HLTB21H3 Lecture Notes - Lecture 6: Smallpox, Orthopoxvirus, Ramesses V

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31 Oct 2010

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Believed to have appeared around 10,000bc, at the time of the rst agricultural settlements in. Ne africa and spread to india by means of ancient egyptian merchants. Earliest evidence of skin lesions resembling those of smallpox on egyptian mummies (1570 - The mummi ed head of the egyptian pharaoh ramses v (died 1156 bc) bears evidence of teh disease. Concurrently, smallpox has been reported in ancient asian cultures, described 1122 bc in. China and is mentioned in ancient texts of india. Introduced to europe between the fth and seventh centuries and was frequently epidemic during the middle ages. Plague of antonine - decline of the roman empire (ad 108) Introduction by the spanish and portugese led to the decimation of the local population and was instrumental in the fall of the empire of the aztees and the incas. Eastern coast of north america. the disease was introduced by the early settlers and led to a decline in the native population.

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1) What is the most efficient and cost-effective way to control infectious diseases? A) variolation C) passive immunotherapy using immunoglobulins B) active immunization by vaccination D) immune testing E) autoimmunization 2) Variolation was first used _______ A) to immunize the Chinese against smallpox. B) to protect individuals against the plague during the Middle Ages. C) to spread smallpox throughout the Native American populations. D) to treat individuals exposed to hepatitis. E) for research purposes in the 20th century. 3) Almost a century after Edward Jenner introduced successful vaccination, Louis Pasteur developed vaccine(s) against A) anthrax. B) human cholera. C) rabies. D) influenza. E) both anthrax and rabies. 4) Pathogens may be attenuated for use in vaccines by ______ A) raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells. B) genetic manipulation. C) treatment with formaldehyde. D) genetic manipulation coupled with treatment with formaldehyde. E) genetic manipulation and/or raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells. 5) Which of the following statements regarding an inactivated vaccine is FALSE? A) It can be produced with deactivated whole microorganisms. B) It can be produced from antigenic fragments of a pathogen. C) It is safer than an attenuated vaccine. D) It is made from mutated forms of the pathogen. E) It is made from pathogens that cannot replicate. 6) Which of the following substances is commonly used to inactivate microbes before using them for vaccination? A) formaldehyde B) aluminum C) mineral oil D) saponin E) aluminum phosphate 7) What type of vaccine is the hepatitis B vaccine? A) inactivated whole pathogen B) attenuated vaccine C) toxoid vaccine D) a recombinant vaccine composed of a single antigen of the hepatitis virus E) a vaccine produced by treating the virus with formaldehyde 8) An infectious disease researcher isolates the pathogen responsible for an emerging disease. The microbe is grown in the lab for many generations. A preparation of the laboratory-grown microbe is treated with ionizing radiation and then tested for its potential as a vaccine. What type of vaccine is this? A) attenuated B) subunit C) combination D) toxoid E) inactivated whole 9) OPV, the attenuated oral poliovirus vaccine, is no longer administered in the U.S.A. because it A) is very toxic. B) does not provide good immunity. C) can revert to wild-type virulence. D) can be spread to contacts. E) can be spread to contacts and can revert to wild-type virulence. 10) Hybridomas are factories for antibodies and are produced by _____ A) combining two virus-infected cells. B) fusing plasma cells with myeloma cells. C) repeated culture of a pathogen until it loses its virulence. D) combining a viral infected cell with a bacterial infected cell. E) combining two bacterial infected cells. 11) The study and diagnosis of antigen-antibody interactions in the blood is known as _____ A) immunology. B) hematology. C) serology. D) cytology. E) histology. 12) Which type of antibody assay is represented in this figure? A) an indirect ELISA C) an indirect immunofluorescence assay B) a direct ELISA D) a western blot E) an immunodiffusion assay 13) Titration is a serological procedure that A) identifies the causative microbe of an infectious disease. B) determines the amount of an antibody in the blood. C) must be done before the western blot test to diagnose HIV. D) is used for blood grouping. E) has been replaced by genetic engineering in isolating the antigen of a pathogen. 14) A woman uses a home pregnancy test kit that tests for hCG hormone in urine. She knows this is a type of antibody assay from the kit brochure. Antibodies reacting with the hormone produce two lines on the test strip. What specific type of antibody assay does this represent? A) a direct immunofluoresence test C) an immunochromatographic assay B) a complement fixation test D) an ELISA E) a neutralization assay 15) The complement fixation test uses red blood cells as the target for complement activation. Test serum containing antibodies is combined with a known amount of antigen in a tube, and then the RBCs and antibodies against the RBCs are added. A positive result for the complement fixation test would be A) a line of precipitate near the bottom of the tube. C) loss of color in the tube. B) a cloudy solution in the tube. D) a fluorescent precipitate. E) a solution that is clear due to precipitation of RBCs.

lilaccod196

Which of the following have been used by scientists to determine evolutionary relationships and divergence times between primate species or lineages?

	A.	evidence from the fossil record
	B.	behavioral observations of living primates
	C.	molecular phylogenies
	D.	all of the above
	E.	A and C are correct

Problems with interpreting information from the fossil record include:

	A.	variation within one species may be misinterpreted (e.g. as multiple species rather than one)
	B.	differential preservation results in sample fossil populations which donât reflect the size of past populations
	C.	a species sometimes has to be defined on the basis of only one fossil specimen
	D.	all of the above
	E.	none of the above; scientists donât find any problems with interpreting fossils because the evidence is always so clear and unquestionable

Cultural practices - such as those pertaining to agriculture - can play a significant role in influencing the evolution of infectious disease microbes.

True
False

Populations that evolved to include high numbers of individuals with the "thrifty genotype" include higher frequencies of the following health problems:

	A.	influenza
	B.	obesity
	C.	diabetes
	D.	all of the above
	E.	B and C are correct

Human behavior is one of the critical factors that contribute to the evolution of more virulent (harmful) bacterial and viral strains.

True
False

Large agricultural and urban populations may be more vulnerable to infectious disease due to their:

	A.	larger population size
	B.	larger homes and dwelling structures
	C.	sedentary lifestyle
	D.	all of the above
	E.	both A and C are correct

QUESTION 1 1. The relative importance or burden of a disease within a population will depend on a number of factors including : A. Disease frequency B. Disease severity C. Disease consequences D. All of the above

QUESTION 2 1 . With the epidemiologic transition, there is a reduction in malnutrition and _____ . A. Communicable diseases B. Injuries C. Non-communicable chronic diseases D. Mental health disorders

QUESTION 3 1. A major challenge to developing a burden of disease profile in low and middle-income countries relates to A. Unwillingness to share complete information B. Conflicting disease definitions C. Challenges obtaining information related to cause of death D. All of the above

QUESTION 4 1. The demographic transition describes which of the following changes to society A. Changes in birth and death rates that reflect a modern society B. Declines in mortality followed by a reduction in fertility C. A change in the age structure of the population D. All of the above

QUESTION 5 1. Measures of health status that combine mortality and morbidity data A. Facilitate comparisons both within and across populations B. Help estimate the quantitative health benefits from interventions C. Serve as tools to assist with resource allocation D. All of the above

QUESTION 6 1. The disability-adjusted life year is defined as A. A health gap population summary measure that combines time lost due to disability with that lost due to death B. A measure to compare the gap between the current situation to that of an ideal situation C. A measure that combines the amount of healthy life lost due to morbidity with that lost due to injury. D. Answers B and C

QUESTION 7 1. True or false? A key limitation to mortality-based indicators is that they fail to account for the morbidity caused by disease. True False

QUESTION 8 1. The most widely used composite measure of population health is the DALY, and this epidemiological measure is the sum of morbidity and ________data. A. Years of life lost (YLL) B. Morbidity C. Infant mortality rates (IMR) D. none of the above

QUESTION 9 1. What would be the best source of information on adult and infant mortality (in high income countries)? A. Disease registers B. Vital statistics C. Special survey study D. Hospital clinic statistics

QUESTION 10 1. Which term is best used to describe the proportion of people in a population who have a defined disease at a specific point of time? A. DALY B. Incidence C. Mortality rate D. Prevalence

QUESTION 11 1. Which term is best used to describe new cases of disease occurring in a population? A. DALY B. Incidence C. Mortality rate D. Prevalence

QUESTION 12 1. Which term is used to describe the absence or presence of illness or disease? A. Demography B. Morbidity C. Mortality D. Vitality

QUESTION 13 1. Mortality (death indicators) include: A. Mortality rate B. Infant mortality rate C. Neonatal morality rate D. All of the above

QUESTION 14 1. True or false? The value of life is often implicit in the way resource allocation decisions are made, which suggests that these decisions should be as explicit, open, and transparent as possible. True False

QUESTION 15 1. _________________is projected as the number one leading cause of disease burden in 2030. A. Ischemic heart disease B. Diabetes mellitus C. HIV/AIDS D. Unipolar depression

QUESTION 16 1. Some of the negative aspects of globalization include A. Greater insecurity of employment B. Poorer housing and sanitation due to rapid urbanization C. Greater vulnerability to environmental degradation D. All of the above

QUESTION 17 1. Current concerns about climate change focus on several developments including A. Rising global average land and sea surface temperature B. Increasing frequency of extreme weather conditions C. Both A and B D. None of the above

QUESTION 18 1. True or false? Diseases carried by mosquitoes are especially sensitive to meteorological conditions because they are vulnerable to changes in the ambient temperature. As a result of changing temperatures, infectious diseases such as malaria and dengue have decreased in incidence and geographic range. True False

QUESTION 19 1. True or false? International cooperation of infectious disease control has a long history that includes obligatory reporting of outbreaks of specific diseases. However, compliance with obligatory reporting has been poor due to economic consequences that have often accompanied notification of disease outbreaks. True False

QUESTION 20 1. True or false? Globalization is a relatively new phenomenon that began in the mid-20th century. True False

HLTB21H3 Lecture Notes - Lecture 6: Smallpox, Orthopoxvirus, Ramesses V

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