ECO100Y1 Lecture Notes - Geometric Progression, Progressive Tax, Parsec

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10 Feb 2014

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Topic 17 national income and the price level. Jan 31st feb 7th: overview, simple model. Answer: where desired spending called aggregate expenditure (ae) equals national income (output) Assume price level is fixed ( nominal gdp = real gdp) to simplify analysis: - households" consumption (c) depends upon income (y) - savings (s) = income not consumed = y-c. Marginal-propensity-to-save (mps) = % s/% y mpc+mps=1. (for every dollar of the income is either saved or consumed;) - firms undertake investment (i) in anticipation of earning a profit; - will treat as fixed (i=25) in first example. Consumtion function: c = 10 + 0. 9y mpc = 0. 9. Savings function: s = y c = y - (10 + 0. 9y) = - 10+0. 1y mps = 0. 1 mpc. S = 0. 1y - 10 income level of. Change in consumption/savings that"s independent of change in income; Change in consumption/savings that"s brought about by change in income;

Related Questions

Question 1

Which of the following describes the relationship between the change in inventories and aggregate expenditure?

A.	Aggregate expenditure equals the change in inventories minus GDP.
B.	The change in inventories equals GDP divided by aggregate expenditures.
C.	Aggregate expenditures equals GDP divided by the change in inventories.
D.	Aggregate expenditures equals GDP minus the change in inventories.
E.	The change in inventories equals GDP multiplied by aggregate expenditure.

1 points

Question 2

Suppose the marginal propensity to consume is 0.80 and taxes decrease by $10 billion. Which of the following is true?

A.	Disposable income and consumption fall by $10 billion
B.	Disposable income and consumption rise by $10 billion
C.	Disposable income rises by $10 billion and consumption rises by $8 billion
D.	Disposable income falls by $10 billion and consumption falls by $8 billion
E.	Disposable income rises by $10 billion and consumption falls by $8 billion

1 points

Question 3

If aggregate expenditure at a particular level of income is less than output,

A.	output will increase
B.	output will decrease
C.	output will remain the same
D.	output will rise slightly and then level off
E.	we cannot determine what will happen to output

1 points

Question 4

The consumption function

A.	illustrates the relationship between real disposable income and real consumption spending
B.	illustrates the relationship between the price level and real consumption spending
C.	is the relationship between productivity and real consumption spending
D.	shows how real consumption increases when real disposable income decreases
E.	illustrates the relationship between real consumption spending and employment

1 points

Question 5

The focus of the short-run macro model is on the role of

A.	spending in explaining economic fluctuations
B.	labor in explaining economic fluctuations
C.	financial markets in explaining economic fluctuations
D.	output in explaining economic fluctuations
E.	resources in explaining economic fluctuations.

1 points

Question 6

If the output level is such that the aggregate expenditure line lies below the 45-degree line, which of the following is true?

A.	Aggregate expenditure is greater than output, so inventories will increase and output will be raised.
B.	Aggregate expenditure is greater than output, so inventories will decrease and output will be increased.
C.	Aggregate expenditure is less than output, so inventories will decrease and output will be raised.
D.	Aggregate expenditure is less than output, so inventories will increase and output will be lowered.
E.	Aggregate expenditure is greater than output, so inventories will increase and output will be lowered.

1 points

Question 7

If the marginal propensity to consume is 0.7, the expenditure multiplier is

A.	7.0
B.	0.7
C.	3.0
D.	3.3
E.	not determinable without additional information.

1 points

Question 8

Aggregate expenditure is the sum of

A.	all types of spending by households and firms
B.	spending and savings by households
C.	spending by households and governments on final goods and services
D.	spending by households, government, firms, and foreigners on final goods and services
E.	all spending and saving by households, firms, and governments

1 points

Question 9

If the marginal propensity to consume is 0.5 and disposable income increases by $10,000, by how much will consumption spending increase?

A.	$10,000
B.	$500
C.	$50
D.	$5,000
E.	$9,524

1 points

Question 10

When real consumption expenditure is plotted against real disposable income the resulting relationship is

A.	very weak.
B.	virtually flat .
C.	positive and very close to linear.
D.	negative and very close to linear.

indigognu668

1. The multiplier helps explain

A. why a decrease in taxes causes real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) to fall by more than the amount of the decrease in taxes.

B. why a fall in investment cause real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) to rise by more than the amount of the decrease in investment.

C. why a rise in government expenditures causes real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) to rise by more than the amount of the increase in government spending.

D. why an increase in disposable income causes real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) to rise by less than the amount of the increase in disposable income.

2. If the marginal propensity to save (MPS) increases, the multiplier

A. decreases.

B. can either increase or decrease, depending on what happens to the marginal propensity to consume (MPC).

C. stays the same.

D. increases.

QUESTION 60

The investment function will shift when there is a change in

		A. the opportunity cost of retained earnings.
		B. firms' profit expectations.
		C. the cost of borrowing.
		D. the interest rate.

1.43 points

QUESTION 61

In the Keynesian model, whenever planned saving exceeds planned investment,

		A. there will be unplanned inventory accumulation.
		B. real GDP will not be influenced.
		C. the interest rate will remain unchanged.
		D. there will be unplanned inventory depletion.

1.43 points

QUESTION 62

In the Keynesian model, whenever planned saving is less than planned investment,

		A. there will be unplanned inventory depletion.
		B. the interest rate will remain unchanged.
		C. there will be unplanned inventory accumulation.
		D. real GDP will not be influenced.

1.43 points

QUESTION 63

Government purchases

		A. are determined by the political process.
		B. are determined by the public.
		C. are influenced by interest rates.
		D. are determined by suppliers.

1.43 points

QUESTION 64

If, at some level of output, total planned real expenditures are less than real Gross Domestic Product (GDP),

		A. real GDP will either fall or remain unchanged, depending on the MPC.
		B. real GDP will rise.
		C. real GDP remains unchanged.
		D. unplanned inventories will increase and real GDP will fall.

1.43 points

QUESTION 65

When the economy is operating at the equilibrium level of GDP, we know that

		A. total planned real expenditures equal real GDP.
		B. real net exports equal inventory changes.
		C. planned real investment spending equals real net exports of zero.
		D. total planned real consumption expenditures equal real GDP.

1.43 points

QUESTION 66

One divided by the marginal propensity to save (MPS) is the formula for

		A. the inverse of the multiplier.
		B. the multiplier.
		C. one minus the multiplier.
		D. autonomous consumption.

QUESTION 67

Thinking like an economist would, which is true of investment?

		A. Investment represents spending on capital goods.
		B. Investment is a stock concept.
		C. Investment is putting money into stocks and bonds.
		D. It is the portion of disposable income that is not used for consumption or saving.

QUESTION 68

Other things being equal, if input prices rise in a country, then there would be

		A. cost-push inflation.
		B. demand-pull inflation.
		C. cost-pull deflation.
		D. more production and a lower price level.

QUESTION 69

In the short run, if the price level rises, then the overall economy can temporarily produce beyond its nominal capacity. One reason for this is that

		A. existing capital equipment can be used more intensively.
		B. wage rates rise almost simultaneously with the price level.
		C. the unemployment rate usually rises dramatically along with the price level.
		D. workers can be switched from counted to uncounted production.

fuchsiaclam197

41.Which of the following is a valid statement about the Keynesian and classical models of the macroeconomy?

A. Fiscal policy will affect output in the Keynesian model, but only the price level in the classical model.

B. The economy adapts quickly to demand shocks under the Keynesian model, but not under the classical model.

C. A sharp decrease in the value of a nation's currency will lead to higher price levels in the Keynesian model, but not in the classical model.

D. Increases in autonomous expenditure will increase aggregate demand in the Keynesian model, but not in the classical model.

E. An increase in the productive capacity of an economy will result in greater output in both the Keynesian and classical models.

42. Suppose the government spends $500M on a project that has absolutely no value to the country. Which statement about this project is correct?

A. If taxes were raised $500M to fund this project, the Keynesian model predicts that this will have no net effect on output in the economy.

B. If the government raised the money for this project by printing $500M in bonds and selling them to the Fed, the effect is exactly the same as if they sold the bonds to households.

C. The project will increase aggregate supply because it will increase the total quantity of goods and services supplied in the economy.

D. If the marginal propensity to save in the economy is equal to 0.25, the Keynesian model predicts that this project will result in a $2000M increase in GDP.

E. Under the assumptions of the classical model, the result of this project will be increased in both the price level and equilibrium GDP.

43. A particular economy has a consumption of $400M, a government deficit of $100M, taxes of $250M, and income of $800M. Which of the following statements must be true?

A. If the investment is zero, there is no foreign trade imbalance.

B. If the trade surplus is $50M, the investment will be equal to $100M.

C. If the capital account surplus is $50M, the investment will be equal to $100M.

D. If the trade surplus is $100M, there will be an investment.

E. None of the above statements is necessarily true.

44. Which piece of information would be least useful in trying to predict the effect of a $700M increase in government spending on equilibrium GDP?

A. marginal propensity to save

B. The slope of the aggregate supply curve

C. Whether taxes are raised to pay for the spending increase

D. The current level of structural unemployment

E. Whether the bonds used to finance the spending were sold to households or to the Fed

45.Which of the statements relating to full employment and full capacity is false?

A. At full employment there is no frictional unemployment; at full capacity, there is no structural unemployment.

B. The full-employment level of output is less than the full capacity level of output.

C. At full employment there is no cyclical unemployment; at full capacity, there is no frictional unemployment.

D. A government spending increase will result in increased output and price levels at full employment, but only increased price levels at full capacity.

E. In the long run, an economy that starts at full capacity will move to full employment.

46. What would be the effect of a law requiring that government spending equal tax revenues in each year?

A. Fiscal policy would be completely eliminated as a tool to control the macroeconomy.

B. Monetary policy would be completely eliminated as a tool to control the macroeconomy.

C. Fluctuations in GDP would become less severe.

D. The government spending multiplier would be effectively set to 1.0.

E. The marginal propensity to consume would be cut in half.

47.The total value of T-bonds, including T-notes and T-bills, in existence at any point in time, is:

A. The federal government spending deficit.

B. The trade deficit.

C. Less than government spending.

D. Necessarily less than GDP.

E. The national debt.

48. Which of the following would be a valid statement about a government plan to eliminate a trade deficit

A. A decrease in the trade deficit will decrease investment in the country.

B. An effective strategy would be to increase the money supply and increase the value of the national currency.

C. An effective strategy would be to increase interest rates and increase the value of the national currency.

D. This could be achieved through dramatically increasing aggregate supply.

E. The increase in net exports will result in a decrease in aggregate demand.

49. Crowding out has the effect(s) of:

A. Reducing the effectiveness of monetary policy if crowding out occurs in financial markets.

B. Decreasing the value of a nationâs currency if the crowding out occurs in financial markets.

C. Increasing the effectiveness of fiscal policy if the crowding out occurs in financial markets and increasing the effectiveness of monetary policy if the crowding out occurs in product markets.

D. Decreasing the effectiveness of fiscal policy if the crowding out occurs in financial markets and decreasing the effectiveness of both fiscal and monetary policy if the crowding out occurs in product markets.

E. Increasing the price of government bonds if the crowding out occurs in financial markets.

50. Which of the following will make crowding out in credit markets more severe?

A. A steep investment demand curve

B. A global credit market

C. Tax increases

D. A steep supply curve in the loanable funds market

E. None of the above

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ECO100Y1 Lecture Notes - Geometric Progression, Progressive Tax, Parsec

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