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In your lab you have several mouse cell lines growing in culture, designated culture A through culture D. Some of these cell lines are transformed and others are not. For each of the descriptions below, tell whether the cell line is transformed or normal, and explain your choice. If it is transformed, make an educated guess about the gene involved in the transformation.

A. Cell line A is insensitive to the addition of growth factors to the medium. If the cells are exposed to damaging radiation, the growth curve is unaffected. Many of the cells have abnormal numbers of chromosomes.

B. Cell line C grows quickly. The cells are impervious to the addition of serum to their medium. Upon exposure to damaging radiation, most of the cells undergo apoptosis.

C. Cell line D grows quickly and is impervious to DNA damaging radiation, entering cycle after cycle of mitosis even after large dosis of radiation. If transfected with DNA containing a gene for p53, these cells will undergo apoptosis.

In your lab you have several mouse cell lines growing inculture, designated culture A through culture D. Some of these celllines are transformed and others are not. For each of thedescriptions below, tell whether the cell line is transformed ornormal, and explain your choice. If it is transformed, make aneducated guess about the gene involved in the transformation.

A. Cell line A is insensitive to the addition of growth factorsto the medium. If the cells are exposed to damaging radiation, thegrowth curve is unaffected. Many of the cells have abnormal numbersof chromosomes.

B. Cell line B will not grow suspended in liquid media. Thecells require a hard substrate, and then they only grow until onecell layer covers the substrate; they may grow a bit denser ifgrowth factors are added to the medium. The cells lose theirability to move once the substrate is covered with a monolayer ofcells.

C. Cell line C grows quickly and is quite successful when thecells are suspended in soft agar. The cells are impervious to theaddition of serum to their medium. Upon exposure to damagingradiation, most of the cells undergo apoptosis.

D. Cell line D grows quickly and is impervious to DNA damagingradiation, entering cycle after cycle of mitosis even after largedosis of radiation. If transfected with DNA containing a gene forp53, these cells will undergo apoptosis.

Help please. Will provide lots of points. The cell biology classuses the book Lodish Molecular Cell Biology 7th edition.

In your lab you have several mouse cell lines growing in culture,designated culture A through culture D. Some of these cell linesare transformed and others are not. For each of the descriptionsbelow, tell whether the cell line is transformed or normal, andexplain your choice. If it is transformed, make an educated guessabout the gene involved in the transformation.

A. Cell line A is insensitive to the addition of growth factors tothe medium. If the cells are exposed to damaging radiation, thegrowth curve is unaffected. Many of the cells have abnormal numbersof chromosomes.

B. Cell line B will not grow suspended in liquid media. The cellsrequire a hard substrate, and then they only grow until one celllayer covers the substrate; they may grow a bit denser if growthfactors are added to the medium. The cells lose their ability tomove once the substrate is covered with a monolayer of cells.

C. Cell line C grows quickly and is quite successful when the cellsare suspended in soft agar. The cells are impervious to theaddition of serum to their medium. Upon exposure to damagingradiation, most of the cells undergo apoptosis.

D. Cell line D grows quickly and is impervious to DNA damagingradiation, entering cycle after cycle of mitosis even after largedosis of radiation. If transfected with DNA containing a gene forp53, these cells will undergo apoptosis.

In your lab you have several mouse cell lines growing in culture, designated culture A through culture D. Some of these cell lines are transformed and others are not. For each of the descriptions below, tell whether the cell line is transformed or normal, and explain your choice. If it is transformed, make an educated guess about the gene involved in the transformation.

A. Cell line A is insensitive to the addition of growth factors to the medium. If the cells are exposed to damaging radiation, the growth curve is unaffected. Many of the cells have abnormal numbers of chromosomes.

B. Cell line C grows quickly. The cells are impervious to the addition of serum to their medium. Upon exposure to damaging radiation, most of the cells undergo apoptosis.

C. Cell line D grows quickly and is impervious to DNA damaging radiation, entering cycle after cycle of mitosis even after large dosis of radiation. If transfected with DNA containing a gene for p53, these cells will undergo apoptosis.

Choose the answer which describes the following components of skeletal muscle from LARGEST to SMALLEST. 1) thick filament 2) sarcomere 3) myofibril

a. 1, 2, 3

b. 2, 1, 3

c. 1, 3, 2

d. 3, 2, 1

e. 3, 1, 2

2. In eukaryotic cells, _________determine the amount of mRNA arising from a particular gene.

a. transcriptional-level controls

b. RNA processing-level controls

c. translational-level controls

d. replication-level controls

e. b and c

3. In eukaryotic cells, _________determine how a primary transcript is converted to mature mRNA

a. transcriptional-level controls

b. RNA processing-level controls

c. translational-level controls

d. replication-level controls

e. a and d

4. In eukaryotic cells, _________determine when a particular mRNA is actually used in protein synthesis.

a. transcriptional-level controls

b. RNA processing-level controls

c. translational-level controls

d. replication-level controls

e. None of the above because protein synthesis takes place immediately

5. Under what circumstances do cells selectively activate and suppress their genes?

a. at different stages of embryonic development

b. in different tissues

c. exposure to different types of stimuli

d. No such circumstances exist in nature—cells express all their genes throughout life.

e. a, b and c

6. Which statement about the control of gene expression is FALSE?

a. A single gene may be controlled by different transcription factors.

b. A single transcription factor may be necessary for the expression of different genes.

c. Each cell type has a characteristic pattern of gene transcription, which is determined by the particular complement of transcription factors contained in that cell. d. Expression of protein genes is primarily controlled in nucleoli

e. Control of gene transcription is complex and influenced by various circumstances.

7. What is thought to maintain X chromosome inactivation in females?

a. DNA acetylation

b. DNA methylation

c. RNA inactivation

d. Histone methylation

e. None of the above because both X chromosomes are active in females and males.

Which of the following would demonstrate that the fruitless (fru) gene is necessary for male mating behavior in flies?

a) mutation of the mouse fru homolog results in changes in mating behavior in mice

b) ectopic expression of fru in female flies causes them to exhibit male mating behavior

c) fru was cloned and shown to encode a transcription factor

d) loss-of-function mutations in the fru gene cause abnormal or absent male mating behavior

Any help would be appreciated, but I would prefer a detailed response over just stating which is right.

Vasoconstriction ___________________________________.

b) increases heat loss through conduction when the skin comes into contact with a cold surface.

c) decreases heat loss because expanding the capillaries is metabolically expensive, so keeping them constricted means less energy is lost as heat.

33. John calls a suicide prevention hot line in a desperate state of helplessness. A well-trained worker should focus John's attention on ____.

a. research evidence that helplessness is a product of operant conditioning

b. the fact that helplessness is a normal reaction to an absurd world

c. specific interpersonal limitations related to his helplessness d. his strengths and resources to cope with his problems

34. Which statement about research on suicide prevention contracts is accurate?

a. There is a lack of research supporting their effectiveness.

b. Almost every study has shown these contracts save lives.

c. These contracts increase risk of nonsuicidal self-harm.

d. These contracts seem to increase risk of suicide.

35. Risk factors for suicide include ____.

a. experiencing a violent crime

b. failing a class

c. recent severe loss

d. adopting a gothic lifestyle

36. Self-harm that is intended to provide relief from negative feelings is referred to as ____.

a. a suicide attempt

b. nonsuicidal self-injury

c. a cry for help

d. attention-seeking behavior

37. Mason hears voices and believes he is Napoleon. Jason shows no emotions, even in situations where strong reactions would be expected. Mason is exhibiting ____ symptoms of schizophrenia, and Jason is exhibiting ____ symptoms.

a. positive; positive

c. negative; positive

b. positive; negative

d. negative; negative

38. "My father poisons my food, and my mother has hired a hit man to shoot me. My boss is plotting to humiliate me, and my neighbor spies on me." These comments illustrate the schizophrenic symptom known as ____.

a. Anhedonia b. catatonia c. delusions of persecution d. delusions of grandeur

39. Angela hears voices that tell her to commit suicide. She also tends to use many neologisms when she speaks and believes that the FBI is spying on her. Which statement regarding Angela is accurate?

a. Angela's negative symptoms are atypical for schizophrenia.

b. Angela exhibits positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

c. Angela exhibits negative symptoms of schizophrenia.

d. Angela could be diagnosed with residual schizophrenia.

40. Eldon, who has schizophrenia, experiences delusions. It is likely that ____.

a. he will become violent in an attempt to protect himself

b. he will never be able to challenge his delusions

c. he will try to provoke his delusions

d. he has limited awareness of how illogical they are

41. Which statement about schizophrenic hallucinations is accurate?

a. Hallucinations are directly related to environmental stimuli.

b. Hallucinations are pathognomonic to schizophrenia.

c. Hallucinations always involve negative stimuli.

d. Hallucinations usually appear to be real to the person with schizophrenia.

42. Mary has schizophrenia and usually shows a total lack of emotion. What is Mary exhibiting?

a. catatonic schizophrenia b. a negative symptom c. avolition d. anhedonia

43. Ardell had a schizophrenic episode and was diagnosed with schizophrenia ten years ago. He was treated successfully with medication and returned to work. Nonetheless, Ardell still has some problems, including peculiar mannerisms and thoughts and unusual affect. What phase of schizophrenia best characterizes Ardell’s current level of functioning?

a. Active phase

b. prodromal phase

c. residual phase

d. recovery, as his schizophrenic episode was 10 years ago active phase

44. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia are associated with ____.

a. poor social functioning

b. loose associations

c. executive functioning

d. better prognosis

45. Which characteristic is considered a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

a. hallucinations c. disorganized speech b. delusions d. avolition

46. One area of support for the dopamine hypothesis is that ____.

a. a drug that increases dopamine activity reduces symptoms

b. high levels of dopamine are found in people with Parkinson's disease

c. high-risk children have lower dopamine levels

d. a drug that blocks dopamine activity reduces symptoms

47. Ron and Jon are identical twins, but only Jon shows the symptoms of schizophrenia. Brain imaging techniques are most likely to show that Jon has ____.

a. more brain tissue than Ron

b. smaller than normal ventricles

c. higher cerebral glucose metabolism

d. ventricle enlargement

48. What is the relationship between family dysfunction and schizophrenia?

a. Family dysfunction is a major causative factor for schizophrenia.

b. Family dysfunction plays a minor role in developing schizophrenia.

c. Research has failed to substantiate a direct causal link between family dysfunction and schizophrenia.

d. Research has substantiated a link between family dysfunction and schizophrenia but can't say which causes the other.

49. Meta-analyses of studies exploring the connection between psychosis and marijuana use conclude that ____.

a. risk of psychosis is decreased by 75 percent in marijuana users

b. heavy use of marijuana increases the risk of psychosis by 50 to 200 percent

c. psychotic symptoms observed with heavy marijuana use are due to the transitory effects of intoxication

d. estimates states that up to 25 percent of the cases of psychosis might not have occurred if marijuana had not been used

50. Because medicated and adequately functioning individuals with schizophrenia have been discharged from hospitals to stressful environments, one logical change in treatment is to ____.

a. provide aversive conditioning therapy

b. reduce the dosage of medication these people take

c. provide skills training to help them deal with stress

d. make the criteria for readmission to the hospital quite strict

Schizophrenia spectrum disorders:

a. Share some of the characteristics with schizophrenia but do not meet the full criteria for a diagnosis of schizophrenia.

b. Are the more serious schizophrenic disorders and have a poor prognosis.

c. Include genetic, environmental and social components.

d. share many symptoms and etiological factors with several other Axis I disorders.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the number of vertebrae in different regions of the spine?

What role do insulator sequences play in the regulation of eukaryotic transcription?

11. Which of the following features are not part of the ATP-ADP cycle in biological systems>

a. ATP hydrolysis is used to drive reactions that require an input of free energy

b. The oxidation of fuel molecules forms ADP + Pi from ATP

c. A transmembrane proton-motive force drives ATP synthesis

d. The oxidation of fuel molecules forms ATP from ADP + Pi

12. Why can’t cells use the breakdown of glucose to pyruvate to generate energy without further conversion of pyruvate via fermentation or respiration?

a. The amount of energy produced by glycolysis alone is insufficient to fuel cell growth

b. The electron acceptor reduced during glycolysis must be generated

c. The amount of inorganic phosphate available becomes limiting

d. The rate of energy production by glycolysis alone is too slow for cells’ biochemical reactions

e. The complete breakdown of pyruvate is necessary to produce the carbon dioxide needed by cells

13. If you were studying enzymes involved in the citric acid cycle, you would isolate the following organelle:

a. Nucleus

b. Peroxisomes

c. Mitochondria

d. Lysosomes

e. Endoplasmic reticulum

14. Which of the following enzymes will not be impaired by a vitamin B1 deficiency?

a. Transketolase

b. Isocitrate dehydrogenase

c. Pyruvate dehydrogenase

d. Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

15. The rate of flow of electrons through the electron transport chain is most directly regulated by:

a. ATP:ADP ratio

b. Acetyl CoA concentration

c. Rate of oxidative phophorylation

d. Catalytic rate of cytochrome oxidase

e. Feedback inhibition by water

Which of the following description(s) regarding cellular respiration is/are correct?

I. ATP hydrolysis is used to drive reactions that require an input of free energy.

II. The oxidation of food molecules forms ATP from ADP + Pi.

III. A transmembrane proton-motive force drives ATP synthesis.

a) I only b) I and II only c) I and III only d) II and III only e) I, II, and III

1. For one molecule of glucose how many ATP, NADH, and FADH₂ molecules are formed during:

a. Glycolysis?

b. Conversion to acetyl-CoA

c. Citric acid cycle

d. Total (8a-c)

During glycolysis, how many molecules of NADH are from one glucose?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 8 e) cannot be determined

Species A prefers a dryer habitat but grows in a wet habitat. Why might this be?
A ) Species B outcompetes A in the dry habitat
B) Species A's fundamental niche is restricted to a wet habitat
C) Species A requires large amounts of moisture to grow
D) Species B prefers a wet habitat

Which statement about the interrelationship between carbohydrate and protein metabolism is incorrect?

which meningeal layer is the most superficial layer of the meninges?

a. It is a portion of the meninges located between the other two layers of the meninges

b .It is a portion of the meninges located immediately under the skull. It is the outer most layer of the meninges.

Which intravenous solution would be best to administer for a patient suffering from blood loss while waiting for a blood transfusion to arrive from the blood bank?

a ) distilled water

b) 0.9% saline

c) 0.45% saline

d) 9% saline

What would be an appropriate concentration of intravenous (IV) saline to give a patient suffering from severe water intoxication?

3.00%, 0.45%, 0.01%, 0.90%

a change in the balance of auxin and ethylene can control

a. leaf abscission

b. expansins

c. senescence

d. elongation

The hormones that promotes cell expansion and cell devision in shoots is known as:

a. gibberelins

b. Auxin

c. brassinosteroids

d. cytokinins

true of false: the endosperm is a diploid cell, responsible for the food storage of a plant.

25. Which of the following statements concerning fatty acids is incorrect?

A. fatty acids are rarely found in the free state in nature

B. double bonds present in fatty acids are almost always in a cis-configuration

C. at least 20 carbon atoms must be present in the carbon chain of a fatty acid

D. some fatty acids needed in the human body must be obtained from food because they cannot be synthesized with the body

26. In which of the following types of lipids are two ester linkages and one amide linkage present?

A. glycerophospholipids

B. sphingophospholipids

C. sphingoglycolipids

D. triacylglycerols

27. Which is the correct series of reactions in fatty acid synthesis?

A. Condensation, reduction, hydration, reduction

B. Condensation, oxidation, dehydration, oxidation

C. Reduction, hydration, reduction, thiolysis

D. Oxidation, hydration, oxidation, thiolysis

E. Condensation, reduction, dehydration, reduction

28. Linoleic acid and linolenic acid are essential fatty acids because

A. They are precursors for palmitate.

B. They are local hormones.

C. They are omega-6 fatty acids.

D. They have cis-double bonds beyond carbon 9.

E. They are omega-3 fatty acids.

29. The process of fatty acid synthesis involves all of the following except:

A. complex Fatty acid synthase

B. Acetyl CoA carboxylase

C. NADH

D. Malonyl CoA

E. acetyl coA

1. Acetyl-Co is largely impermeable to the mitochondrial membrane

True

False

2. Fatty acid synthesis goes through a series of condensation, reduction, dehydration, and reduction reactions to increase the chain 1 carbon at a time

True

False

1. Avoiding folate deficiency during pregnancy is important as without folate

1. Gout is cause by a metabolic disorder relating to:

2. The Purines are:

Which of the following processes contribute to antibody diversity?

Accelerated random mutation

Imprecise joining events of V, D, and J regions

Somatic recombination

Junctional diversity

All of the above

***anything i saw online was wrong

1.) Which of the following processes contribute to antibody diversity?

2.)

Cancer is often regarded as a genetic disease because:

Genetics , i think the answer is A. Please explain your answer!

A mating between a male donkey (2n = 62) and a female horse (2n = 64) produces sterile mules. Why are mules sterile?

Assuming that most restriction sites are symmetrical about their midpoint, which of the following is most likely to represent a restriction site?

(Please explain how to solve)

The restriction enzyme BamHI recognizes the 6 base sequence GGATCC, with the cleavage site between the 2 G’s, to give G GATCC. The 4 base cutter Sau3A recognizes the sequence GATC and cuts before the first G. This means

a. every Sau3A site is also a BamHI site

b. there are two Sau3A sites for every BamHI site

c. if a BamHI fragment is inserted at a Sau3A site it can be cut back out by BamHI

d. Sau3A fragments can be easily cloned into BamHI sites

BamHI cuts the sequence 5'-G|GATCC 3-'. Which of the following sequences would not be recognized by this enzyme?

Suppose you have a bacterial strain with the following genotype for the lac operon. How is this lac operon regulated? I- P+ O+ Z+ Y-

What would be the effect of a mutation in the lacI gene that prevented the repressor from binding to lactose?

Which of the following mutations could lead to constitutive expression of the genes of the lac operon?