Q1. The total resource cost of goods and services produced by the U. S. economy is known as
a. real GDP
b. personal income
c. national wealth
d. national income

Q2. The difference between GDP and final sales equals
a. depreciation
b. exports
c. imports
d. net inventory change

Q3. Current disposable income can be adjusted for price changes and population changes to yield real per capita disposable income.
a. true
b. false

Q4. If a lawn service mows your grass, it is included in the GDP.
a. true
b. false

Q5. In national income accounting, grain fed to a hog at a commercial hog farm is considered a(n)
a. final good
b. intermediate good
c. consumer good
d. capital consumption allowance

Q6. Imports constitute a minus figure in national income accounting.
a. true
b. false

Q7. The total value added in the production of a final good
a. exceeds the price of the final good
b. equals the price of the final good
c. exceeds the total payments made to owners of productive resources used in the production
d. both (b) and (c)

Q8. The GDP is reported on a monthly basis by the Department of Commerce.
a. true
b. false

Q9. Transfer payments are added to NI in the process of determining personal income.
a. true
b. false

Q10. U.S. gross domestic product is converted to U.S. gross national product by
a. adding the value of output produced by U.S.-owned resources in foreign countries
b. subtracting the value of output produced by U.S.-owned resources in foreign countries
c. subtracting the value of output produced in the United States by foreign-owned resources
d. both (a) and (c)

Q11. Final sales are always larger than the GDP.
a. true
b. false

Q12. Because of the value of things produced inside households, (building your own desk, mowing your own lawn, etc.)
a. the GDP value is automatically adjusted upward to reflect this
b. the GDP value is automatically adjusted downward to reflect this
c. Official GDP is surely smaller than true total output
d. Official GDP is surely larger than true total output

Q13. A government surplus may trigger a decline in the money supply.
a. true
b. false

Q14. Real wages are determined by multiplying money wages by the CPI.
a. true
b. false

Q15. The more volatile the inflation rate, the weaker the money supply as a standard of deferred payment.
a. true
b. false

Q16. An increase in the money supply always causes an increase in the price level.
a. true
b. false

Q17. Your nominal wages rose during the same period from $200 a week to $260. By how much did your real income rise?
a. 30 percent
b. 16.7 percent
c. 8.33 percent
d. 12 percent

Q18. In the past 10 years or so, average real wages of U.S. workers in nonagricultural industries have
a. increased about 40 percent
b. increased slightly
c. remained about the same
d. declined

Q19. If a new cash deposit creates excess reserves of $5,000 and the required reserve ratio is 10 percent, the banking system can increase the money supply by a maximum of
a. $50,000
b. $500
c. $5,000
d. $4,500

Q20. The effect of a change in the money supply on economic activity may be offset by a change in velocity.
a. true
b. false

Q21. The current base period for the CPI is
a. 1967
b. 1977
c. 1982–1984
d. 1990

Q22. In the circular flow, an increase in the money supply tends to result when
a. planned I equals planned S
b. planned I is less than planned S
c. planned I is greater than planned S
d. there is a surplus government budget

Q23. COLA is a form of indexation.
a. true
b. false

Q24. The total checkable deposits a bank may have can be determined by dividing its reserves by the reserve requirement.
a. true
b. false

Q25. The Financial Services Modernization Act
a. reinforced the Glass Steagall Act
b. prevented mergers of banks
c. eliminated barriers between banks, brokerage houses, and insurance companies
d. eliminated all banking regulations

Q26. Each Federal Reserve Bank has its own board of directors.
a. true
b. false

Q27. The most frequently used tool of U.S. monetary policy is
a. the discount rate
b. the reserve requirement
c. open-market operations
d. moral suasion

Q28. When the Fed conducts open-market operations, it primarily uses
a. Treasury bills
b. long-term U.S. government bonds
c. bonds of publicly traded corporations
d. overnight loans of major banks

Q29. The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System has
a. 6 members
b. 7 members
c. 1 member from each Federal Reserve Bank
d. 20 members

Q30. If the Fed desires to increase checkable deposits, it may lower the reserve requirement.
a. true
b. false

Q31. The interest rate at which banks borrow excess reserves from each other is known as the
a. prime rate
b. federal funds rate
c. discount rate
d. T-bill rate

Q32. If member banks need to borrow reserves, they must do so through the discount window.
a. true
b. false

Q33. The Fed Chairman appears before Congress semi-annually to present the Monetary Policy Report.
a. true
b. false

Q34. In terms of the total number of payments, which of the following comprises the largest share?
a. cash
b. personal checks
c. debit cards
d. credit cards

Q35. By buying government securities, the Federal Open Market Committee adds to member banks' reserves.
a. true
b. false

Q36. More than 50 percent of commercial banks in the United States belong to the Federal Reserve System.
a. true
b. false

Q37. The Federal Reserve System is built around
a. 4 regional banks
b. 6 regional banks
c. 12 district banks
d. 1 bank with several branches

Q38. The time lags lead monetarists to contend that monetary policy is counterproductive.
a. true
b. false

Q39. The marginal propensity to consume is
a. the fraction of an increase in income that would be spent on consumer goods
b. the additional desire people have for consumer goods
c. the fraction of a person's total income normally spent for consumer goods
d. the change in consumption resulting from a $1 change in the price level

Q40. The consumption function shows
a. how fast the economy is consuming its capital
b. that the amount of national income determines the rate at which the economy consumes its resources
c. that households' incomes determine how much the households will spend for consumer goods
d. the rate at which people actually use up their consumer goods

Q41. In the simple Keynesian model, if output exceeds aggregate expenditures,
a. there will be no response from businesses
b. inventories will decrease and businesses will increase output
c. inventories will increase and businesses will increase output
d. inventories will increase and businesses will decrease output

Q42. If planned construction investment increases by $30 billion and the MPC is two-thirds, total output will increase by
a. $30 billion
b. $20 billion
c. $45 billion
d. $90 billion

Q43. "A given change in business investment will cause a larger change in equilibrium output." This statement describes an important Keynesian concept called the
a. multiplier effect
b. marginal propensity to consume
c. marginal propensity to invest
d. consumption function

Q44. In the multiplier formula, 1/MPS equals the multiplier.
a. true
b. false

Q45. The classical economists held that chronic unemployment was likely.
a. true
b. false

Q46. As income increases, the absolute level of planned consumption will increase.
a. true
b. false

Q47. The new classical school contends that government fiscal policy is better than monetary policy in controlling inflation.
a. true
b. false

Q48. Higher price levels are associated with lower aggregate expenditure at every level of income.
a. true
b. false

Q49. Any time that planned leakages exceed planned injections, the economy will expand.
a. true
b. false

Q50. According to the Keynesian model, increased foreign spending for U.S. goods is likely to
a. reduce total employment in the United States
b. increase total employment in the foreign country
c. reduce total output in the United States
d. increase total output in the United States

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Darryn D'Souza
Darryn D'SouzaLv10
30 Sep 2019

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