Please answer all of the following questions

1) The CAPM implies that:

a. investors may invest in assets with expected returns lower than the riskless interest rate.

b. no investor should invest in the risk-free asset.

c. the only relevant measure of risk is standard deviation.

d. the expected return on an efficient portfolio may be lower than the riskless interest rate.

2) In case of a simple CAPM being used to estimate a time series data:

a. the mean of a residual risk should be equal to zero.

b. the regression coefficient should be equal to zero.

c. the difference between the market return and the riskfree rate of return should be equal to zero.

d. the beta of the portfolio should be equal to zero.

3)Which of the following statements is true?

a. An increase in coupons increases the duration of the bond.

b. The longer the maturity of a bond, the greater will be its duration.

c. An increase in the interest rate decreases the duration of the bond.

d. Duration is a measure of the sensitivity of the equities.

4) Which of the following investment strategies is inconsistent with a "contrarian" philosophy

a. buying low, selling high

b. buying when odd-lot buying is lower than normal

c. buying when mutual fund cash positions are low

d. buying when most investment advisory services are bearish

e. selling after a market crash or decline

5) All other things equal, which of the following bond price is more sensitive to interest rate changes?

a. a 10 year bond with a 10% coupon

b. a 20 year bond with a 7% coupon

c. a 20 year bond with a 10% coupon

d. a 30 year bond with 7% coupon

6) Studies of firms classified on the basis of P/E ratios come to the conclusion that low-P/E-ratio stocks earn much higher returns, after adjusting for risk, than high-P/E-ratio stocks. This is because

a. low-P/E-ratio stocks are riskier than high-P/E-ratio stocks.

b. investors like low-P/E-ratio stocks.

c. low-P/E-ratio stocks are more likely to be undervalued.

7) Tests of market efficiency tend to

a. look for statistical dependencies that exist in price changes over time.

b. measure the nature of the impact of new information on security prices as that new information becomes available.

c. search for trading systems that might be able to generate supernormal profits.

d. all of the above

Question 18

1. Which of the following does an efficient portfolio do?

1. Maximizes risk for a given return.

2. Minimizes risk for a given return.

3. Maximizes return for a given level of risk.

4. Minimizes return for a given level of risk.

	a.	1 and 3.
	b.	1 and 4.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	2 and 4.

3 points

Question 19

1. The security market line does not:

	a.	Indicate the relationship between risk and return.
	b.	Relate the market return and beta to a stock's return.
	c.	Identify the optimal portfolio for the investor.
	d.	Use beta coefficients as a measure of risk.

3 points

Question 20

1. Mutual funds ____ realized capital gains and income (for example, dividends received):

	a.	Retain.
	b.	Reinvest.
	c.	Distribute.
	d.	Distribute or reinvest.

2 points

Question 21

1. An index fund limits its portfolio to:

	a.	High quality securities.
	b.	Stocks that respond to changes in the consumer price index.
	c.	Stocks included in an aggregate measure of stock prices.
	d.	Stocks of firms in a particular industry.

2 points

Question 22

1. Mutual funds with beta coefficients greater than 1.0:

	a.	Have outperformed the market.
	b.	Have underperformed the market.
	c.	Have more systematic risk than the market.
	d.	Have less systematic risk than the market.

3 points

Question 23

1. Which of the following will tend to cause a stock's price to fall?

1. The firms beta declines.

2. The firms beta increases.

3. The risk-free rate declines.

4. The risk-free rate increases.

	a.	1 and 3.
	b.	1 and 4.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	2 and 4.

2 points

Question 24

1. The use of P/E ratios to select stocks suggests that:

	a.	High P/E stocks should be purchased.
	b.	Low P/E ratio stocks are overvalued.
	c.	A stock should be purchased if it is selling near its historic low P/E.
	d.	A stock should be purchased if it is selling near its historic high P/E.

2 points

Question 25

1. What does the efficient market hypothesis require?

1. Financial markets to be competitive.

2. Prices to adjust rapidly.

3. Prices of undervalued securities to fall.

	a.	1 and 2.
	b.	1 and 3.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	All of these choices.

3 points

Question 26

1. Which of the following does the strong form of the efficient market hypothesis suggest?

1. Inside information will not lead to superior investment results.

2. Inside information will lead to superior investment results.

3. Studying financial statements will not lead to superior investment results.

4. Studying financial statements will lead to superior investment results.

	a.	1 and 3.
	b.	1 and 4.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	2 and 4.

3 points

Question 27

1. Which of the following is the least broad-based measure of stock prices?

	a.	NASDAQ market index.
	b.	Dow Jones industrial average.
	c.	S&P 500 stock index.
	d.	AMEX market value index.

3 points

Question 28

1. What is dollar-cost averaging?

	a.	Periodically buying a round lot of stock.
	b.	Periodically investing a specified dollar amount in a stock.
	c.	A means to increase the average cost basis.
	d.	A means to ensure a positive return.

2 points

Question 29

1. Stock dividends cause:

	a.	The price of a share of stock to rise.
	b.	The price of a share of stock to fall.
	c.	The value of the firm to rise.
	d.	The value of the firm to fall.

2 points

Question 30

1. Which of the following occurs when a stock has a two-for-one split?

	a.	The price of the stock doubles.
	b.	The firm's assets increase.
	c.	The firm's liabilities decrease.
	d.	The par value of the stock is reduced.

3 points

Question 31

1. Dividend reinvestment plans offer which of the following advantages?

1. Deferment of federal income taxes.

2. A convenient means to accumulate shares.

3. Dollar-cost averaging.

	a.	1 and 2.
	b.	1 and 3.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	2.

3 points

Question 32

1. When the Federal Reserve seeks to expand the money supply, it:

	a.	Sells securities.
	b.	Buy securities.
	c.	Runs a deficit.
	d.	Runs a surplus.

2 points

Question 33

1. The sum of cash, currency, and demand deposits is:

	a.	M1.
	b.	M2.
	c.	M3.
	d.	M4.

3 points

Question 34

1. If the Federal Reserve lowers the target federal funds rate:

	a.	The discount rate rises.
	b.	Liquidity in the banking system is increased.
	c.	Security prices fall.
	d.	Required reserves are also decreased.

3 points

Question 35

1. The anticipation of inflation suggests that the investor should:

	a.	Buy bonds.
	b.	Anticipate higher interest rates.
	c.	Avoid real estate investments.
	d.	Sell stocks of gold companies.

3 points

Question 36

1. The current ratio is unaffected by:

	a.	Using cash to pay a dividend.
	b.	The collection of an account receivable.
	c.	Selling inventory for a profit.
	d.	Selling bonds and using the funds to finance inventory.

2 points

Question 37

1. Which of the following are true as the debt ratio increases?

1. Fewer assets are debt financed.

2. More assets are debt financed.

3. The ratio of debt equity increases.

4. The ratio of debt equity decreases.

	a.	1 and 3.
	b.	1 and 4.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	2 and 4.

2 points

Question 38

1. The technical approach suggests that future stock prices are forecasted by:

	a.	Past stock rates.
	b.	Financial ratios.
	c.	Accounting statements.
	d.	Monetary policy.

2 points

Question 39

1. The Dogs of the Dow strategy:

	a.	Forecasts the direction of the Dow Jones averages.
	b.	Suggests buying the Dow stocks with the highest dividend yields.
	c.	Outperforms the S&P 500.
	d.	Suggests buying the lowest-priced Dow stocks.