Q1. The total resource cost of goods and services produced by the U. S. economy is known as
a. real GDP
b. personal income
c. national wealth
d. national income
Q2. The difference between GDP and final sales equals
a. depreciation
b. exports
c. imports
d. net inventory change
Q3. Current disposable income can be adjusted for price changes and population changes to yield real per capita disposable income.
a. true
b. false
Q4. If a lawn service mows your grass, it is included in the GDP.
a. true
b. false
Q5. In national income accounting, grain fed to a hog at a commercial hog farm is considered a(n)
a. final good
b. intermediate good
c. consumer good
d. capital consumption allowance
Q6. Imports constitute a minus figure in national income accounting.
a. true
b. false
Q7. The total value added in the production of a final good
a. exceeds the price of the final good
b. equals the price of the final good
c. exceeds the total payments made to owners of productive resources used in the production
d. both (b) and (c)
Q8. The GDP is reported on a monthly basis by the Department of Commerce.
a. true
b. false
Q9. Transfer payments are added to NI in the process of determining personal income.
a. true
b. false
Q10. U.S. gross domestic product is converted to U.S. gross national product by
a. adding the value of output produced by U.S.-owned resources in foreign countries
b. subtracting the value of output produced by U.S.-owned resources in foreign countries
c. subtracting the value of output produced in the United States by foreign-owned resources
d. both (a) and (c)
Q11. Final sales are always larger than the GDP.
a. true
b. false
Q12. Because of the value of things produced inside households, (building your own desk, mowing your own lawn, etc.)
a. the GDP value is automatically adjusted upward to reflect this
b. the GDP value is automatically adjusted downward to reflect this
c. Official GDP is surely smaller than true total output
d. Official GDP is surely larger than true total output
Q13. A government surplus may trigger a decline in the money supply.
a. true
b. false
Q14. Real wages are determined by multiplying money wages by the CPI.
a. true
b. false
Q15. The more volatile the inflation rate, the weaker the money supply as a standard of deferred payment.
a. true
b. false
Q16. An increase in the money supply always causes an increase in the price level.
a. true
b. false
Q17. Your nominal wages rose during the same period from $200 a week to $260. By how much did your real income rise?
a. 30 percent
b. 16.7 percent
c. 8.33 percent
d. 12 percent
Q18. In the past 10 years or so, average real wages of U.S. workers in nonagricultural industries have
a. increased about 40 percent
b. increased slightly
c. remained about the same
d. declined
Q19. If a new cash deposit creates excess reserves of $5,000 and the required reserve ratio is 10 percent, the banking system can increase the money supply by a maximum of
a. $50,000
b. $500
c. $5,000
d. $4,500
Q20. The effect of a change in the money supply on economic activity may be offset by a change in velocity.
a. true
b. false
Q21. The current base period for the CPI is
a. 1967
b. 1977
c. 1982â1984
d. 1990
Q22. In the circular flow, an increase in the money supply tends to result when
a. planned I equals planned S
b. planned I is less than planned S
c. planned I is greater than planned S
d. there is a surplus government budget
Q23. COLA is a form of indexation.
a. true
b. false
Q24. The total checkable deposits a bank may have can be determined by dividing its reserves by the reserve requirement.
a. true
b. false
Q25. The Financial Services Modernization Act
a. reinforced the Glass Steagall Act
b. prevented mergers of banks
c. eliminated barriers between banks, brokerage houses, and insurance companies
d. eliminated all banking regulations
Q26. Each Federal Reserve Bank has its own board of directors.
a. true
b. false
Q27. The most frequently used tool of U.S. monetary policy is
a. the discount rate
b. the reserve requirement
c. open-market operations
d. moral suasion
Q28. When the Fed conducts open-market operations, it primarily uses
a. Treasury bills
b. long-term U.S. government bonds
c. bonds of publicly traded corporations
d. overnight loans of major banks
Q29. The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System has
a. 6 members
b. 7 members
c. 1 member from each Federal Reserve Bank
d. 20 members
Q30. If the Fed desires to increase checkable deposits, it may lower the reserve requirement.
a. true
b. false
Q31. The interest rate at which banks borrow excess reserves from each other is known as the
a. prime rate
b. federal funds rate
c. discount rate
d. T-bill rate
Q32. If member banks need to borrow reserves, they must do so through the discount window.
a. true
b. false
Q33. The Fed Chairman appears before Congress semi-annually to present the Monetary Policy Report.
a. true
b. false
Q34. In terms of the total number of payments, which of the following comprises the largest share?
a. cash
b. personal checks
c. debit cards
d. credit cards
Q35. By buying government securities, the Federal Open Market Committee adds to member banks' reserves.
a. true
b. false
Q36. More than 50 percent of commercial banks in the United States belong to the Federal Reserve System.
a. true
b. false
Q37. The Federal Reserve System is built around
a. 4 regional banks
b. 6 regional banks
c. 12 district banks
d. 1 bank with several branches
Q38. The time lags lead monetarists to contend that monetary policy is counterproductive.
a. true
b. false
Q39. The marginal propensity to consume is
a. the fraction of an increase in income that would be spent on consumer goods
b. the additional desire people have for consumer goods
c. the fraction of a person's total income normally spent for consumer goods
d. the change in consumption resulting from a $1 change in the price level
Q40. The consumption function shows
a. how fast the economy is consuming its capital
b. that the amount of national income determines the rate at which the economy consumes its resources
c. that households' incomes determine how much the households will spend for consumer goods
d. the rate at which people actually use up their consumer goods
Q41. In the simple Keynesian model, if output exceeds aggregate expenditures,
a. there will be no response from businesses
b. inventories will decrease and businesses will increase output
c. inventories will increase and businesses will increase output
d. inventories will increase and businesses will decrease output
Q42. If planned construction investment increases by $30 billion and the MPC is two-thirds, total output will increase by
a. $30 billion
b. $20 billion
c. $45 billion
d. $90 billion
Q43. "A given change in business investment will cause a larger change in equilibrium output." This statement describes an important Keynesian concept called the
a. multiplier effect
b. marginal propensity to consume
c. marginal propensity to invest
d. consumption function
Q44. In the multiplier formula, 1/MPS equals the multiplier.
a. true
b. false
Q45. The classical economists held that chronic unemployment was likely.
a. true
b. false
Q46. As income increases, the absolute level of planned consumption will increase.
a. true
b. false
Q47. The new classical school contends that government fiscal policy is better than monetary policy in controlling inflation.
a. true
b. false
Q48. Higher price levels are associated with lower aggregate expenditure at every level of income.
a. true
b. false
Q49. Any time that planned leakages exceed planned injections, the economy will expand.
a. true
b. false
Q50. According to the Keynesian model, increased foreign spending for U.S. goods is likely to
a. reduce total employment in the United States
b. increase total employment in the foreign country
c. reduce total output in the United States
d. increase total output in the United States
| Q1. The total resource cost of goods and services produced by the U. S. economy is known as a. real GDP b. personal income c. national wealth d. national income Q2. The difference between GDP and final sales equals a. depreciation b. exports c. imports d. net inventory change Q3. Current disposable income can be adjusted for price changes and population changes to yield real per capita disposable income. a. true b. false Q4. If a lawn service mows your grass, it is included in the GDP. a. true b. false Q5. In national income accounting, grain fed to a hog at a commercial hog farm is considered a(n) a. final good b. intermediate good c. consumer good d. capital consumption allowance Q6. Imports constitute a minus figure in national income accounting. a. true b. false Q7. The total value added in the production of a final good a. exceeds the price of the final good b. equals the price of the final good c. exceeds the total payments made to owners of productive resources used in the production d. both (b) and (c) Q8. The GDP is reported on a monthly basis by the Department of Commerce. a. true b. false Q9. Transfer payments are added to NI in the process of determining personal income. a. true b. false Q10. U.S. gross domestic product is converted to U.S. gross national product by a. adding the value of output produced by U.S.-owned resources in foreign countries b. subtracting the value of output produced by U.S.-owned resources in foreign countries c. subtracting the value of output produced in the United States by foreign-owned resources d. both (a) and (c) Q11. Final sales are always larger than the GDP. a. true b. false Q12. Because of the value of things produced inside households, (building your own desk, mowing your own lawn, etc.) a. the GDP value is automatically adjusted upward to reflect this b. the GDP value is automatically adjusted downward to reflect this c. Official GDP is surely smaller than true total output d. Official GDP is surely larger than true total output Q13. A government surplus may trigger a decline in the money supply. a. true b. false Q14. Real wages are determined by multiplying money wages by the CPI. a. true b. false Q15. The more volatile the inflation rate, the weaker the money supply as a standard of deferred payment. a. true b. false Q16. An increase in the money supply always causes an increase in the price level. a. true b. false Q17. Your nominal wages rose during the same period from $200 a week to $260. By how much did your real income rise? a. 30 percent b. 16.7 percent c. 8.33 percent d. 12 percent Q18. In the past 10 years or so, average real wages of U.S. workers in nonagricultural industries have a. increased about 40 percent b. increased slightly c. remained about the same d. declined Q19. If a new cash deposit creates excess reserves of $5,000 and the required reserve ratio is 10 percent, the banking system can increase the money supply by a maximum of a. $50,000 b. $500 c. $5,000 d. $4,500 Q20. The effect of a change in the money supply on economic activity may be offset by a change in velocity. a. true b. false Q21. The current base period for the CPI is a. 1967 b. 1977 c. 1982â1984 d. 1990 Q22. In the circular flow, an increase in the money supply tends to result when a. planned I equals planned S b. planned I is less than planned S c. planned I is greater than planned S d. there is a surplus government budget Q23. COLA is a form of indexation. a. true b. false Q24. The total checkable deposits a bank may have can be determined by dividing its reserves by the reserve requirement. a. true b. false Q25. The Financial Services Modernization Act a. reinforced the Glass Steagall Act b. prevented mergers of banks c. eliminated barriers between banks, brokerage houses, and insurance companies d. eliminated all banking regulations Q26. Each Federal Reserve Bank has its own board of directors. a. true b. false Q27. The most frequently used tool of U.S. monetary policy is a. the discount rate b. the reserve requirement c. open-market operations d. moral suasion Q28. When the Fed conducts open-market operations, it primarily uses a. Treasury bills b. long-term U.S. government bonds c. bonds of publicly traded corporations d. overnight loans of major banks Q29. The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System has a. 6 members b. 7 members c. 1 member from each Federal Reserve Bank d. 20 members Q30. If the Fed desires to increase checkable deposits, it may lower the reserve requirement. a. true b. false Q31. The interest rate at which banks borrow excess reserves from each other is known as the a. prime rate b. federal funds rate c. discount rate d. T-bill rate Q32. If member banks need to borrow reserves, they must do so through the discount window. a. true b. false Q33. The Fed Chairman appears before Congress semi-annually to present the Monetary Policy Report. a. true b. false Q34. In terms of the total number of payments, which of the following comprises the largest share? a. cash b. personal checks c. debit cards d. credit cards Q35. By buying government securities, the Federal Open Market Committee adds to member banks' reserves. a. true b. false Q36. More than 50 percent of commercial banks in the United States belong to the Federal Reserve System. a. true b. false Q37. The Federal Reserve System is built around a. 4 regional banks b. 6 regional banks c. 12 district banks d. 1 bank with several branches Q38. The time lags lead monetarists to contend that monetary policy is counterproductive. a. true b. false Q39. The marginal propensity to consume is a. the fraction of an increase in income that would be spent on consumer goods b. the additional desire people have for consumer goods c. the fraction of a person's total income normally spent for consumer goods d. the change in consumption resulting from a $1 change in the price level Q40. The consumption function shows a. how fast the economy is consuming its capital b. that the amount of national income determines the rate at which the economy consumes its resources c. that households' incomes determine how much the households will spend for consumer goods d. the rate at which people actually use up their consumer goods Q41. In the simple Keynesian model, if output exceeds aggregate expenditures, a. there will be no response from businesses b. inventories will decrease and businesses will increase output c. inventories will increase and businesses will increase output d. inventories will increase and businesses will decrease output Q42. If planned construction investment increases by $30 billion and the MPC is two-thirds, total output will increase by a. $30 billion b. $20 billion c. $45 billion d. $90 billion Q43. "A given change in business investment will cause a larger change in equilibrium output." This statement describes an important Keynesian concept called the a. multiplier effect b. marginal propensity to consume c. marginal propensity to invest d. consumption function Q44. In the multiplier formula, 1/MPS equals the multiplier. a. true b. false Q45. The classical economists held that chronic unemployment was likely. a. true b. false Q46. As income increases, the absolute level of planned consumption will increase. a. true b. false Q47. The new classical school contends that government fiscal policy is better than monetary policy in controlling inflation. a. true b. false Q48. Higher price levels are associated with lower aggregate expenditure at every level of income. a. true b. false Q49. Any time that planned leakages exceed planned injections, the economy will expand. a. true b. false Q50. According to the Keynesian model, increased foreign spending for U.S. goods is likely to a. reduce total employment in the United States b. increase total employment in the foreign country c. reduce total output in the United States d. increase total output in the United States |
Related textbook solutions
Related questions
Question 1
Which of the following describes the relationship between the change in inventories and aggregate expenditure?
| A. | Aggregate expenditure equals the change in inventories minus GDP. |
| B. | The change in inventories equals GDP divided by aggregate expenditures. |
| C. | Aggregate expenditures equals GDP divided by the change in inventories. |
| D. | Aggregate expenditures equals GDP minus the change in inventories. |
| E. | The change in inventories equals GDP multiplied by aggregate expenditure. |
1 points
Question 2
Suppose the marginal propensity to consume is 0.80 and taxes decrease by $10 billion. Which of the following is true?
| A. | Disposable income and consumption fall by $10 billion |
| B. | Disposable income and consumption rise by $10 billion |
| C. | Disposable income rises by $10 billion and consumption rises by $8 billion |
| D. | Disposable income falls by $10 billion and consumption falls by $8 billion |
| E. | Disposable income rises by $10 billion and consumption falls by $8 billion |
1 points
Question 3
If aggregate expenditure at a particular level of income is less than output,
| A. | output will increase |
| B. | output will decrease |
| C. | output will remain the same |
| D. | output will rise slightly and then level off |
| E. | we cannot determine what will happen to output |
1 points
Question 4
The consumption function
| A. | illustrates the relationship between real disposable income and real consumption spending |
| B. | illustrates the relationship between the price level and real consumption spending |
| C. | is the relationship between productivity and real consumption spending |
| D. | shows how real consumption increases when real disposable income decreases |
| E. | illustrates the relationship between real consumption spending and employment |
1 points
Question 5
The focus of the short-run macro model is on the role of
| A. | spending in explaining economic fluctuations |
| B. | labor in explaining economic fluctuations |
| C. | financial markets in explaining economic fluctuations |
| D. | output in explaining economic fluctuations |
| E. | resources in explaining economic fluctuations. |
1 points
Question 6
If the output level is such that the aggregate expenditure line lies below the 45-degree line, which of the following is true?
| A. | Aggregate expenditure is greater than output, so inventories will increase and output will be raised. |
| B. | Aggregate expenditure is greater than output, so inventories will decrease and output will be increased. |
| C. | Aggregate expenditure is less than output, so inventories will decrease and output will be raised. |
| D. | Aggregate expenditure is less than output, so inventories will increase and output will be lowered. |
| E. | Aggregate expenditure is greater than output, so inventories will increase and output will be lowered. |
1 points
Question 7
If the marginal propensity to consume is 0.7, the expenditure multiplier is
| A. | 7.0 |
| B. | 0.7 |
| C. | 3.0 |
| D. | 3.3 |
| E. | not determinable without additional information. |
1 points
Question 8
Aggregate expenditure is the sum of
| A. | all types of spending by households and firms |
| B. | spending and savings by households |
| C. | spending by households and governments on final goods and services |
| D. | spending by households, government, firms, and foreigners on final goods and services |
| E. | all spending and saving by households, firms, and governments |
1 points
Question 9
If the marginal propensity to consume is 0.5 and disposable income increases by $10,000, by how much will consumption spending increase?
| A. | $10,000 |
| B. | $500 |
| C. | $50 |
| D. | $5,000 |
| E. | $9,524 |
1 points
Question 10
When real consumption expenditure is plotted against real disposable income the resulting relationship is
| A. | very weak. |
| B. | virtually flat . |
| C. | positive and very close to linear. |
| D. | negative and very close to linear. |
