answers

watching

views

10 Jan 2018

Consider a small open economy in which aggregate expenditures, AE, is the sum of consumption spending by households, investment spending by firms, government expenditures and net exports. You may assume that net exports are independent of real GDP and taxes are lumpâsum. The numbers in the table below are in billions.

Real GDP Consumption Investment Gov't Expend. Net Exports Taxes Aggregate Expenditures

1000 1430 120 50 -100 160 A

2000 B 120 50 -100 160 2250

3000 2930 120 50 -100 160 3000

4000 3680 120 50 -100 160 3750

5000 4430 120 50 -100 160 4500

a. (4 pts) For the table below, calculate the missing values, A and B. b. (2 pts) From the table above, what kind of situation is the country in with regards to the trade balance (i.e. do we have a trade surplus or deficit)? What kind of situation is the country in with regards to the domestic balance (i.e. is the government running a deficit or surplus)? c. (4 pts) Use the table above to calculate the slope of the AE curve. [Hint: Recall that the slope of the AE curve is the additional increase in aggregate expenditures arising from an increase in GDP.] d. (4 pts) Recall that the Aggregate Expenditure function is written as: AE = AE0 + (slope of AE) *Y where AE0 is Autonomous Expenditures. Use the table in part (a) and your answer to part (c) above to calculate Autonomous Expenditure AE0. [Hint: Calculate induced expenditures for any given level of GDP, and use your answer to figure out AE0] e. (2 pts) In the table above, what is the value of real GDP in equilibrium? f. (4 pts) Suppose that the government decides to spend 500 billion more. By calculating the multiplier (or any other way), calculate the value of the new equilibrium value of real GDP!

answers

watching

643

views

For unlimited access to Homework Help, a Homework+ subscription is required.

You have 0 free answers left.
Get unlimited access to 3.8 million step-by-step answers.

Get unlimited access

Already have an account? Log in

glorysoft2Lv10

28 Sep 2022

Unlock all answers

Get 1 free homework help answer.

Already have an account? Log in

You have 0 free answers left.
Get unlimited access to 3.8 million step-by-step answers.

Get unlimited access

Already have an account? Log in

Jamar FerryLv2

11 Jan 2018

Already have an account? Log in

Related questions

Assume that the equations below describe the expenditures within a particular macroeconomy and that these equations conform to the assumptions we've made in the lecture regarding the fixed price level Aggregate Expenditure model. All values for expenditure and income are dollar amounts, but for simplicity, we've dropped the $ below.

C = 0.8(DI) + 1000	C = Consumption expenditure, DI = Disposable Income
I = 2000	I = Investment expenditure
G = 1000	G = government expenditure
X = 1600	X = spending on exports
M = 1800	M = spending on imports
DI = Y - T	Y = real GDP, T = tax revenues/>
T = 1000
Yp = 12000	Yp = Potential GDP

Given the equations above, we can describe the GDP, government budget, and net exports in this economy. Select three characteristics from the list below which accurately describe this economy. Note that there is no partial credit on this question. I.e., your answer will either be all correct, or all wrong.

	a.	inflationary gap
	b.	recessionary gap
	c.	no output gap
	d.	government budget surplus
	e.	government budget deficit
	f.	balanced government budget
	g.	trade deficit
	h.	trade surplus
	i.	net exports of zero

pucearmadillo585

TRUE / FALSE

1. True False In the aggregate expenditures model presented in the textbook,

investment is assumed to rise with increases in real GDP and fall with decreases in real GDP.

2. True False When C + I_g = GDP in a private closed economy, S = I_g and there are no unplanned changes in inventories.

3. True False The risk-free interest rate is the rate on long-term U.S. government bonds.

4. True False Bond prices and interest rates are directly or positively related.

5. True False The public debt is the accumulation of all deficits and surpluses that have occurred through time.

6. True False The M₂ money supply may be larger or smaller than the M₁ money supply depending on the size of small-denominated time deposit balances and Money Market Mutual Fund balances held by individuals.

7. True False Excess reserves are the amount by which required reserves exceed actual reserves.

8. True False The public debt is held as Treasury bills, Treasury notes, Treasury bonds, and U.S. savings bonds.

9. True False The equilibrium price level and equilibrium level of real GDP occur at the intersection of the aggregate demand curve and the aggregate supply curve.

10. True False Investment is highly stable; it increases over time at a very steady rate.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

11. A recessionary expenditure gap is:

A. the amount by which the full-employment GDP exceeds the level of aggregate expenditures.

B. the amount by which equilibrium GDP falls short of the full-employment GDP.

C. the amount by which investment exceeds saving at the full-employment GDP.

D. the amount by which aggregate expenditures exceed the full-employment level of GDP.

12. The multiplier effect indicates that:

A. a decline in the interest rate will cause a proportionately larger increase in investment.

B. a change in spending will change aggregate income by a larger amount.

C. a change in spending will increase aggregate income by the same amount.

D. an increase in total income will generate a larger change in aggregate expenditures.

13. Which one of the following is true about the U.S. Federal Reserve System?

There are 12 regional Federal Reserve Banks.

B. The head of the U.S. Treasury also chairs the Federal Reserve Board.

C. There are 14 members of the Federal Reserve Board.

D. The Open Market Committee is smaller in size than the Federal Reserve Board.

14. If the nominal interest rate is 18 percent and the real interest rate is 6 percent, the inflation rate is:

A. 18 percent.

B. 24 percent.

C. 12 percent.

D. 6 percent.

15.

Refer to the above diagram for a private closed economy. The equilibrium level of GDP is:

A. $400.

B. $300.

C. $200.

D. $100.

16. Which of the following represents the most expansionary fiscal policy?

A. a $10 billion tax cut

B. a $10 billion increase in government spending

C. a $10 billion tax increase

D. a $10 billion decrease in government spending

17.

Refer to the above table. The economy shown is a:

A. private economy.

B. private open economy.

C. mixed closed economy.

D. mixed open economy.

18. Currency held in the vault of First National Bank is:

A. counted as part of M₁.

B. counted as part of M₂, but not M₁.

C. only counted as part of M₁ if it was deposited into a checking account.

D. not counted as part of the money supply.

19. If the dollar appreciates relative to foreign currencies, we would expect:

A. the multiplier to decrease.

B. the country's exports and imports to both fall.

C. the country's net exports to rise.

D. the country's net exports to fall.

20. The most important determinant of consumption and saving is the:

A. level of bank credit.

B. level of income.

C. interest rate.

D. price level.

21. The multiple by which the commercial banking system can increase the supply of money on the basis of each dollar of excess reserves is equal to:

A. the reciprocal of the required reserve ratio.

B. 1 minus the required reserve ratio.

C. the reciprocal of the income velocity of money.

D. 1/MPS.

22. Which one of the following would not shift the aggregate demand curve?

A. a change in the price level

B. depreciation of the international value of the dollar

C. a decline in the interest rate at each possible price level

D. an increase in personal income tax rate

23. The cyclically-adjusted budget tells us:

A. that in a full-employment economy the Federal budget should be in balance.

B. that tax revenues should vary inversely with GDP.

C. what the size of the Federal budget deficit or surplus would be if the economy was at full

employment.

D. the actual budget deficit or surplus realized in any given year.

24. The aggregate supply curve:

A. is explained by the interest rate, real-balances, and foreign purchases effects.

B. gets steeper as the economy moves from the top of the curve to the bottom of the curve.

C. shows the various amounts of real output that businesses will produce at each price level.

D. is downsloping because real purchasing power increases as the price level falls.

25.

Refer to the above diagram. If the equilibrium price level is P₁, then:

A. aggregate demand is AD₂.

B. the equilibrium output level is Q₃.

C. the equilibrium output level is Q₂.

D. producers will supply output level Q₁

26. Discretionary fiscal policy refers to:

A. any change in government spending or taxes that destabilizes the economy.

B. the authority that the President has to change personal income tax rates.

C. intentional changes in taxes and government expenditures made by Congress to stabilize the economy.

D. the changes in taxes and transfers that occur as GDP changes.

27.

Refer to the above diagram. Which tax system has the most built-in stability?

A. T₄

B. T₃

C. T₂

D. T₁

28.

Refer to the given graph. A shift of the consumption schedule from C₁ to C₂ might be caused by a(n):

A.	recession.

B.	wealth effect of an increase in stock market prices.

C.	increase in income tax rates.

D.	increase in saving.

29. When a bank loan is repaid the supply of money:

A. is constant, but its composition will have changed.

B. is decreased.

C. is increased.

D. may either increase or decrease.

30. The Federal budget deficit is found by:

A. subtracting government tax revenues plus government borrowing from government spending in a particular year.

B. subtracting government tax revenues from government spending in a particular year.

C. cumulating the differences between government spending and tax revenues over all years since the nation's founding.

D. subtracting government revenues from the noninvestment-type government spending in a particular year.

31.

Refer to the above information. Money supply M₁ for this economy is:

A. $ 60.

B. $ 70.

C. $ 130.

D. $ 140.

32. Which of the following statements is true as a result of Federal Reserve efforts to rescue the financial industry from the financial crisis of 2007 and 2008?

From February 2008, to May 2009, the Fed oversaw the consolidation of 20 major financial institutions into fewer than a dozen.

B. From March 2008, to February 2009, the Fed experienced a 50 percent decline in the value of assets held.

C. From February 2008, to March 2009, Fed assets more than doubled to nearly $2 trillion.

D. From February 2008, to March 2009, Fed lending caused the U.S. public debt to rise by over $1 trillion.

33. Which of the following is the basic economic policy function of the Federal Reserve Banks?

holding the deposits or reserves of commercial banks

B. acting as fiscal agents for the Federal government

C. controlling the supply of money

D. the collection or clearing of checks among commercial banks

34. In a fractional reserve banking system:

A. bank panics cannot occur.

B. the monetary system must be backed by gold.

C. banks can create money through the lending process.

D. the Federal Reserve has no control over the amount of money in circulation.

35.

Refer to the diagram that applies to a private closed economy. The APC is equal to 1 at income level:

36. Assume the Continental National Bank's balance statement is as follows:

Assuming a legal reserve ratio of 20 percent, how much in excess reserves would this bank have after a check for $10,000 was drawn and cleared against it?

A. $ 3,000

B. $ 24,000

C. $ 6,000

D. $ 16,000

37. Answer the question on the basis of the following table for a commercial bank or thrift:

Refer to the above table. When the legal reserve ratio is 25 percent, the excess reserves of this single bank are:

A. $0.

B. $1,000.

C. $5,000.

D. $30,000.

38. Which of the following is a tool of monetary policy?

A. open market operations

B. changes in banking laws

C. changes in tax rates

D. changes in government spending

39. An increase in nominal GDP increases the demand for money because:

A. interest rates will rise.

B. more money is needed to finance a larger volume of transactions.

C. bond prices will fall.

D. the opportunity cost of holding money will decline.

40. Answer the next question on the basis of the following table:

At equilibrium in the above market for money, the total amount of money demanded is:

A. $500.

B. $480.

C. $460.

D. $440.

41. For most financial assets investors must be compensated for:

A. non-diversifiable and diversifiable risk.

B. diversifiable risk and time preference.

C. non-diversifiable risk and time preference.

D. non-diversifiable and diversifiable risk, and time preference.

42. Reserves must be deposited in the Federal Reserve Banks by:

A. only commercial banks which are members of the Federal Reserve System.

B. all depository institutions, that is, all commercial banks and thrift institutions.

C. state chartered commercial banks only.

D. federally chartered commercial banks only.

43.

Refer to the diagrams. Assuming a constant price level, an increase in aggregate expenditures from AE₁to AE₂ would:

A.	move the economy from A to C along AD₁.

B.	move the economy from C to A along AD₁.

C.	increase aggregate demand from AD₁ to AD₂.

D.	decrease aggregate demand from AD₂ to AD₁.

44. The discount rate is the interest:

A. rate at which the central banks lend to the U.S. Treasury.

B. rate at which the Federal Reserve Banks lend to commercial banks.

C. yield on long-term government bonds.

D. rate at which commercial banks lend to the public.

45. What concept describes how quickly an investment increases in value when interest is paid not only on the original amount invested, but also on the accumulated interest payments?

A. present value

B. future value

C. compound interest

D. real rate of interest

46. The aggregate demand curve:

A. is upsloping because a higher price level is necessary to make production profitable as production costs rise.

B. is downsloping because production costs decline as real output increases.

C. shows the amount of expenditures required to induce the production of each possible level of real output.

D. shows the amount of real output that will be purchased at each possible price level.

47. The Security Market Line depicts the relationship between the:

A. average expected rate of return on stocks and the average expected rate of return on bonds.

B. average expected rate of return of a financial asset and the discount rate.

C. risk level of a financial asset and the prime interest rate.

D. average expected rate of return and risk level of a financial asset.

48. Arbitrage causes all financial assets:

A. of the same risk level to have the same price.

B. to have the same expected rate of return.

C. to have the same beta.

D. of the same risk level to have the same average expected rate of return.

49.

Refer to the diagrams. The numbers in parentheses after the AD₁, AD₂, and AD₃ labels indicate the levels of investment spending associated with each curve. All figures are in billions. If the money supply is MS₁ and the goal of the monetary authorities is full-employment output Q_f, they should:

A.	increase the money supply from $80 to $100.

B.	increase the money supply from $80 to $120.

C.	maintain the money supply at $80.

D.	decrease the money supply from $80 to $60.

50. Given the expected rate of return on all possible investment opportunities in the economy:

A. an increase in the real rate of interest will reduce the level of investment.

B. a decrease in the real rate of interest will reduce the level of investment.

C. a change in the real interest rate will have no impact on the level of investment.

D. an increase in the real interest rate will increase the level of investment.

END OF THE EXAM

Question 1

The law of demand states that there is a direct relationship between supply and demand.

True

False

4 points

Question 2

Equilibrium is a state of balance between supply and demand.

True

False

4 points

Question 3

Goods are scarce for both rich and poor.

True

False

4 points

Question 4

"The big corporations in this country, like ExxonMobil and GM, have deep pockets and need to be hiring more people." This is a positive statement about economic policy.

True

False

4 points

Question 5

The law of supply states that there is a direct relationship between price and quantity demanded.

True

False

4 points

Question 6

In the circular flow model, firms own economic resources, and householdsbuy the manufactured products and services.

True

False

4 points

Question 7

Households play a dual role of providing the factors of production whilepurchasing the goods and services of firms.

True

False

4 points

Question 8

Opportunity cost is the lowest valued benefit that must be sacrificed asthe result of choosing an alternative.

True

False

4 points

Question 9

Scarcity denotes that our desire for a good exceeds the amount that isfreely available from nature.

True

False

4 points

Question 10

Economics is a social science concerned with satisfying man's unlimitedwants with limited resources.

True

False

4 points

Question 11

Joint output of individuals or nations will be maximized when goods areexchanged between parties in accordance with the law of"comparative advantage".

True

False

4 points

Question 12

The production possibilities frontier assumes that the level of technologyvaries when applying the model.

True

False

4 points

Question 13

Excess demand in the market will cause the price of a product to decline.

True

False

4 points

Question 14

Demand is measured on the vertical axis and supply on the horizontalaxis.

True

False

4 points

Question 15

A change in quantity demanded is a movement along the same demandcurve.

True

False

4 points

Question 16

As globalization and world trade proliferates, individual markets withincountries' economies become more competitive.

True

False

4 points

Question 17

Which growth theory compares a subsistence real wage rate to the actual real wage rate?

		Classical growth theory
		Inflation growth theory
		Neoclassical growth theory
		New growth theory

4 points

Question 18

Suppose the working age population in Tiny Town is 100 people. If 25 of these people are NOT in the labor force, the ________ equals ________.

		unemployment rate; 25/100 Ã 100
		employment rate; 25/75 Ã 100
		labor force; 75
		labor force; 25/100 Ã 100

4 points

Question 19

Suppose there is a rise in the real wage rate. As a result, the quantity of labor demanded:

		increases.
		decreases.
		does not change because there is no change in the money wage rate.
		increases only if the price level also decreases.

4 points

Question 20

GDP can be computed as the sum of:

		all sales that have taken place in an economy over a period of time.
		the total expenditures of consumers and business over a period of time.
		the total expenditures of consumption, investment, and government expenditure on goods and services over a period of time.
		the total expenditures of consumption, investment, government expenditure on goods and services, and net exports over a period of time.

4 points

Question 21

The real wage rate equals:

		(100 x (money wage rate/price level)
		(100 x (price level/money wage rate)
		(money wage rate x (price level)
		(money wage + (number of hours worked/(price level)

4 points

Question 22

If the CPI was 121.5 at the end of 2007 and 138.3 at the end of 2008, the inflation rate over these two years was:

		10.2 percent.
		13.8 percent.
		12.2 percent.
		16.8 percent.

4 points

Question 23

A movement along the production function is the result of a change in:

		the quantity of labor.
		technology.
		capital.
		interest rates.

4 points

Question 24

All of the following are part of fiscal policy EXCEPT:

		setting tax rates.
		setting government spending.
		choosing the size of the government deficit.
		controlling the money supply.

4 points

Question 25

Along a production possibilities frontier for real GDP and the quantity of leisure time, as leisure time increases, real GDP:

		decreases.
		increases.
		stays the same.
		could increase, decrease or stay the same.

lavenderminnow570

Weekly leaderboard

Home

Homework Help 3,900,000

Economics 400,000

Unlock all answers

Related textbook solutions

Principles of Economics

Principles of Macroeconomics

Principles of Microeconomics

Related questions

Related Documents

ECO 1102 Chapter Notes - Chapter 8: John Maynard Keynes, Disposable And Discretionary Income, Potential Output

ECON 110 Chapter Notes - Chapter 22: Disposable And Discretionary Income, Autonomous Consumption, Canadian Dollar

ECO102H1 Chapter Notes - Chapter 22: Autonomous Consumption, Disposable And Discretionary Income, Canadian Dollar

Weekly leaderboard

Real GDP	Consumption	Investment	Gov't Expend.	Net Exports	Taxes	Aggregate Expenditures
1000	1430	120	50	-100	160	A
2000	B	120	50	-100	160	2250
3000	2930	120	50	-100	160	3000
4000	3680	120	50	-100	160	3750
5000	4430	120	50	-100	160	4500