunately it is not particularly antigenic (can t develop astrong antibody response). How could you solve this problem?

A)	Create a fusion protein with an epitope tag that can bevisualized by incubation with fluorescently tagged antibody to theepitope.

B)	Create a fusion with green fluorescent protein (GFP).

C)	Express the protein as a fusion with biotin. The addition of GFPwill cause fluorescence.

D)	A and B might work.

E)	A, B, and C might work.

F)	None of the above will work.

A positive result for the yeast two-hybrid analysis means thefollowing:

A)	The proteins that you are studying can be made into fusionproteins, but do NOT interact with each other within the nucleus ofyeast.

B)	A fusion protein containing the Gal4p activation domain, hasbound to RNA polymerase resulting increase transcription ofnumerous genes, including the reporter gene, and formation ofcolonies.

C)	Two fusion proteins, one containing the Gal4p binding sitedomain and one containing the Gal4p activation domain, haveinteracted through their Gal4p domains resulting in transcriptionof the reporter gene.

D)	Two fusion proteins interact with each other and because of theGal4p binding site domain and the Gal4p activation domain containedin each fusion protein, the reporter genes are activated and thecells die resulting in no colonies.

E)	The colonies growing are expressing the two fusion proteins, butthe two proteins have not interacted with each other.

Which of the following is the approximate size of the humangenome?

3 Gm

300 Kb

3 Mb

3 Gb

3 Mm

Which of the following is correct about the structure orlocation of genes?

Question 22 options:

A)	Prokaryotic genes typically possess their own regulatorysequences that only control expression of a single gene.

B)	Eukaryotic genes often encode introns that are spliced outbefore translation.

C)	Eukaryotic genes are mostly located at the telomeres and thecentromeres of chromosomes.

D)	Eukaryotic genes are typically arranged in operons.

E)	Prokaryotic genes often encode exons that are spliced out beforetranslation

copperskunk824

1. A mutation in the gene encoding the integrase enzyme rendersthe protein non-functional. How would the affect the HIV infectioncycle?

Formation of the provirus would bestopped.

Reverse transcription would nolonger be possible.

The gp120 glycoprotein would nolonger be able to bind to the CCR5 receptor.

Cutting and assembling the capsid would be halted.

2. If the viral gene is AUGCCCAGG and the mRNA used to make theviral protein is UACGGGUCC, then the virus is a :

Negative strand RNA virus

Double stranded DNA virus

Retrovirus

Positive strand RNA virus

3. Would treating prions with enzymes that digest nucleotides bean effective neutralization method?

No, prions lack amino acids.

Yes, prion nucleic acids would besusceptible to enzymatic digestion.

No, prions lack phosphodiesterbonds and would not be subject to digestion by these types ofenzymes.

Yes, the bonds between the amino acids would be hydrolyzed.

4. Most Americans born before 1970 have a permanent scar ontheir shoulders from the smallpox vaccine. Why don't youngerAmericans have one?

Smallpox has been eradicated by aworldwide vaccination program.

Smallpox is no longer lethal.

A safer less damaging vaccine wasdeveloped in the early 1970's.

The vaccine is no longer effective due to antigenic shift.

5. What kind of pathogen would retain its ability to causeinfections after being treated with powerful proteolytic chemicalsthat would destroy all proteinaceous material?

A viroid

6. Select all of the false statements concerning AIDS.

AIDS kills the patient.

Patients die as a result ofopportunistic infections.

AIDS shuts down the immunesystem.

HIV therapy (HAART) can clear thevirus from the bloodstream.

HIV therapy (HAART) can clear the virus from the patient'sbody.

7. Why do viruses only infect specific types of cells?

Viruses only attack epithelialcells, such as the cells lining the lungs.

If a host cell is weakened, viruseshave an easier time infecting it.

The initial choice is random butonce a cell type is chosen it becomes the preferred host.

The host cells have the correctsurface receptor that the virus can fit into.

Viruses infect the first cells they encounter.

8. Nucleotide analogs are a class of drugs that are highlyeffective against many types of viruses. They work by halting thereplication of viral genes. They are equally effective at stoppingthe spread of prion diseases.

True

False

9. An experimental chemical has been shown to selectively cleavephosphodiester bonds. How would the affect a virus?

Dissociate the envelope

Fragment the genome

Hydrolyze the protein coating

Alter the host binding site

Digest the capsid

10. HIV uses cell surface receptors to enter host cells. Whydoes switching from a CCR5 co-receptor to a CXCR4 co-receptoreventually shut down the immune system?

	Macrophages have CCR5co-receptors.
	T-helper cells have CXCR4co-receptors.
	T-helper cells are not involved incoordinating immune responses.
	Only macrophages are killed byHIV.