celluarsol

The nitrogen cycle describes the fluxes of nitrogen atoms among air, land, and water. Nitrogen enters the atmosphere in the form of N2O or N2 gas when people burn fossil fuels. Nitrogen enters soil as bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen to NO3-, which can be absorbed by plants. Water contacting soil will pick up nitrogen and carry it to a lake or ocean. In recent decades, the use of fertilizers containing nitrogen has increased the amount of nitrogen that flows into lakes and oceans, causing blooms of algal referred to as eutrophication.

Use this information and your knowledge about biology to answer questions 16-20.

16. All of the nitrogen in fertilizers will end up in bodies of water. True or False

17. If the supply of nitrogen limits the growth of plants, emissions from burning fossil fuels should lead to more biomass of plants. True or False

18. A teleconnection occurs when nitrogen introduced as fertilizer ends up causing algae to bloom in the ocean. True or False

19. Negative feedback would occur if emissions of fossil fuel increase the rate of nitrification by bacteria. True or False

20. Positive feedback occurs when nitrification by bacteria causes the population of bacteria to grow. True or False

Secretions of the Sertoli cells and cells of Leydig influence the functions of each other.

true or false

Which of the following reduces circulating blood levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) when the sperm count is high?

What is the testicular target for follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)?

In males, which of the following includes the correct target and result of LH stimulation?

The LH surge causes

A) endometrium build-up.
B) ovulation.
C) All of the choices are correct.
D) menses.

1. “Secretory endometrium” refers to

A. Endometrium shed during menses

B. Endometrium prior to ovulation

C. Endometrium under the influence of hormones produced by the corpus luteum

D. Postmenopausal endometrium

E. Endometrium under the influence of hormones produced by the pituitary

THe lines (pictured right) along which surgeons cut to avoid tearing parallel bundles of collagen fibers in the skin are:

a. dermal papillae

b. friction ridges

c. flexure lines

d. cleavege lines

THese lines are found in the:

a. epidermis

b. papillary dermis

c. reticular dermis

d. hypothermis

Please explain why. Thank you

Which is not a component of the risk assessment process?

1) risk characterization

2) risk management

3) exposure assessment

4) toxicity

Which term refers to the ability of a chemical to produce an adverse response?

1) danger

2) risk

3) hazard

4) caution

The primary consideration of public health professionals should be:

1) cost of implementation

2) practicality

3) frame decisions into regulatory and nonregulatory options

4) the impact of our decisions on public health

Making informed decisions involves:

1) quantifying known hazards

2) assessing unknowns

3) determining actions to address known and unknown hazards

4) all of the above

The Threshold Dose is:

Which one of the following groups can be covalently attached to a protein in a living cell, insert into the hydrophobic interior of a membrane, and localize the protein to that membrane?

1. A C20:4 fatty acid that is ester-linked to a Ser or a Thr on the protein
2. A triglyceride with saturated fatty acid chains
3. A farnesyl group attached to a cysteine residue at the protein's C-terminus
4. A thioester-linked C18:2 fatty acid
5. A phosphatidylcholine

The LDL receptor is an integral protein that crosses the plasma membrane, with portions of the protein extending both outside and into the interior of the cell. The alpha helix that actually spans the membrane is like to consist of amino acid residues whose side chains (R groups) i are most likely

Either A)Hydrophobic B)Attatched to carbohydrates C)Hydrophilic D)Covalently attatched to lipids D) Charged

Explain the major differences between arteries and veins in terms of: A) vessel wall thickness, B) direction of blood flow inside the vessel (ie. toward or away from the heart), C) whether the vessel generally carries deoxygenated or oxygenated blood, and D) Name the specific artery AND vein associated with the human heart and lungs that are exceptions to the general definition of an artery/vein.

Using Flutter 2.7.10 (latest one) and Android Studio Electric Eel | 2022.1.1 Patch 1. Ran this Flutter program located in this Google Storage drive since it has so many parts to the program 

I got the error message below. Also attached screenshot of the error msg

Please run the program located in that Google Storage drive.

Because it works for some people, but not for others. Some people  get the error msg -

Other people it works fine. We all have the same flutter version and Android Studio. We are all using Windows 10 and 11.

Null check operator used on a null value

When the exception was thrown, this was the stack: 
#0      _TaskListPageState.getUID.<anonymous closure> (package:todolist/pages/tasklist/tasklist.dart:25:17)
#1      State.setState (package:flutter/src/widgets/framework.dart:1133:30)
#2      _TaskListPageState.getUID (package:todolist/pages/tasklist/tasklist.dart:24:5)
#3      _TaskListPageState.initState (package:todolist/pages/tasklist/tasklist.dart:18:5)
#4      StatefulElement._firstBuild (package:flutter/src/widgets/framework.dart:5101:55)
#5      ComponentElement.mount (package:flutter/src/widgets/framework.dart:4944:5)
#6      Element.inflateWidget (package:flutter/src/widgets/framework.dart:3953:16)
#7      Element.updateChild (package:flutter/src/widgets/framework.dart:3676:20)
#8      ComponentElement.performRebuild (package:flutter/src/widgets/framework.dart:4993:16)
#9      StatefulElement.performRebuild (package:flutter/src/widgets/framework.dart:5133:11)
#10     Element.rebuild (package:flutter/src/widgets/framework.dart:4690:5)
#11     BuildOwner.buildScope (package:flutter/src/widgets/framework.dart:2743:19)
#12     WidgetsBinding.drawFrame (package:flutter/src/widgets/binding.dart:863:21)
#13     RendererBinding._handlePersistentFrameCallback (package:flutter/src/rendering/binding.dart:381:5)
#14     SchedulerBinding._invokeFrameCallback (package:flutter/src/scheduler/binding.dart:1289:15)
#15     SchedulerBinding.handleDrawFrame (package:flutter/src/scheduler/binding.dart:1218:9)
#16     SchedulerBinding._handleDrawFrame (package:flutter/src/scheduler/binding.dart:1076:5)
#17     _invoke (dart:ui/hooks.dart:145:13)
#18     PlatformDispatcher._drawFrame (dart:ui/platform_dispatcher.dart:338:5)
#19     _drawFrame (dart:ui/hooks.dart:112:31)

Renal functions test include all the followings EXCEPT
i) Excretion of biles
ii) Excretion of metabolic waste and by-products 
iii) Endocrine function 
iv) Regulation of plasma electrolytes, fluid/water balance, blood pressure

The amount of --------- excreted in urine per day is almost the same as that reabsorbed by the kidneys.

is it urea?

Evaluate how recent events will influence your entrepreneurial ambitions?

How can entrepreneurs seize advantages in the current environment that can position them for future success?

One of the great skills of entrepreneurs is effective storytelling. Not only do people find the origins of business compelling, but people connect with entrepreneurs who are authentic.

Please share two things about yourself, including how that feels your own entrepreneurial ambitions.

After feeding (in case of transient hyperglycemia), glucose activates the Na/K 
pump (glucose enters the cell with potassium). It leads to hypokalemia

is this statement true?

(A) In an RFLP analysis, one homozygote has 2 bands and another homozygote has 2 bands of different size. How many bands would you expect in a heterozygote with these parents? Select one: a. 4 b. 3 c. 0 d. 2 e. 1

(B) Which of these statements about polymerase chain reaction is incorrect? Select one:

a. The instrument use to regulate temperature during PCR is called a thermocycler.

b. Samples are initially heated to about 95ᵒC to denature proteins

c. The Taq polymerase is active at 72ᵒC

d. Pairing of the 3' end of primers to the DNA target is critical for elongation.

e. The nucleotide composition of primers affects their melting and annealing temperatures.

(C) What is the first basal transcription factor to bind eukaryotic promoters? Select one:

a. TFIIH b. RNA polymerase II c. CDK7 d. TFIIE e. TBP

1. Which of the following is/are required for retrotransposons to move from one location to another in the genome?

Select one or MORE:

a. RNA polymerase

b. DNA polymerase

c. ribosomes

d. reverse transcriptase

2.

Which of the following is/are not commonly used in gene expression and cell replication in human cells?

Select one or MORE:

a. ribosomes

b. reverse transcriptase

c. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase (DNA-->RNA)

d. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase (DNA-->DNA)

e. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase (RNA --> RNA)

3.

Ubiquitin can be added to lysine, cysteine, serine and threonine residues in proteins. The ubiquitination (addition of ubiquitin) of a protein would:

Select one:

a. target the protein to be translocated to the rough endoplasmic reticulum to continue translation of the peptide.

b. trigger the hydrolysis of its complementary mRNA sequence.

c. trigger alternative splicing of mRNA by snRNP.

d. trigger the removal of the pro-segment of a enzyme, activating it.

e. target the protein for breakdown by proteasomes in the cell.

4.

miRNA can:

Select one or MORE:

a. form a complex with proteins that will block translation of mRNA containing complementary sequence

b. form a complex with proteins that will break down mRNA containing complementary sequence

c. remove introns from pre-mRNA in eukaryotes

d. fluoresce when complementary mRNA is present

5.

Coordination of gene expression of enzymes required in a single metabolic pathway in eukaryotes would require:

Select one or MORE:

a. organization of genes into operons

b. the same combination of control elements for all genes in the pathway

c. alternative splicing of a single gene to produce all enzymes in a pathway

d. presence of the correct combination of activator proteins for the genes in the pathway

1 (A) In what orientation are pre-mRNA extended? Select one:

a. 3' to 5'

b. 5' to 3'

c. C- to N -terminus

d. N- to C -terminus

e. none of these answers

(B) What is the term given to the complex including actively translated mRNAs in association with ribosomes? Select one:

a. polysome

b. holoenzyme

c. cap-binding complex

d. translation complex

e. ribozyme

(C) What does a 260/280 ratio of 1.0 indicate about an RNA sample? Select one:

a. The DNA sample contains too much RNA

b. The RNA sample is not pure

c. The DNA sample contains too little DNA

d. The RNA sample is pure

e. The RNA sample will yield excellent cDNA

Which of the following statements about glycolysis is incorrect?

A. All the ATP generated during the payoff phase are through substrate-level phosphorylation

B. The total energy yield from glycolysis is 2 atp per glucose (4 ATP from the payoff phase-2 ATP during the preparation phase)

During the energy investment phase of glycolysis

A. Two ATP are used for substrate level phosphorylation

B. Two three-carbon sugars are formed.

C. NADH is generated

D. A & B

E. A, B, & C

1. How are DNA hybridization techniques, developed decdes ago, used today in the field of identification and classification?

a) Older techniques are used for training purposes for young microbiologists

b)Are used to verify biochemical tests in the clinical lab to check on the microbiologist's lab skills

c)Have been adapted and used as DNA probes to identify unknown isolates

d) Used to overcome poor aseptic techniques in clinical labs

e) Used to verify that the clinical microbiologist paid attention in Micro lecture

----------------------

2. Which of the following are important factors to consider in classifying bacteria species?

a) biochemical tests b) differential staining c) morphological characterisitics d) serological procedures e) all of the above are important considerations

------------------------

3) Which types of microbes could be found growing at the very bottom of tubes of TSA (no O2)?

a) obilgate aerobes and microaerophiles b) facultative anerobes and obligate aerobes c) aerotolerant anerobes and facultative anaerobes d) microaerophiles and obilgate anaerobes

e) archaea and extreme halophiles

--------------------------

4) The use of salt and sugar in preserving various types of foods by limiting microbial growth is an application of which of the following concepts?

a) nitrogen fixation b) disinfectant inhibition c)pH d) Aw, water activity e) spicy cooking

--------------------------

5) A microbiologist inoculates a growth medium at Time 0 with 200 bacterial cells/ ml. If the generation time of the species is 30 minutes, and there is no lag phase, how long will it take the culture to reach a population of more than 3000 cells/ ml?

a) 1 hours b) 2 hrs c) 4 hrs d) 14 hrs e) 3000 minutes

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6) UV light is not useful for disinfecting material in packages because

a) UV will cause mutations in the people who use the contents b) UV has no penetrating power, so it's only good for disinfecting surfaces

c) UV exposure can cause human cancer d) UV is too expensive to use for this purpose e) workers that handle the packages will get too tan

--------------------------

7) Which of the following controversial compounds has been used to preserve some vaccine components?

a) Hexachlorophene b) mercurochrome c) silver nitrate d) thimerosal e) Purell hand sanitizer

--------------------------

8) What is the glucose fermentation and motility of the Mannheimia species?

a) motile, glucose fermentation with gas b) motile, urea negative c) non-motile, Indole negative d) non-motile, acid and gas from glucose e) Not enough data

--------------------------

9) The advantage of using "Ultra-pasteurization" on dairy product is

a) it is inexpensive b) it kills all but the most hardy TB bacteria c) the process kills almost all microbes and greatly extends the shelf life d) spoilage is delayed a day or two for most products

e) the retailer can charge more money for the product and increase profits

--------------------------

10) Which method would allow the determination of a specific concentration of live bacteria in a sample?

a) turbidty measurement b) dry weight measurement c) serial dilutions and plate count d) direct microscopic count

--------------------------

11) Mycoplasma species have no cell wall but are known to be related to Gram-positive bacteria. Which of the following provides good evidence for this?

a) Some mucoplasmas and some G + bacteria produce catalase b) Genetic analysis shows that they share common 16S rRNA gene sequences c) Both groups are prokaryotic bacteria

d) Both groups have species that are coccus shaped e) These species are mentioned in the same text book

--------------------------

12) A latent virus is one that

a) has a long incubation period before initial symptoms begin b) remains attached to the host cells for a long time before it enters the cell c) remains hidden in the body and periodically causes recurring disease d) has sumptoms that are difficult to diagnose

--------------------------

13) Cells in a cell culture that fail to exhibit contact inhibition as they grow:

a) grow only in a monolayer b) will eventually pile up and form a tumor c) grow only as individual cells that do not touch other cells d) die if they come in contact with other cells

--------------------------

14) Viruses that penetrate the host cell by the process of fusion get into the cell by

a) injecting their DNA through the cell membrane b) the spikes opening up small holes c) breaking through the cell membrane with lipid enzymes d) the virus outer layer melting into the host cell membrane e) opening locked trap doors

--------------------------

15) A bacterial population treated with lethal heat will generally

a) die all at the same time since they are all exposed at the same time b) die at an exponential rate, exhibiting a strady decline over time c) die for shortperiod of time then recover and start growing again d) die in one log increments every minute, no matter what the temperature e) file a microbial excessive force complaint with the FDA

--------------------------

16) Why was hexachlorophene discontinued as an anti Staphylococcus agent in newborn baby nurseries?

a) it didn't control Staphylococcus aureus infections b) the babies became resistant the treatment c) the hexachlorophene was shown to be toxic when not used properly

d) too many Staph species became immune to its anti bacterial activity

--------------------------

17) What is the first step (in this list) that is necessary for animal virus replication?

a) viral sensing that it's close to a favorable host cell b) the virion bumping into and sticking to a host cell c) the lysis of the host cell d) the uncoating of the virus by enzumes

e) formal introductions by the parents

--------------------------

18) The "batch" and "continuous" pasteurization processes for dairy products such as milk

a) kill all spoilage microbes, making the milk sterile so it doesn't spoil in the refrig b) kill Mycobacterium tuberculosis and other pathogenic bacteria and makes the milk safe

c) increase the number of spoilage bacteria and hastens the spoilage in your refrig d) are very damaging to the taste quality of the milk, lowering economic value

e) are another plot by big gov. Pulbic Health officials to control your life

--------------------------

19) The development of the Salk vaccine for polio in the 1950s depended on

a) embryonated chicken eggs and liver tissue b) Monkey kidney cells, HeLa cells, and other cell culture advances c) primate neuro-tissue and epithelial stem cells

d)infant spinal cord and muscle neurons e) E.coli and Staphylococcus aureus

Why are deaminating agents such as sodium nitrate and sodium nitrite a component of processed foods given that they are mutagenic?

Select one:

a. They are added because they taste good.

b. They are a natural by-product of food processing and it's too costly to remove them.

c. They are added as preservatives; they kill microbes by inducing mutations in their DNA.

d. They are inexpensive and added to act as fillers; reducing the cost of production of processed foods.

e. All of the above.

Q 2.

The loss of a cell's ability to repair DNA is a hallmark of which human disease?

Select one:

a. Multiple sclerosis

b. HIV

c. Cancer

d. Heart disease

e. Rheumatoid arthritis

Q3.

It has been estimated that about 85% of cancers that develop are environmentally induced (the remaining are inherited to some degree). Which of the following represents an environmental risk factor that could induce cancer?

Select one:

a. The oxidative damage to DNA caused by radiation (X-rays, gamma rays, radon gas)

b. Spontaneous deaminations and depurinations of the bases in DNA

c. The error rate of DNA polymerase

d. a, b, and c

e. a and b

Acute dermal irritation may be defined as:

- if l F l = q is finite prove that l GL_n (F) l < ((q)^n)^2.

some of my answers might be wrong

There are many types of microbial metabolism, beyond those covered previously. The terminology below describes metabolic types. Match each metabolic type with the best description. Match the terms letters with the numbers

1)is performed by obligate anaerobes that use H₂ as the major electron donor; both ion pumps and substrate level phosphorylation are used to conserve energy.

2)is performed by Archaea and Bacteria and produces nitrite; Bacteria may oxidize the nitrite to nitrate.

3)is performed by Archaea, often in sewage and in freshwater sediments; CO₂ is often reduced using H₂.

4)involves the aerobic oxidation of ammonia or nitrite.

5)can be aerobic or anaerobic; only small amounts of energy can be produced in acidic environments even though many of the organisms using this are acidophilic.

The chemical structure of Heroin _________________

A. is similar enough to dopamine so that it is transported into dopamine neuron by the dopamine transporter

B. differs from morphine by two acetyl groups

C. allows it to bind to endocannabinoid CB1 receptors

D. is very similar to Amphetamine

A cancer patient’s likelihood for surviving a cancer is referred to as his or her

1. Consider a parallel circuit as shown in lecture. Given V=12 V, R1 = 987 Ω, R2 = 1,047 Ω, and R3 = 2,383 Ω. As a round number, the total resistance in Ohms (Ω) is.

2. Consider a parallel circuit as shown in lecture. Given V=11.3 V, R1 = 1,004 Ω, R2 = 908 Ω, and R3 = 2,100 Ω. The total resistance in Ohms rounded to the nearest whole number is.?

35. What tissue connects muscles to bones?

36. Which nutrient plays an essential role in muscle-building?

I need to design a model and draw it or construct (more advanced) such as a "SPECIAL BLOOD PRESSURE MACHINE PRODUCT THAT IS A WIRELESS, REMOTE MONITORING DEVICE THAT CONNECTS TO A SMARTPHONE APP WITH ACCURATE MEASUREMENTS" for prototyping.

Read Chapter 5 of Becoming a Critical Thinker

Rubric

The document you submit should have (and will be graded on) all the following attributes:

• conforms to the Assignment Basics listed below
• conforms to Key Terms & Detailed Summary Note instructions
• clearly separates KT/D entries from the D/S