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Biology
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19 Nov 2018

What step in DNA replication precedes the pairing of complementary bases?

A.

polymerization of DNA.

B.

formation of the histone core.

C.

mitotic division.

D.

separation of the two strands.

E.

joining of the two strands.

In eukaryotes, transcription occurs in the

A.

ribosome.

B.

mitochondria.

C.

cell membrane.

D.

cytoplasm.

E.

nucleus.

Normal human body cells contain how many chromosomes?

A.

46

B.

22

C.

23

D.

44

E.

42

Hershey and Chase performed an experiment in which they used radioactive isotopes to phosphorus and sulfur to label different components of bacterial viruses. Their results clearly showed that

A.

the viruses did not contain protein.

B.

genetic material normally contains radioactive isotopes.

C.

the viruses did not contain DNA.

D.

protein was entering into the infected bacteria.

E.

DNA was entering into the infected bacteria.

A package of histones with DNA wrapped around them forms spherical structures called

A.

nucleosomes.

B.

lysosomes.

C.

ribosomes.

D.

nucleoli.

E.

chromatin.

DNA replication

A.

does not require proteins.

B.

is constantly happening in a cell.

C.

occurs in G1 of interphase.

D.

takes place in the nucleus of the cell.

E.

occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell.

The two subunits of the ribosome join during

A.

promotion of transcription.

B.

initiation of translation.

C.

termination of transcription.

D.

termination of translation.

E.

elongation.

DNA replication of a single DNA molecule is referred to as semiconservative because

A.

each of the two DNA molecules will consist of one parental strand and one newly synthesized strand.

B.

all the DNA strands in the two DNA molecules will have both parental and newly synthesized DNA.

C.

it results in two nonidentical DNA molecules.

D.

of the two DNA molecules, one is made up totally of parental DNA, while the other is entirely newly synthesized DNA.

E.

one DNA strand is replicated continuously, while the other must be replicated discontinuously.

The bases are bonded to what part of the backbone of the DNA molecule?

A.

the 4’ carbon atom of the sugar molecule.

B.

the 3’ carbon atom of the sugar molecule.

C.

the 5’ carbon atom of the sugar molecule.

D.

the 1’ carbon atom of the sugar molecule.

E.

the 2’ carbon atom of the sugar molecule.

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Related questions

Please provide correct answer and explanation to the answer,Thank you!

  1. If an enterprising graduate student decided to repeat theHershey-Chase

    experiment but neglected to perform the blending portion, wherewill the

    isotopes be found?

    a. 35S will be found in the supernatant and 32P will be found inthe pellet

    b. 32P will be found in the supernatant and 35S will be found inthe pellet

    c. Both 32P and 35S will be found in the supernatant

    d. Both 32P and 35S will be found in the pellet

    e. None of the above are correct

  2. Chargaff�s rules include:

    a. The ratio of A�s + T�s to G�s + C�s is always consistent

    b. A=G and T=C

    c. Purines/Pyrimidines = 1

    d. More than one of the above are true

    e. None of the above are true

  3. Sea Urchin DNA contains 18% guanine (which is true); how muchthymine

    does it contain?

    a. 9%

    b. 18%

    c. 32%

    d. 36%

    e. 64%

  4. E. coli DNA contains a little over 25% guanine. If samples weretaken of E.

    coli DNA and Sea Urchin DNA and denatured in water baths, whichwould

    melt at a lower temperature?

    a. E. coli DNA

    b. Sea Urchin DNA

    c. They would melt at the same temperature

    d. There is not enough information to determine the answer

    e. DNA doesn�t �melt,� it isn�t ice cream for goodness sake!

  5. If testing the second generation results in tube B, which modelcan we

    conclude is correct?

    a. Dispersive

    b. Semi-conservative

    c. Conservative

    d. Semi-dispersive

    e. We can�t conclude yet, it could still be more than onepossibility

  6. Phosphorus is required to synthesize dNTPs used in DNAreplication. Imagine

    you grow E. coli in media containing non-radioactive phosphorusfor many

    generations, then switch the E. coli to media containingradioactive

    phosphorous (32P). You then sample the E. coli after one roundof replication

    for radioactivity. Where will you find radioactive phosphorus inthe DNA?

    a. Both strands will contain 32P

    b. One strand will contain 32P

    c. Neither strand will contain 32P

    d. Drats! I knew I should have done suggested problem 12.19!

  7. Which of the following statements about chromosomes are alwaystrue?

    I. Non-histone proteins make up about 5% of a eukaryotic

    chromosome by weight

    II. Histones have a negative charge

    III. Prokaryotes have a single linear chromosome

    a. Only Statement I is true

    b. Only Statement II is true

    c. Only Statement III is true

    d. More than one of the above statements are true

    e. None of the above statements are true

  8. What portion of the human genome is made up of highly repetitiveDNA?

    a. Less than 5%

    b. 6 � 20%

    c. 21 � 30%

    d. 31 � 40%

    e. Over 40%

  9. Which of the following statements are always true?

    I. Histones are very conserved between species

    II. Archaea have nuclei

    III. Prokaryotes are haploid and eukaryotes are diploid

    a. Only Statement I is true

    b. Only Statement II is true

    c. Only Statement III is true

    d. More than one of the above statements are true

    e. None of the above statements are true

  10. An individual�s phenotype is a function of:

    a. The alleles they carry

    b. The environment they live in

    c. The interaction between an individuals genes and theenvironment

    d. Two of the above are correct

    e. All of the above are correct

  11. A homologous pair of chromosomes showing a

    crossover are shown to the right for reference. Are all

    the sperm from one human male genetically identical?

    a. Yes

    b. No, variation occurs during mitosis

    c. No, variation occurs during meiosis I

    d. No, variation occurs during meiosis II

    e. No, variation occurs during both meiosis I and II

  12. Production of gametes in humans requires which kind ofdivision?

    a. Meiotic and is reductional

    b. Mitotic and is reductional

    c. Meiotic and is equational

    d. Mitotic and is equational

    e. None of the above

Second messengers play an important role in cellcommunication.

Which of the following best describes their role?

None

integrate, amplify and distribute messages throughout thecell

Release messages to other cells?

Receive information at the cell surface

What is true of disulfide bonds?

a.

They often occur in the cytosol

b.

They are a noncovalent bond

c.

They are formed enzymatically in the ER

d.

They act as reducing agents

e.

they increase protein flexibility

Which of the following is NOT an example of a cell communicationmolecule?

nucleases

nitric oxide

hormones

kinases

What is true of binding pockets?

a.

They only occur in the membrane

b.

They occur in unfolded proteins

c.

They contain electrostatic interactions

d.

They contain variable amino acids

e.

What is true of cell signaling?

a.

Extracellular signals transduced by rectors always alter cellbehavior very quickly

b.

Some cells require cell signals just to survive

c.

Cell signals can be interpreted differently by differentcells

d.

B and C only

e.

All of the above (A, B and C)

Histone tails can be modified to change the shape and"tightness" of the nucleosomes. Acetylated histones result in whicheffect?

Open DNA

increased transcription

closed DNA

decreased transcription

1+2

1+4

3+4

2+3

Shifting the two bound tRNA from the A and P sites to the E andP sites of the ribosome involves:

a.

The movement of the small ribosome subunit down the mRNAchain

b.

The degradation of the A site on ribosome

c.

The synthesis of the E site on the ribosome

d.

The movement of the large subunit relative to the smallsubunit

e.

All of the above

Intracellular signaling pathways are awesome! What is the onething they can NOT do?

a.

relay the signal, to spread it through the cell

b.

nothing, they can communicate any cellular need

c.

distribute the signal to more than one effector protein

d.

integrate the signal from more than one cellular pathway

e.

Amplify the signal received, making the signal stronger

Specificity of protein/protein and protein/DNA binding isdetermined by what?

Non-covalent bonds

Hydrophobic interactions

Covalent bonds

shape of the binding site

all of the above

none of the above

1,2,3

1,2,4

1,3,4

The coiling structure of the DNA into chromosomes is achieved bywhat?

alpha helix

beta pleated sheets

chaperone proteins

DNA/Protein complexing

Which regions (s) of the DNA are found in the final protein?

a.

poly-A tail

b.

A and B

c.

Exons

d.

UTRs

e.

Introns

Metabolic processes can be turned "on" and "off" by chemicalmodifcation.

Which chemical modification do we associate with changing theactivity of an enzyme in a transient/non-permanent manner?

Phosphorylation

Ubiquitination

Methylation

Acetylation

DNA hybridization involves attaching a florescent dye towhat?

a.

Antibody

b.

Nuclear stain

c.

Probe DNA

d.

tRNA

e.

rRNA

Which of the following did Erwin Chargaff observe?

A)

Base composition changes as the organism ages.

B)

Base composition of DNA does not vary from one species toanother.

C)

In all species the number of adenines equals the number ofguanines.

D)

In all species A + T = G + C.

E)

DNAs isolated from different tissues of the same species havethe same base composition.

The melting temperature (Tm) of a DNA duplex is:

A)

the temperature at which double-stranded nucleic acids degradeinto free nucleotides.

B)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA is toosingle-stranded to ever renature back to double strands.

C)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA is completelymelted.

D)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA has become 50%single-stranded.

E)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA begins to melt.

Given your knowledge and the descriptions of each of thesemethods, which of the following does NOT rely on the ability ofnucleic acids to hybridize with each other?

A)

Southern blotting for the detection of specific DNA fragmentsthat have been separated by gel electrophoresis.

B)

Colony blot hybridization to identify a specific sequence from acollection of sequences that have been inserted into bacteria.

C)

Northern blotting for the detection of specific RNA fragmentsthat have been separated by gel electrophoresis.

D)

A DNA oligonucleotide microarray incubated with probes made fromcDNA.

E)

Western blotting for the detection of specific proteins thathave been separated by gel electrophoresis.

Which of the following is a possible reason why DNA uses thymineinstead of uracil?

A)

Cytidine is deaminated to uracil so it would be difficult forany repair mechanism to differentiate between uracil that belongsin the sequence and uracil that resulted from deamination.

B)

Adenine is deaminated to uracil so it would be difficult for anyrepair mechanism to differentiate between uracil that belongs inthe sequence and uracil that resulted from deamination.

C)

When uracil is bound to a deoxyribose it will become morereactive, forming covalent bonds with other bases.

D)

None of the above.

Which of the following is an enzyme used in cloning to breakcovalent bonds?

A)

DNA ligase

B)

Restriction endonuclease

C)

Reverse transcriptase

D)

DNA polymerase I

E)

Alkaline phosphatase

Which of the following could you use to remove the 5' phosphatesafter cleavage of a plasmid with a single type of restrictionenzyme to ensure that the plasmid would not simply fuse backtogether upon addition of ligase?

A)

Reverse transcriptase

B)

Alkaline phosphatase

C)

DNA ligase

D)

DNA polymerase I

E)

Restriction endonuclease

Which of the following would you use to create a cDNA librarythat you would not use for a genomic library?

A)

Alkaline phosphatase

B)

Reverse transcriptase

C)

Restriction endonuclease

D)

DNA ligase

E)

DNA polymerase I

A plasmid vector typically has which of the followingfeatures?

A)

An origin of replication

B)

A selectable marker to ensure that the only bacteria growingcontain the intact or recombinant vector.

C)

Unique restriction sites for insertion of DNA.

D)

Small size to facilitate entry into the cell and biochemicalmanipulation of the DNA.

E)

All of the above are features of plasmid vectors.

Which of the following is FALSE of genomic or cDNAlibraries?

A)

Genes represented in cDNA libraries include control sequencesthat direct transcription.

B)

cDNA libraries contain cDNAs made from mRNA.

C)

Genomic libraries contain fragments of genomic DNA that aregenerated by partial digests with restriction enzymes.

D)

Genomic libraries usually contain large fragments and are likelyto be constructed in YAC or BAC vectors.

E)

cDNA libraries contain sequences from expressed genes only.

Which of the following is NOT a typical component of apolymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

A)

dNTPs

B)

DNA containing the sequences to be amplified

C)

DNA ligase to connect the fragments together

D)

Primers complementary to each end of the sequence to beamplified

E)

Heat stable Taq polymerase

How can a fusion protein be formed?

A)

Site-directed mutagenesis where a fragment is replaced with asynthetic sequence containing the altered DNA sequence.

B)

Two proteins can recombine in the bacterial cell to form a newhybrid protein.

C)

Portions of two different genes are ligated together to create anew hybrid gene. When expressed the gene product is a fusion of thetwo gene products.

D)

Using oligonucleotide-directed mutagenesis to introduce specificmutations that cause the expressed protein to fuse to otherproteins.

E)

A portion of the gene can be removed to form a shorter gene andtherefore a shorter protein.

Why is green fluorescent protein (GFP) so useful in visualizingfusion proteins in eukaryotes?

A)

The GFP protein recognizes and binds to fusion proteins allowingthe location of the fusion protein to be determined.

B)

The reaction is only dependent on the presence of GFP and oneother cofactor.

C)

It is easily cloned and expressed in bacterial cells.

D)

The presence of just a few molecules of GFP fusion proteins canbe sufficient for observing the proteins microscopically allowingthe study of its location and movements in the cell.

E)

It is derived from fire flies, which are easy to cultivate inthe lab.

You wish to determine the cellular location of a protein butunfortunately it is not particularly antigenic (can t develop astrong antibody response). How could you solve this problem?

A)

Create a fusion protein with an epitope tag that can bevisualized by incubation with fluorescently tagged antibody to theepitope.

B)

Create a fusion with green fluorescent protein (GFP).

C)

Express the protein as a fusion with biotin. The addition of GFPwill cause fluorescence.

D)

A and B might work.

E)

A, B, and C might work.

F)

None of the above will work.

A positive result for the yeast two-hybrid analysis means thefollowing:

A)

The proteins that you are studying can be made into fusionproteins, but do NOT interact with each other within the nucleus ofyeast.

B)

A fusion protein containing the Gal4p activation domain, hasbound to RNA polymerase resulting increase transcription ofnumerous genes, including the reporter gene, and formation ofcolonies.

C)

Two fusion proteins, one containing the Gal4p binding sitedomain and one containing the Gal4p activation domain, haveinteracted through their Gal4p domains resulting in transcriptionof the reporter gene.

D)

Two fusion proteins interact with each other and because of theGal4p binding site domain and the Gal4p activation domain containedin each fusion protein, the reporter genes are activated and thecells die resulting in no colonies.

E)

The colonies growing are expressing the two fusion proteins, butthe two proteins have not interacted with each other.

Which of the following is the approximate size of the humangenome?

A)

3 Gm

B)

300 Kb

C)

3 Mb

D)

3 Gb

E)

3 Mm

Which of the following is correct about the structure orlocation of genes?

Question 22 options:

A)

Prokaryotic genes typically possess their own regulatorysequences that only control expression of a single gene.

B)

Eukaryotic genes often encode introns that are spliced outbefore translation.

C)

Eukaryotic genes are mostly located at the telomeres and thecentromeres of chromosomes.

D)

Eukaryotic genes are typically arranged in operons.

E)

Prokaryotic genes often encode exons that are spliced out beforetranslation

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