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Department
Psychology
Course
PSYC 305
Professor
Heungsun Hwang
Semester
Winter

Description
PHGY 210 001 & 002 - MAMMALIAN PHYSIOLOGY 2 FINAL EXAMINATION - ANSWER COPY Correct answers are highlighted in grey 1. Aldosterone a) is a mineralocorticoid. b) is synthesized in the cortex of the kidney. c) binds to a G-protein couple membrane receptor. d) is produced in excessive amounts in Addison’s disease. e) inhibits sodium reabsorption in the cortical collecting ducts in the kidney. 2. Oxytocin a) is produced in males and females. b) is related in structure to antidiuretic hormone. c) induces milk ejection from the lactating mammary gland. d) is produced by the posterior pituitary. e) All of the above statements are CORRECT. 3. ACTH a) stimulates release of glucocorticoids into the circulation. b) blocks release of mineralocorticoids into the circulation. c) is produced by the hypothalamus. d) exerts a positive feedback on the hypothalamus. e) is a steroid hormone. 4. Thyroid hormone a) is composed of two active forms known as T3 and T4. b) is derived from tyrosine amino acids. c) stimulates basal metabolic rate. d) is produced by toxic goiters. e) All of the above statements are CORRECT. 5. Glucocorticoid deficiency a) can lead to reduced blood sugar levels between meals. b) can affect lipid breakdown. c) reduces protein degradation. d) can affect our ability to take stress. e) All of the above statements are CORRECT. 6. Each of one’s arms has a resistance of 30 PRU. The combined resistance of one’s both arms is thus: a) 10 PRU. b) 15 PRU. c) 30 PRU. d) 45 PRU. e) 60 PRU. 7. A drug that blocks the flow of ions through most of the calcium channels (a “calcium- channel blocker”) in the heart will a) abbreviate the duration of the action potential in ventricular muscle. b) increase the frequency of beating of the sinoatrial node. c) constrict the arterioles in the heart. d) increase the conduction velocity in the AV node. e) increase the conduction velocity in the bundle of His. 8. A premature atrial contraction occurs when there is an ectopic focus somewhere in one of the atria that fires off before the next regular firing of the SA node. What would one most likely see on the ECG during a premature atrial contraction? a) A P-wave followed by a QRS-complex and then by a T-wave. b) An inverted P-wave, not followed by a QRS-complex and a T-wave. c) A QRS-complex followed by a T-wave and then a P-wave. d) No P-wave, no QRS complex, no T-wave. e) None of the above statements is CORRECT. 9. A large dose of an α-adrenergic receptor antagonist is administered to a patient, so that all the α-adrenergic receptors are blocked. Then epinephrine is administered. Which of the following effects would you anticipate to see as a direct result of administering these two drugs (i.e., neglect any reflex compensatory responses that might occur)? a) A rise in heart rate. b) A fall in stroke volume. c) A fall in the contractility of ventricular muscle. d) Constriction of arterioles due to β-adrenergic stimulation. e) Constriction of veins due to β-adrenergic stimulation. 10. Which of the following is not true of hypertension? a) Hypertension refers to a chronic state of elevated systemic arterial blood pressure. b) One must have both a systolic pressure of greater than 140 mm Hg and a diastolic pressure of greater than 90 mm Hg to be diagnosed with hypertension. c) Hypertension can cause ventricular hypertrophy. d) Hypertension may be caused by kidney disease. e) Hypertension can sometimes be treated with diuretic drugs. 11. Which of the following does not contribute to the increased stroke volume seen during exercise? a) Increased contractility of cardiac muscle. b) Increased venous return. c) Increased heart rate. d) Increased end-diastolic volume. e) Increased sympathetic outflow to the ventricular muscle. 12. The helium dilution technique is used to measure a) the inspiratory reserve volume. b) the functional residual capacity. c) the pulmonary blood flow. d) the oxygen consumption. e) the elastic properties of the lungs. 13. In a healthy individual, during resting inspiration, a) the sternocleidomastoid muscles elevate the upper ribs. b) lung volume increases from the level of the residual volume. c) intrapleural pressure becomes more negative (subatmospheric). d) all inhaled air reaches the alveoli. e) air in the conducting zone contains a high CO con2entration. 14. Low PCO in 2he alveoli is suggestive of a) hypoventilation. b) hyperventilation. c) an increase in the body metabolic rate. d) an increased anatomical dead space. e) None of the above statements is CORRECT. 15. A patient with a restrictive lung disease, a) has a high peak expiratory flow. b) may easily inhale large volumes or air. c) has low lung compliance. d) has an increased functional residual capacity. e) has an increased airway resistance. 16. The pulmonary stretch receptors (the vagal pulmonary slowly adapting stretch receptors) are further stimulated by a) lung deflation. b) increased pressure in the alveolar interstitium. c) cigarette smoke in the conducting zone. d) increase in lung volume. e) holding a breath at the functional residual capacity. 17. At functional residual capacity, a) the alveolar pressure is above the atmospheric pressure. b) the recoil pressure of the chest is above the atmospheric pressure. c) the recoil pressure of the lungs is balanced by the recoil pressure of the chest. d) the lung volume is above 50% of the total lung capacity. e) the abdominal muscles are contracted. 18. The transit time of a red blood cell in the pulmonary capillaries a) is too short for equilibration of O a2d CO with2alveolar gas during moderate exercise in a normal subject. b) is long enough for equilibration of O and2CO with a2veolar gas during heavy exercise in a patient with a severe pulmonary edema. c) is 10 times longer than the time needed for equilibration of O and 2O with al2eolar gas. d) is reduced during exercise. e) is directly proportional to the rate of pulmonary blood flow. 19. In the Gastrointestinal Tract (GIT), smooth muscle a) may be found throughout the entire length of the tract. b) are directly innervated by preganglionic parasympathetic fibres. c) always contract in response to sympathetic stimulation of the GIT wall. d) in many regions may exhibit an unstable resting membrane potential. e) All of the above statements are CORRECT. 20. Correct statements regarding the gastrointestinal BER (ECA) include all of the following EXCEPT (choose the INCORRECT statement): a) It may be recorded both during the digestive and the interdigestive periods. b) It determines the maximum frequency of contractions in the gastric antrum. c) It determines the amplitude of peristaltic contractions in the gastric fundus. d) It has different frequencies in different regions of the small intestine. e) It is still present following destruction of the enteric innervation. 21. Normally, the Lower Esophageal Sphincter (LES) a) is located entirely within the abdominal cavity. b) consists of a conspicuous (very noticeable) thickening of the wall musculature. c) has a high resting tone, determined by the circulating level of gastrin. d) relaxes during deglutition as a result of excitation of inhibitory enteric neurons. e) would relax completely, following the administration of atropine. 22. Secondary esophageal peristalsis a) may be initiated by rapid stimulation of pharyngeal receptors. b) may be propagated in the distal esophagus even after destruction of its enteric innervation. c) may be propagated in the proximal esophagus even after the administration of atropine. d) may be inhibited by distension of the esophagus. e) ALL of the above statements are CORRECT. 23. Patients suffering from gastrointestinal ulcers are often treated with drugs such as Histamine Type 2 blockers. The effectiveness of this treatment is based on the fact that these drugs a) bind to muscarinic receptors on the parietal cell, decreasing their responsiveness to ACh. b) bind to gastrin receptors on the parietal cell, decreasing their responsiveness to Gastrin. c) bind to nicotinic receptors on the parietal cell, decreasing their responsiveness to ACh. d) bind to histamine receptors on the parietal cells, decreasing the cell’s responsiveness to both ACh a+d +astrin. e) inhibit the H /K ATPase, which is essential to acid secretion. 24. Chymotrypsinogen a) is secreted by the chief (peptic) cells of the gastric mucosa. b) is activated in the presence of a low pH. c) when activated, gives rise to trypsin. d) is released in response to CCK. e) is one of the enterogastrone hormones. 25. Large quantities of Bile Salts a) in the small intestine promote the absorption of Vitamin B12. b) are reabsorbed from the proximal small intestine into the portal blood. c) in the portal blood cause an increase in the volume of bile secreted by the liver. d) in the gall bladder, cause it to contract and empty its contents into the proximal small intestine. e) are normally lost in the feces. 26. The presence of fat in the duodenum will cause the release of a) a large volume of gastric juice rich in HCl. b) a small volume of pancreatic juice rich in enzymes. c) a small volume of bile rich in lipase. d) a large volume of intestinal fluid rich in CCK. e) All of the above statements are CORRECT. 27. The largest volume of gastric acid secretion would be produced in response to the administration of a) gastrin and secretin. b) CCK and secretin. c) secretin and histamine d) atropine and gastrin. e) histamine and gastrin. 28. A patient brought into the laboratory a urine sample collected for a period of 24 hrs. In the sample, urine concentration of creatinine was 7.5 mmol/L, urine volume was 2 L. Serum creatinine measured at the same time was 150 micromol/L. What is the estimated glomerular filtration rate of this patient? a) 180 L per day. b) 120 L per day. c) 100 L per day. d) 80 L per day. e) None of the above values are CORRECT. 29. If a healthy person drinks a large amount of water, a) plasma concentration of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) will become high. b) plasma osmolality will become high. c) urine osmolality will become low. d) plasma concentration of aldosterone will become high. e) None of the above is CORRECT. 30. If a person has a lung disease and is not able to eliminate carbon dioxide effectively, it leads to an acid-base disorder. Which of the following is FALSE about this person’s acid-base problem? - a) If the renal compensation is appropriate, HCO shou3d be low. b) Blood pH should be low. c) This condition is called “respiratory acidosis”. d) Plasma concentration of hydrogen ion should be high. e) None of the above statements is FALSE. 31. Regarding the renin-antiotensin system, which of the following statements is TRUE? a) Angiotensin converting enzyme converts renin to antiotensin I. b) Renin secretion will increase when parasympathetic nerve is stimulated in the kidney. c) Renin is secreted by macula densa cells. d) Angiotensin I is produced by the liver. e) None of the above statements is TRUE. 32. Which of the following statements regarding the body fluid is TRUE? a) Water consists about 60% of body weight. b) The majority of body water is in the extracellular space. c) Sodium is the major intracellular solute. d) Plasma concentration of Na is a marker of total body sodium. e) None of the above statements is TRUE. 33. Regarding tubular handling of Na , which of the following statements is FALSE? a) Na reabsorption is an active process and requires Na -K -ATPase on the basolateral membrane. + + b) In the cortical collecting duct, Na enters cells mainly via Na channel. c) Quantitatively, proximal tubule is the most important segment of the tubule for Na + reabsorption. + d) Hormonal control of Na reabsorption occurs mainly at the thick ascending limb of Henle’s loop. e) None of the above statements is FALSE. 34. Which of the following statements regarding potassium is TRUE? a) Potassium is a major extracellular ion. b) Approximately 20% of the daily intake of potassium is excreted in the urine. c) Cortical collecting duct is a major site of potassium secretion in the tubule. d) Aldosterone stimulates potassium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule. e) None of the above statements is TRUE. TYPE B: For each of the incomplete statements below, ONE or MORE of the completions given may be correct. Decide which completion(s) is/are correct and darken the appropriate circle as follows: 1. if only a, b and c are correct 2. if only a and c are correct 3. if only b and d are correct 4. if only d is correct 5. if all or none are correct 35. Parathyroid hormone a) is a peptide hormone. b) is released in response to a rise in circulating calcium concentrations. c) induces the production of the active form of vitamin D3. d) is not essential because its activity is similar to that of calcitonin. 36. Estrogen a) has no physiological role in males. b) is produced by the developing follicle. c) enhances recovery of calcium from bones under normal physiological conditions. d) regulates synthesis and secretion of gonadotropins. 37. PXR a) is a key regulator of lipid metabolism. b) is a target of diabetes therapy. c) signaling through PXR enhances adipogenesis. d) is a so-called “orphan” nuclear receptor. 38. Rickets a) is a disease only of adults. b) is characterized by deformed, weakened bones.
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