chloe

1)The reason that would cause a movement along a demand curve is

6)10)Consider the market for bananas. Suppose that both the supply and the demand for bananas increases simultaneously. Which of these effects is certain?

1)A supply curve shifts when there is a change in

2)According to "Law of Demand"

3)Which of the following will cause the supply curve for oranges to shift to the left?

4)Among the following which one is the characteristic of a perfectly competitive market?

5)The reason that would cause a movement along a demand curve is

6)increase in input prices would cause

7)Suppose roses are currently selling for $20 per dozen, but the equilibrium price of roses is $30 per dozen. We would expect a

8)

Suppose there is a shortage in the market for avocados. Assuming a competitive and unrestrained market, what happens over time?

If the market for wheat is in equilibrium, the quantity of wheat demanded will equal the quantity of wheat supplied

T OR F

​A decrease in quantity demanded:

​Which of the following would cause a rightward shift in the demand curve for oranges?

Are the following workers more likely to experience short-term or long-term unemployment? Explain.

a. A construction worker laid off because of bad weather.

b. A manufacturing worker who loses his job at a plant in an isolated area.

c. A stagecoach-industry worker laid off because of competition from railroads.

d. A short-order cook who loses his job when a new restaurant opens across the street.

e. An expert welder with little formal education who loses his job when the company installs automatic welding machinery.

a. The bureau of labor statistics (BLS) announced in April 2015, of all adult Americans, 139, 455, 000 were employed, 15,260,000 were unemployed, and 82,614,000 were not in the labor force. Use this information to calculate: (no steps shown no points) (i) adult population; (ii) the labor force; (iii) labor-force participation rate; (iv) unemployment rate.

(b)(5 points) Are the following workers more likely to experience short-term or long-term unemployment? You must explain why? (i) A construction worker laid off because of bad weather; (ii) A manufacturing worker loses his job at a plant in an isolated area; (iii) A stagecoach-industry worker laid off because of competition from railroads; (iv) A home based cook-caterer loses his job when a new restaurant opens across street; (v) An expert welder with little formal education loses his job when the company installed automatic welding machine.

Knowing that a neoclassical, capitalist economy depends on continuous economic growth (by making its production, distribution, and consumption more efficient), what might a savvy political economist say in argument against the prevailing economic system? Answer a. The economic individual maximizes her utility, is self-interested and rational; therefore, her endeavors will be successful with hard work. More of her peers should look to her; that attitude would really help our economy grow. b. The government should assist the economy by giving large amounts of money to help improve the efficiency of a few big firms during slow economic times and let inefficient, smaller firms file for bankruptcy. c. The earth's resources are finite, and the economy depends on those finite resources because it is a subset of the environment. Thus, there are biophysical limits to growth, and the neo-classical economy should re-think its system before it dooms our planet. d. I don't want to be a political economist anymore. It's too hard, the system is already set in its ways. I want to get a job that makes a lot of money! Which of the follow is NOT a characteristic of capitalism? a. private ownership b. pursuit of profit c. government control of the economy d. competition and consumer sovereignty An institution through which buyers and sellers interact and engage in exchange is Answer A. a central authority. B. a market. C. a production frontier. D. "laissez-faire." Which of the following does NOT explain the breakdown in feudalism? Answer A. Breakdown of the guilds B. Rise of Catholicism C. Urbanization D. Creation of the Nation-State

Q3. The assumption of rational self-interest implies that people will choose to enrich themselves even if doing so violates the rights or property of others.

a. true

b. false

Q4. If you can earn $10 an hour as a retail clerk, $12 an hour as an office assistant, $16 an hour as a house painter, and $20 an hour repairing bicycles, what is your opportunity cost of working to repair bicycles?

a. $12 an hour

b. $10 an hour

c. $20 an hour

d. $16 an hour

Q5. In the graph of a production possibilities curve, both the horizontal and vertical axes measure the annual quantities of goods produced.

a. true

b. false

Q6. Scarcity arises because

a. international companies are slow to explore for new resources.

b. resources are finite and unable to meet all human wants and needs.

c. many countries waste goods because of inefficient political systems.

d. import taxes retard production.

Q7. A production possibilities curve with clothing and food on the axes shows which of the following?

I. A society cannot have an unlimited amount of each good.

II. For an efficient society, an increase in clothing production will necessitate a decrease in food production.

III. A society will always produce the maximum amount of both clothing and food.

a. II only

b. I only

c. III only

d. both I and II

Q8. All points on the production possibilities curve are efficient.

a. true

b. false

Q9. Economic growth can be pictured in a production possibilities curve diagram by

a. shifting the production possibilities curve out.

b. moving from right to left along the curve.

c. moving from left to right along the curve.

d. shifting the production possibilities curve in.

Q10. Suppose the current unemployment rate is 15 percent. If it rises to 20 percent,

a. the production possibilities curve will shift inward.

b. the economy will move closer to the production possibilities curve.

c. the economy will operate further inside the production possibilities curve.

d. the economy will move up along the production possibilities curve.

Q11. Clean air is a scarce resource.

a. true

b. false

Q12. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. A good is anything that gives satisfaction or happiness to individuals.

b. Wants may include humanitarian and altruistic goals.

c. Wants are unlimited and include all material and nonmaterial desires.

d. Economic goods are available in desired quantities at a zero price.

Q13. The current size of the U.S. labor force is less than 100 million workers.

a. true

b. false

Q14. The factors of production are

a. never as useful as people expect them to be.

b. valuable only because they are owned by corporations seeking to make a profit from them.

c. scarce resources.

d. abundant without limit on the planet.

Q15. Why do firms seek to use the least-cost combination of inputs?

a. because they won't be able to stay in business if they don't

b. because that is the combination that their employees prefer

c. because managers and supervisors find their jobs are easiest when the least-cost combination is used

d. because they want to keep costs low in order to appear to the media as a well-run business

Q16. Which one of the following best describes how economists view prices?

a. Low prices are good; high prices are bad.

b. High prices are good; low prices are bad.

c. The best price is a fair price.

d. Prices are signals of relative scarcity.

Q17. The person who creates a product innovation and brings it to market is providing the resource of

a. labor.

b. land.

c. entrepreneurship.

d. capital.

Q18. Gifts of nature used in the production process are considered

a. entrepreneurship.

b. labor.

c. land.

d. capital.

Q19. In a free market economy,

a. government decides what is produced, and producers decide who gets to consume it.

b. as a good becomes relatively more scarce, its price declines.

c. firms choose only to produce the most fashionable goods, regardless of the cost of production.

d. goods and services are allocated by a price system.

Q20. Resources are also known as

a. stocks, bonds, and other financial instruments.

b. minerals.

c. factors of production.

d. factories.

Q21. The size of the U.S. labor force has declined over the past 20 years as many jobs have been outsourced from the United States to other countries.

a. true

b. false

Q22. Which one of the following is TRUE?

a. The growth of the U.S. population over the next several decades will come from immigration.

b. Population growth makes a country poorer, because there are more mouths to feed.

c. Real per capita GDP can increase only if there is inflation.

d. Real per capita GDP can increase only if there is no inflation.

Q23. Which one of the following is FALSE?

a. The U.S. labor force will continue to grow through immigration.

b. Inflation stops economic growth.

c. Increased availability of reliable communication channels at lower and lower costs have led to companies relocating their manufacturing operations offshore.

d. The size of the U.S. labor force continues to grow despite many jobs being moved off-shore.

Q24. What is the purpose of a market system?

a. to facilitate efficient exchange

b. to encourage consumers to buy goods on credit

c. to ensure an equal distribution of income

d. to ensure that everyone is treated fairly

Q25. The market system is also called the price system because

a. people pay money in markets.

b. everything has a price tag.

c. rising prices are the signal to producers to make more of a particular good.

d. inflation is a disturbing problem.

Q26. Production refers to

a. any activity that causes a material conversion of an object.

b. any activity that results in the conversion of resources into goods and services that can be consumed.

c. any activity carried on by a firm, whether a corporation, partnership, or sole proprietorship.

d. physically producing material goods only.

Q27. An increase in the price of coffee, holding other things constant, will

a. decrease the demand for coffee.

b. increase the demand for coffee.

c. decrease the quantity of coffee demanded.

d. decrease the supply of coffee.

Q28. The supply curve shifts when the firm experiences a change in its production technology.

a. true

b. false

Q29. A surplus results when the quantity supplied exceeds the quantity demanded.

a. true

b. false

Q30. Table 3.1

Price per Constant-Quality Unit Quantity Demanded of Constant-Quality Units per Year Quantity Supplied of Constant-Quality Units per Year

$1.00 1,000 200

2.00 800 400

3.00 600 600

4.00 400 800

5.00 200 1,000

What condition characterizes a surplus?

a. Quantity supplied exceeds quantity demanded.

b. Quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied.

c. Consumers are unhappy with the price.

d. Producers are unhappy with the price.

Q31. An increase in quantity demanded is caused by

a. an increase in income.

b. a decrease in the price of a complement.

c. a change in expectations about price in the future.

d. a decrease in the price of the good.

Q32. The demand curve is downward sloping because

a. price and quantity have a direct relationship.

b. price is always constant.

c. demand is based on supply.

d. price and quantity have an inverse relationship.

Q33. An increase in the price of one good will decrease the demand for a substitute good.

a. true

b. false

Q34. The market demand curve is the vertical summation of the demand curves of all the individuals in the market.

a. true

b. false

Q35. The equilibrium price of a good is a price that everyone is happy with.

a. true

b. false

Q36. Which one of the following would cause a rightward shift of the supply curve?

a. A new tax is imposed on production of the good.

b. Some firms that have been producing the good go out of business.

c. Firms producing the good find ways of lowering their production costs.

d. There is an increase in demand for the good.

Q37. Which of the following is a determinant of demand?

a. cost of production

b. number of suppliers

c. technology of production

d. income

Q38. The market demand curve for a particular good

a. will not be affected by any of the determinants of individual demand.

b. is the horizontal sum of each individual demand curve for the good.

c. will show a direct relationship between price and quantity demanded.

d. may be less than an individual demand curve for the good.

Q39. Table 4.4

Quantity of CDs Purchased Total Utility Marginal Utility

1 75

2 135

3 185

4 35

5 25

6 15

According to Table 4.4, what is the total utility when six CDs are purchased?

a. 65

b. 260

c. 120

d. 220

Q40. A rational consumer will never purchase a product when its

a. marginal utility is decreasing.

b. total utility is decreasing.

c. marginal utility is slightly positive.

d. marginal utility is negative.

Q41. The price elasticity of demand becomes relatively greater as more substitutes are easily available.

a. true

b. false

Q42. Which of the following statements is true with respect to total utility and marginal utility?

a. Marginal utility is always equal to total utility.

b. Total utility will always be negative when marginal utility is positive.

c. Total utility is minimized when marginal utility is zero.

d. Marginal utility can decline as total utility rises.

Q43. Table 4.3

Quantityof Soda Marginal Utility of Soda Quantityof Pizza Marginal Utility of Pizza

1 50 1 100

2 25 2 80

3 0 3 60

4 -25 4 40

After consuming what quantity of soda does the consumer in Table 4.3 experience diminishing marginal utility?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 1

d. 4

Q44. If the price elasticity of demand is 0.5, a 10 percent increase in the price will cause

a. the quantity demanded to decrease by 20 percent.

b. the quantity demanded to decrease by 50 percent.

c. the quantity demanded to increase by 50 percent.

d. the quantity demanded to decrease by 5 percent.

Q45. Which one of the following would make the demand for satellite subscription TV relatively less elastic?

a. The cost of administering the satellite service is lowered.

b. Cable TV service becomes less widely available.

c. Other networks of wireless entertainment become more widely available.

d. The cost of transmitting satellite signals is lowered.

Q46. A price increase will cause a relatively large drop in quantity demanded when

a. demand is perfectly inelastic.

b. the price elasticity of demand is 0.

c. there is very little time allowed for consumers to react.

d. the consumer has easy access to a number of substitute goods.

Q47. Table 4.6

Price Quantity Demanded

$20 90

$16 110

$12 130

$ 8 150

According to the data in Table 4.6, what is the elasticity of demand between a price of $20 and a price of $16?

a. 0.60

b. 0.75

c. 0.90

d. 1.25

Q48. Price elasticity of demand is the responsiveness

a. of the quantity demanded to changes in supply.

b. of the quantity demanded to changes in income.

c. of the quantity demanded to changes in price.

d. of the quantity demanded to changes in quantity.

Q49. Everyone who views the latest adventure movie in theaters will derive the same utility from seeing it.

a. true

b. false

Q50. The law of diminishing marginal utility asserts that total utility becomes negative when marginal utility begins to diminish.

a. true

b. false

Scarcity arises because

A) Resources are finite and are inadequate to meet all human wants and needs.

B) Import taxes depress the rate of growth of goods and services production.

C) International companies are slow to explore for new resources.

D) Many countries waste goods because of inefficient political systems. 

12) What limits the resolving power of a light microscope?

A) The type of lens used to magnify the object under study.

B) The shortest wavelength of light used to illuminate the specimen.

C) The type of lens that focuses a beam of electrons through the specimen.

D) The type of heavy metal or dye that is used to stain the specimen.

13) The advantage of light microscopy over electron microscopy is that

A) Light microscopy provides for higher magnification than electron microscopy.

B) Light Microscopy Provide for higher resolving power than electron microscopy.

C) Light Microscopy allows one to view dynamic processes in the living cell.

D) Both A and B.

E) Both B and C.

Decimals Metric system and scientific nomenclature

1. Rewrite 0.823489 so that it has 3 significant figures.

2. Write the number 0.000074320 in scientific notation.

3. Write the number 6,230,005 in scientific notation.

4. Convert 227 µg into mg. (your answer must be in scientific notation).

5. What fraction of a meter is an nm? (Your answer must be in scientific notation).

6. Convert 15 cL into µL.

(Your answer must be in scientific notation).

7. Convert 2.7 x10^-7 ng. (Your answer must be in scientific notation).

8. The number 0.0748530 has how many significant figures?

Statistics

Use the data set below to answer questions 9-11 below.

21.2 mg/mL 24.6 mg/mL 15.0 mg/mL 21.2 mg/mL 11.3 mg/mL 10.6 mg/mL

9. What is the median con concentration?

10. What concentration is the mode?

11. Which concentration is the mean?

12. What type of correlation is this: As studying decreases, exam scores decrease. (Explain)

The process by which molecules such as glucose are moved into cells along their concentration gradient (from high concentration to low concentration) with the help of membrane-bound transport proteins is called A. osmosis. B. endocytosis. C. Primary active transport. D. exocytosis E. facilitated diffusion.

Moving material into and out of the cell. Botulinum toxin bindsto neurons and enters these cells inside a vesicle made from theplasma membrane. Once inside, the toxin blocks the release ofacetylcholine, which is housed in vesicles within the cytoplasm, byblocking calcium voltage gates. What process is likely to be usedto move botulinum toxin into neuron cells, and what process doesthis toxin block to prevent the release of acetylcholine?

Exocytosis, endocytosis

Pinocytosis, phagocytosis

Endocytosis, exocytosis

Phagocytosis, pinocytosis

Tetraethylammonium (TEA) is a drug that blocks voltage-gated potassium channels. What effect would this have on an action potential?

(a)Prevent the rising phase

(b)Prevent the cell from reaching the threshold to trigger an action potential

(c)Prevent or prolong the falling phase

(d)None of the above

The hyperpolarization phase of the action potential is due to:

(a)The opening of voltage-gated Cl- channels

(b)Prolonged opening of voltage gated K+ channels

(c)The closure of resting Na+ channels

(d)Rapid inactivation of voltage-gated K+ channels

The period when it is difficult to initiate another action potential for several milliseconds due to voltage-gated sodium channel inactivation is referred to as the:

(a)Relative refractory period

(b)Absolute refractory period

(c)Resting period

(d)Hyperpolarization period

In the human central nervous system, Gap junctions are found:

(a)Only between neurons

(b)Only between astrocytes

(c)In both neurons and astrocytes

(d)In all cells

Small molecule transmitters such as acetylcholine are synthesized in:

(a)The nerve terminal

B) The cell body and transported to the nerve terminal

C) Synaptic vesicles

D) Endoplasmic reticulum

Prior to Otto Loewi’s classical experiment, which of the following was not known:

(a)stimulation of the vagus nerve slows the heart

(b)extracts of frog heart, made following vagal nerve stimulation, slow the heart

(c)some acetylcholine effects are similar to those produced by muscarine

(d)vagal nerve stimulation releases a substance which slows the heart

Which of the following is most important in determining if neurotransmission is excitatory or inhibitory?

(a)The structure of the synapse

(b)The neurotransmitter released by the presynaptic neuron

(c)The neurotransmitter receptor

(d)The strength of the stimulus

Benzodiazepines such as Valium allosterically regulate GABA receptors by:

(a)Binding at receptor sites other than the transmitter binding site

(b)Binding at the transmitter (GABA) binding site on the receptor

(c)Blocking the action of the endogenous transmitter

(d)Mimicking the action of the endogenous transmitter

GABA-A receptors are ligand-gated Cl- channels. The equilibrium potential of Cl- is -65 mV. At the neuronal resting membrane potential of -65 mV, GABA binding to the GABA-A receptor would result in the opening the Cl- channel, resulting in:

(a)no net flow of Cl- ions

(b)Cl- inflow and hyperpolarization

(c)Cl- outflow and depolarization

(d)Cl- outflow and hyperpolarization

At the mammalian neuromuscular junction, the released neurotransmitter acts on:

(a)muscarinic receptors

(b)nicotinic receptors

(c)adrenergic receptors

(d)Beta receptors

Neurotransmitters are packaged into synaptic vesicles by:

(a)endocytosis following transmitter release

(b)presynaptic membrane transporters

(c)vesicular transporters

(d)all of the above

. Which of the following are NOT types of ion channels?

Voltage-gated

(a)Ligand-gated

(b)G protein coupled receptor (GPCR)-gated

(c)Leak channels

(d)NONE of the above

NMDA receptors are unique in that their ion channel is:

(a)Ligand-gated

(b)Voltage-gated

(c)Ligand- and voltage-gated ion channels

(d)GPCR-gated

. Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding Catecholamine neurotransmitters

(a)Includes Dopamine, Norepinerphrine, and Epinephrine

(b)Contain a Catechol Ring

(c)Synthesized from Tryptophan

(d)Are produced by neurons whose cell bodies are located in the upper brainstem

The largest and most diverse group of receptors in eukaryotes is:

(a)Ligand gated receptors

(b)Glutamate receptors

(c)G-Protein coupled receptors

(d)Allosteric receptors

The most abundant G-protein coupled receptor in the brain is:

(a)Glutamate receptors

(b)Acetylcholine receptors

(c)Cannabinoid receptors

(d)Dopamine receptors

Which of the following drugs DOES NOT block voltage-gated Na+ channels

(a)Lidocaine

(b)Riluzole

(c)Reserpine

(d)Tetrodotoxin

Sarin, a nerve gas, exerts its toxicity by:

(a)blocking nicotinic receptors

(b)inhibiting choline acetyltransferase

(c)inhibiting acetylcholinesterase

(d)inhibiting voltage-gated Na+ channels

Botulinum Toxin (BoTox) interferes with transmitter release by:

(a)cleaving protein(s) involved in transmitter release

(b)blocking voltage-gated Ca2+ channels

(c)blocking voltage-gated Na+ channels

(d)blocking voltage-gated K+ channels

Atropine is:

(a)An agonist of the acetylcholine ionotropic receptor

(b)An antagonist of the acetylcholine ionotropic receptor

(c)An agonist of the acetylcholine metabotropic receptor

(d)An antagonist of the acetylcholine metabotropic receptor

At your age (assume 20) you can assume that you will live to be 100. If you graduate at 23 and start to work, you can expect to work for 47 years, until age 70. At that time you will be eligible for full Social Security benefits, which can reasonably be expected to be $3,000 per month, and which will be received monthly for the rest of your life. You can reasonably expect that your retirement savings will earn an average of 8 percent per year throughout the period that you accumulate your retirement funding and during your retirement years. Further assume that you will want to have an annual income of $120,000 throughout your retirement. Amount needed to have saved at retirement in order to be able to fund your retirement = $942,083.52

How you think those funds should be managed. That is, suggest a reasonable overall plan to achieve that goal.

At your age (assume 20) you can assume that you will live to be 100. If you graduate at 23 and start to work, you can expect to work for 47 years, until age 70. At that time you will be eligible for full Social Security benefits, which can reasonably be expected to be $3,000 per month, and which will be received monthly for the rest of your life. You can reasonably expect that your retirement savings will earn an average of 8 percent per year throughout the period that you accumulate your retirement funding and during your retirement years. Further assume that you will want to have an annual income of $120,000 throughout your retirement.

Ignoring inflation in all calculations, how much will you need to have saved at retirement in order to be able to fund your retirement?

How much will you have to save each year in order to fund this amount if you start at 23?

How much will you have to save each year in order to fund this amount if you start at 25?

How much will you have to save each year in order to fund this amount if you start at 30?

How much will you have to save each year in order to fund this amount if you start at 40?

Briefly explain how you think those funds should be managed. That is, suggest a reasonable overall plan to achieve your goal, using all of the tools we have considered throughout the course.

At your age (assume 20) you can assume that you will live to be 100. If you graduate at 23 and start to work, you can expect to work for 47 years, until age 70. At that time you will be eligible for full Social Security benefits, which can reasonably be expected to be $3,000 per month, and which will be received monthly for the rest of your life. You can reasonably expect that your retirement savings will earn an average of 8 percent per year throughout the period that you accumulate your retirement funding and during your retirement years. Further assume that you will want to have an annual income of $120,000 throughout your retirement. SHOW WORK!

1. Ignoring inflation in all calculations, how much will you need to have saved at retirement in order to be able to fund your retirement?

2. How much will you have to save each year in order to fund this amount if you start at 23?

3. How much will you have to save each year in order to fund this amount if you start at 25?

4. How much will you have to save each year in order to fund this amount if you start at 30?

5. How much will you have to save each year in order to fund this amount if you start at 40?

6. Briefly explain how you think those funds should be managed. That is, suggest a reasonable overall plan to achieve your goal, using all of the tools we have considered throughout the course.

please this time read my question before writing down an irrelevant fact. according to my teacher, ideal gases start to behalve non-ideally, when either the temperature becomes high, the molar volume becomes high, the volume becomes large or the density becomes high. which would be the correct answer, and why? is high temperature a good answer?

i dont understand these 4 questions

1.

A human body is:

A) a closed system
B) an adiabatic system
C) an open system

2.

Temperature is:

A) a state variable
B) none of the above
C) a state function

3.

Pressure is:

A) an extensive property
B) an intensive property
C) a molar property

4.

In any thermodynamic equation you should use temperature in:

A) Celsius
B) Kelvin
C) Fahrenheit

5.

The bar is:

A) 10e0 MPa
B) 10e-1 MPa
C) 10e1 MPa

6.

Zero degrees Celsius is:

A) 373.15 K
B) 273.15 K
C) 298.15 K

7.

The temperature in Kelvin can be:

A) <0
B) =0
C) >0

8.

Zero degrees Fahrenheit is:

A) +17.8 C
B) 0.0 C
C) -17.8 C

9.

The molar volume is:

A) an intensive property
B) a molar property
C) an extensive property

10.

How many degrees of freedom does a system with 2 components and2 phases have?

A) 1
B) 3
C) 4
D) 0
E) 2

11.

What is the critical point?

A) The point where liquid, solid and gas exists.
B) The point where a solid changes to a gas.
C) The point where you can no longer differentiate between liquidand gas.

12.

Is an ideal gas at low or high temperature and at low or highpressure?

A) High Temperature, High Pressure
B) Low Temperature, High Pressure
C) Low Temperature, Low Pressure
D) High Temperature, Low Pressure

13.

The temperature of boiling water inside of a pressure cookerwould be ________ than boiling water in a open pot.

A) lower
B) the same
C) higher

14.

A closed tank contains a vapor-liquid mixture of steam at 45 barwith a liquid content of 25% by mass. The pressure is increasedmechanically to 80 bar. What happens to the molar volume?

A) It goes up
B) It stays the same
C) It goes down

15.

A closed tank contains a vapor-liquid mixture of steam at 45 barwith a liquid content of 25% by mass. The pressure is increasedmechanically to 80 bar. What happens to the temperature?

A) It goes up
B) It goes down
C) It stays the same

16.

Containers A and B both contain mixtures of gas and liquid waterat 7 bar. Container A has 25% liquid by volume, whereas Container Bhas 25% liquid by mass. Which container has more liquid?

A) They are equal
B) Container B
C) Container A

17.

A closed tank contains a vapor-liquid mixture of steam at 45 barwith a liquid content of 25% by mass. The pressure is increasedmechanically to 80 bar. What happens to the molar volume?

A) It goes down
B) It stays the same
C) It goes up

18.

A closed tank contains a vapor-liquid mixture of steam at 45 barwith a liquid content of 25% by mass. The pressure is increasedmechanically to 80 bar. What happens to the temperature?

A) It stays the same
B) It goes up
C) It goes down

19.

A tank contains a vapor-liquid mixture of steam at 45 bar. Steamis added to the tank that is at a different temperature andpressure. What remains constant after addition of the steam?

A) Energy
B) Mass
C) Temperature
D) Pressure
E) Total Volume

20.

A closed fixed tank contains a mixture of steam and water.Temperature is decreased. What happens to pressure?

A) It stays the same
B) It goes up
C) It goes down

21.

A closed fixed tank contains a mixture of steam and water.Temperature is decreased. The resulting tank has:

A) Only liquid
B) Cannot say from the given information
C) Only gas
D) A mixture of gas and liquid

22.

According to Gibbs Phase Rule, how many degrees of freedom arethere for a pure substance at its boiling point?

A) 2
B) 1
C) 0
D) 3

23.

We remove energy from a superheated steam while maintaining thetemperature constant at 150 C. We stop removing energy when itreaches its condensation point. Pressure:

A) Goes down
B) Goes up
C) Stays the same

24.

We remove energy from a superheated steam while maintaining thetemperature constant at 150 C. We stop removing energy when itreaches its condensation point. Molar volume:

A) Goes down
B) Goes up
C) Stays the same

25.

Water is cooled from the critical point to a temperature whichcorresponds to a pressure of 10 bar. Determine the quality of thefinal state.

A) 99%
B) 10%
C) 90%
D) 1%

26.

Consider a system containing water at T=82 oC and V=0.200m^3/kg, what is the quality of the system?

A) 61%
B) 6%
C) 39%
D) 94%

27.

A rigid container of volume 1m^3 contains saturated water at2MPa. If the quality is 0.10, what is the volume occupied by thevapor?

A) 0.9m^3
B) 0.5m^3
C) 0.99m^3
D) 0.01m^3
E) 0.1m^3

28.

There will be two options for scheduling Midterm 1. The first ison 10/1 (W) during the normal class period. The second is theevening of 10/2 (Th) from 6-9 pM in 22 Deike. Although the examwill cover the same content during both of these time slots, theevening exam will allow for a 3 hour time slot to avoid a timepressure. Select which time you will take the exam. Your answer isnon-binding, but intended for planning purposes. If you select theevening exam, please make arrangements with your work/studyschedule now to avoid a conflict.

A) 10/2 (Th)Evening Exam, 6-9 PM; 22 Deike
B) 10/1 (W) during class period

29.

There will be two options for scheduling Midterm 2. The first ison 10/29 (W) during the normal class period. The second is theevening of 10/30 (Th) from 6-9 PM in 22 Deike. Although the examwill cover the same content during both of these time slots, theevening exam will allow for a 3 hour time slot to avoid a timepressure. Select which time you will take the exam. Your answer isnon-binding, but intended for planning purposes. If you select theevening exam, please make arrangements with your work/studyschedule now to avoid a conflict.

A) 10/29 (W) during the normal class period
B) 10/30 (Th) from 6-9 PM in 22 Deike

I need help with answering the last 2 pages of this lab page 99 and 100.
can please figure out the amounts thay go in the blank spots and the ansers to questions 1 &2 on page 100

The aluminum foil is priced several times with large pencil size holes instead of pin size. a. How will this oversight in the procedure affect the mass of vapor measured, too low, too high or unaffected? b. Will the reported molar mass of the liquid be reported too low, too high or unaffected.

Please answer 3,4, 6. Thank You!

1. The vapor pressure of liquid pentane, C₅H₁₂, is 100. mm Hg at 260 K. A 0.185 g sample of liquid C₅H₁₂ is placed in a closed, evacuated 310. mL container at a temperature of 260 K.

Assuming that the temperature remains constant, will all of the liquid evaporate? _____ (yes/no)
What will the pressure in the container be when equilibrium is reached?___ mm Hg​

2. The vapor pressure of liquid butanol, C₄H₉OH, is 100. mm Hg at 343 K.

A sample of C₄H₉OH is placed in a closed, evacuated 549 mL container at a temperature of 343 K. It is found that all of the C₄H₉OH is in the vapor phase and that the pressure is 57.0 mm Hg. If the volume of the container is reduced to 368 mL at constant temperature, which of the following statements are correct?

Choose all that apply.

A. Liquid butanol will be present.

B. No condensation will occur.

C. Only butanol vapor will be present.

D. The pressure in the container will be 100. mm Hg.

E. Some of the vapor initially present will condense.

The vapor pressure of liquid butanol, C₄H₉OH, is 40.0 mm Hg at 326 K.

A sample of C₄H₉OH is placed in a closed, evacuated container of constant volume at a temperature of 472 K. It is found that all of the C₄H₉OH is in the vapor phase and that the pressure is 51.0 mm Hg. If the temperature in the container is reduced to 326 K, which of the following statements are correct?

Choose all that apply.

1. Only butanol vapor will be present.

2. Some of the vapor initially present will condense.

3. No condensation will occur.

4. Liquid butanol will be present.

5. The pressure in the container will be 40.0 mm Hg.

The vapor pressure of liquid bromoethane, C₂H₅Br, is 40.0 mm Hg at 246 K.

A sample of C₂H₅Br is placed in a closed, evacuated container of constant volume at a temperature of 387 K. It is found that all of the C₂H₅Br is in the vapor phase and that the pressure is 58.0 mm Hg. If the temperature in the container is reduced to 246 K, which of the following statements are correct?

Choose all that apply.

Some of the vapor initially present will condense.

Liquid bromoethane will be present.

No condensation will occur.

Only bromoethane vapor will be present.

The pressure in the container will be 40.0 mm Hg.

Authentic leadership is _______.

A). easily defined and easy to implement

B). a complex process that is difficult to fully define

C). similar to path-goal theory

D). similar to the trait approach

Which one?

What is biggest bird?

Which layer of the soil is also called as the bedrock?

[A] A – Horizon
[B] R – Horizon
[C] E – Horizon
[D] D – Horizon

When Starbucks CEO Howard Schultz was a child, he witnessed his family struggle after his father was hurt on the job. As a business leader now, Schultz provides comprehensive health insurance to all employees, even part-time workers. Schultz's authentic leadership in this way is an example of ________.

A). balanced processing

B). positive psychological capacities

C). a critical life event

D). management by exception

i x (i + j + k)

I thought I computed everything correclty. Can someone help withthe visual please.