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McGill University
PSYC 305
Heungsun Hwang

Faculty of Science PHGY 210 - MAMMALIAN PHYSIOLOGY II FINAL EXAMINATION Version 1 Examiner: Dr. T. Trippenbach Monday, April 19, 2004 9:00 a.m. – 12:00 Noon Associate Examiners: Drs. C. Rohlicek, H. Perrault, J. White, A. Wechsler, & T. Takano NAME: STUDENT NUMBER: INSTRUCTIONS: 1. This examination consists of 22 pages with 75 multiple-choice questions (Type A and Type B). ANSWER ALL 75 QUESTIONS. All have equal value and marks are not subtracted for wrong answers. 2. Your McGill STUDENT NUMBER (ID) and CHECK BITS (the first two letters of your LAST NAME as indicated on your ID) will be used for identification purposes in this exam. Please place your name and the 9 digits of your McGill ID number on the answer sheet and FILL IN THE APPROPRIATE CIRCLES below the words “Student No.” and “Check Bits". Also, print your name and McGill ID number on THIS PAGE of the examination. 3. Use a HB black lead pencil to fill in the answer sheet. Fill in the appropriate circle according to the instructions at the top of each page. Enter only ONE mark for each question. ALL ERASURES MUST BE COMPLETE. 4. CHALLENGES/EXPLANATIONS: If you think that a given question is unclear or ambiguous, MARK THE NUMBER OF THE QUESTION AND YOUR ANSWER AT THE TOP OF THIS PAGE. Use the back of this sheet to very briefly explain your reasoning. If your reasoning is correct, it will be taken into account in the determination of your grade. Challenges WILL NOT be considered after the examination has been written. 5. LEAVE THE ANSWER SHEET AND THE ENTIRE EXAMINATION PAPER as directed at the end of the examination. You may NOT keep your examination paper. WARNING: Exam Security Monitor Program: The Examination Security Monitor Program detects pairs of students with unusually similar answer patterns on multiple- choice exams. Data generated by this program can be used as admissible evidence, either to initiate or corroborate an investigation or a charge of cheating under Section 16 of the Code of Student Conduct and Disciplinary Procedures. TYPE A: Choose the ONE that is BEST in each case and darken the appropriate circle. 1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a) The pulmonary artery carries oxygenated blood back to the left ventricle. b) The affinity of CO fo2 hemoglobin is greater in the arterial than in the venous blood. c) The conducting zone includes the respiratory bronchioles. d) Cilia help remove foreign particles from the airways. e) The most important role of the respiratory zone is the elimination of toxic materials from the circulation. 2. Hyperventilation a) is always present during exercise. b) decreases CO content in the arterial blood. 2 c) decreases O co2tent in the arterial blood. d) leads to blood acidosis. e) leads to an increased difference between the O conte2t in the arterial and mixed venous blood. 3. The amount of O dif2using from blood to the tissues per unit of time a) is assisted by the Haldane effect. b) is assisted by the Bohr effect. c) is independent of the tissue metabolic rate. d) is independent of body temperature. e) is independent of blood flow in the tissues capillaries. 4. Oxygen content in the mixed venous blood a) does not depend on its partial pressure. b) decreases when the body metabolism increases. c) increases when the blood 2-3 DPG levels increase. d) is independent of hemoglobin concentration. e) is the same as that in the arterial blood. 5. Vagal pulmonary slowly adapting receptors a) are innervated by non-myelinated fibers. b) are stimulated by noxious gases present in the conducting zone. c) help to control depth and duration of inspiration. d) are located in the respiratory bronchioles. e) have irregular firing during inspiration and expiration. 6. The velocity of blood flow is greatest in a) the ascending aorta. b) the arterioles. c) the capillaries. d) the veins. e) the right atrium. 7. The “P” wave of the electrocardiogram represents a) depolarization of the atria. b) repolarization of the atria. c) depolarization of the ventricles. d) repolarization of the ventricules. e) potentials from the bundle of His. 8. The tricarboxylic acid cycle a) is the main source of cellular ATP production. b) is initiated by the combination of lactic acid and acetyl-CoA. c) is not used for lipid oxidation. d) occurs in the cytosol. e) occurs in the plasma. 9. Which of the following is the most accurate description of paracrine signaling? a) A hormone released from tissue A binds to specific receptors on tissue B. b) A hormone released from tissue A induces the secretion of another hormone from tissue B which functions in a negative feedback loop on tissue A. c) A released hormonal substance binds to its specific receptor on the same cell. d) A released hormonal substance binds to its specific receptor on an adjacent cell. e) None of the above statements is correct. 10. Which of the following can be a cause of cretinism? a) Insufficient production of thyroid hormone. b) Hyperthyroidism during infancy. c) Production of too much parathyroid hormone because of a parathyroid tumor. d) Excessive iodine in the diet. e) None of the above statements is correct. 11. Acromegaly arises from a) insufficient growth hormone production during development. b) failure to release growth hormone releasing hormone from the hypothalamus. c) failure to synthesize growth hormone releasing hormone. d) production of too much growth hormone during adulthood. e) None of the above statements is correct. 12. Aldosterone a) is a mineralocorticoid. b) is synthesized in the adrenal cortex. c) binds to a receptor that functions in the nucleus. d) increases the reabsorption of sodium from the kidneys. e) All of the above statements are correct. 13. ACTH a) is produced by the hypothalamus. b) blocks release of glucocorticoids into the circulation. c) induces release of mineralocorticoids into the circulation. d) is a steroid hormone. e) All of the above statements are correct. 14. Atrial natriuretic peptides a) have opposite effects to aldosterone. b) increase the concentration of sodium in the urine. c) were discovered in the heart but are also produced by some other tissues. d) are produced as a response to an increase in blood pressure. e) All of the above statements are correct. 15. What is/are true about the pancreas? a) Most of it produces digestive enzymes. b) It produces insulin from beta cells. c) It is located behind the stomach. d) It produces glucagon from the alpha cells. e) All of the above statements are true. 16. The corpus luteum a) is a temporary endocrine organ necessary for development of the follicle. b) degenerates prior to ovulation. c) is a source of steroid hormones. d) is found in the endometrium. e) All of the above statements are correct. 17. The LH surge a) is induced by a build-up in circulating estrogen concentrations. b) is accompanied by a release of FSH. c) refers to the release of LH by the pituitary. d) induces ovulation. e) All of the above statements are correct. 18. 1All of the following statements regarding the innervation of the Gastrointestinal Tract (GIT) are correct EXCEPT (choose the incorrect one): a) Some enteric neurons are excitatory, but some are inhibitory. b) Some enteric neurons release ACh, but some release a NANC (Non- Adrenergic, Non-Cholinergic) transmitter. c) Some enteric neurons innervate muscle cells, but some innervate secretory cells. d) Parasympathetic fibres reaching the tract are preganglionic, but sympathetic fibres reaching the tract are postganglionic. e) Sympathetic fibres reaching the tract synapse with enteric ganglia, but parasympathetic fibres reading the tract synapse directly with muscular or secretory cells. 19. The BER (Basic Electrical Rhythm) of the GIT a) originates in neurons of the Enteric Nervous System (ENS). b) is absent during the interdigestive period. c) may be abolished by the administration of atropine. d) is always accompanied by contractions. e) has a higher frequency in the small intestine than in the stomach. 20. The frequency of primary esophageal peristaltic waves is related to the frequency of a) respiration. b) swallowing. c) the esophageal BER . d) the esophageal MMC (Migrating Myoelectric Complex). e) the intrinsic rhythmic firing of esophageal myenteric plexus neurons. 21. In the distal esophagus of humans, secondary peristaltic waves a) are never seen. b) are generated by rapid stimulation of pharyngeal receptors. c) require the integrity of the esophageal vagal innervation. d) cannot occur if the enteric innervation is destroyed. e) always occur with the same frequency as primary peristaltic waves. 22. Normally, the Lower Esophageal Sphincter (LES) a) is made up partly of striated muscle, and partly of smooth muscle. b) is located partly in the thoracic cavity and partly in the abdominal cavity. c) is completely relaxed following the administration of blockers of muscarinic receptors. d) is completely relaxed following cutting of the vagus nerves to the sphincter. e) All of the above statements are correct. 23. All of the following statements regarding Receptive Relaxation are true EXCEPT (choose the incorrect one): a) It occurs only in the proximal region of the stomach. b) It can no longer occur if the enteric innervation of the stomach has been destroyed. c) It is mediated by the release of the inhibitory neurotransmitter nor- adrenaline. d) It plays an important role in preventing liquids from leaving the stomach too rapidly. e) It is one of the deglutition reflexes. 24. The entrance of a very fatty chyme into the duodenum will cause all of the following EXCEPT (choose the incorrect one): a) inhibition of gastric HCl secretion. b) inhibition of antral peristalsis. c) release of pancreatic juice rich in lipase. d) release of hepatic bile rich in co-lipase. e) contraction of the gall bladder. 25. CORRECT statements regarding the Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CTZ) include the following one(s): a) It is also known as the Vomiting Centre. b) It is located in the medulla. c) It may be activated in response to chemical irritation of the GIT. d) Its intactness is required for vomiting to take place in response to adverse psychogenic stimuli. e) All of the above statements are correct. 26. CORRECT statements regarding gastric HCl include the following one: a) It is secreted primarily by cells located in the pyloric antrum. b) It is secreted by the same cells which secrete Vitamin B . 12 c) Its secretion is accompanied by an increase in the pH of the gastric venous outflow. d) Its secretion requires the activity of an ATPase in the canalicular membrane which exchanges H for Na . + e) It inhibits the action of pepsin. 27. All the following statements about Gastrin are true EXCEPT (choose the incorrect one): a) It is a peptide hormone. b) It does not stimulate the parietal cell directly; instead, it causes the release of histamine, which then acts on the H-2 receptor on the parietal cell. c) Some gastrin is normally secreted during the cephalic phase of gastric juice production. d) Its secretion is inhibited if the pH in the vicinity of the cells which produce it is <2. e) It is secreted by cells in the pyloric antrum, but absent from the fundus and corpus. 28. All of the following statements about the pancreas are true EXCEPT (choose the incorrect one): a) It secretes a juice which is isotonic. b) It secretes enzymes which have an optimal pH in the alkaline range. c) It secretes a juice of low volume but high enzyme content during the cephalic phase. d) It secretes a juice in response to secretin which has the same characteristics as the juice secreted in response to vagal stimulation. e) It secretes an amylase which has the same function as salivary amylase. 29. A patient with chronic renal failure DOES NOT have elevated plasma value of a) urea. b) creatinine. c) potassium. d) bicarbonate. e) hydrogen ion. 30. When the plasma concentration of the substance X is 2 g/L, the urine concentration of the substance X is 1 g/L and the urine volume is 1.5 L per day, what is the clearance of the substance X? a) 3 L per day b) 1.5 L per day c) 0.75 L per day d) 0.375 L per day e) None of the above values is correct. 31. Which of the followings is the closest to the normal net glomerular filtration pressure? a) 120 mmHg b) 90 mmHg c) 60 mmHg d) 30 mmHg e) 15 mmHg 32. Vasopressin a) is a steroid hormone. b) is synthesized in the adrenal gland. c) enhances water reabsorption in the collecting duct. d) is secreted in response to low plasma osmolarity. e) stimulates renin production. 33. Indicate which one of the following substances filtered at the glomerulus is incorrectly matched with its handling by the tubule and its urinary excretion. Substance Handling by tubule Net reabsorption (expressed as % of filtered amount) a) Potassium Reabsorption & secretion 86% b) Water Reabsorption 99% c) Sodium Reabsorption & secretion 99.5% d) Glucose Reabsorption 100% e) Urea Reabsorption 44% 34. Inhibitors of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase can be used as diuretics because they inhibit tubular reabsorption of HCO3. Which of the followings is most commonly seen in a patient taking such medications? a) High plasma concentration of HCO . 3- b) Metabolic acidosis. c) High plasma concentration of CO . 2 + d) Low plasma concentration of H . e) Respiratory acidosis. 35. Renin secretion is NOT increased by a) increa
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