List the hierarchical organization of the body starting from cells ending with organism.
How many distinct cells are in the human body?
Define muscle cells.
Define nerve cells.
Define connective tissue cells.
Define epithelial cells.
Total body water is _____ L or _____ % body wt.
Intracellular H2O = _____ L, Interstitial H2O = _____ L, and Plasma H2O = _____ L.
Intracellular H2O is known as the _____ _____ _____ and accounts for approximately _____ of total body
Interstitial and Plasma H2O combined are known as the _____ _____ _____ and accounts for
approximately _____ of total body water.
_____ _____ is rapidly transported by the circulation and mixes between blood and tissues by diffusion
through capillary walls. It bathes tissues and makes up the _____ _____ of the body. Proper cellular
function depends on tight control of _____ components.
What was the work of Claude Bernard?
What was the work of Walter Cannon? In addition, he stated that homeostasis is “The maintenance of static
or constant conditions in the _____ _____”
What is a negative feedback? Provide some examples.
Reflexes are a key component of _____ _____. What are they strictly defined as? Some are _____ or
_____. Most are _____ by learning.
What is a reflex arc?
Restoration of set point _____ _____ of exact and a persistent error signal keeps feedback loop in
operation. Hence the term “_____” stable in the definition of homeostasis.
Define afferent pathway.
Define efferent pathway.
Intercellular communication: Cell to cell communication is important for homeostasis. It is performed by
_____ _____ _____.
Three types: _____, _____ and _____.
Define hormones. Provide examples.
Define neurotransmitters. Provide examples.
Define autocrine/paracrine agents. Provide examples.
Distinguish between autocrine and paracrine.
What are the two functions of membranes?
Define tight junctions.
Extracellular membranes of adjacent cells joined. Transport pathway between cells (extracellular) blocked.
Most substances must therefore go _____. Forms a _____ _____. Example includes most epithelial cells.
Define desmosomes. Where are they found?
Define gap junctions. Protein channels AKA _____ link cytosols of adjacent cells. What is the size of the
channels so that there is a limitation as to what can pass? Concentrated in _____ _____ at _____ ______
and important for passage of _____ signals.
Proteins and protein function central to physiology. What are the two things protein activity is controlled
Define allosteric modulation.
Define covalent modulation. Protein kinases add PO4-2 from ATP to proteins. PO4-2 can be removed by _____ _____. Kinases can be
controlled allosterically demonstrating that the 2 systems can _____. Both allosteric and covalent
modification affect the binding _____ of the enzyme for the substrate (ligand) or binding site can be turned
off or on.
Define cell metabolism. What are the two categories?
Virtually every chemical reaction in the body is catalyzed by _____.
Often need _____ (trace metals such as Mg, Fe, Cu and Zn) or _____ derived from vitamins (e.g. NAD+,
FAD+, and coenzyme A and B vitamins).
Uncatalyzed they occur at too slow a rate (years in some cases) due to high _____ _____.
Enzymes decrease the activation energy and increase reaction rates by a factor of _____ to _____.
Enzyme kinetics: What is the general chemical equation? Which step is most important?
What do the rates of enzyme reactions depend upon (3 things)?
Receptors show characteristics very similar to enzymes. What does the magnitude of a cell’s response
depend upon (3 things)?
The quantitative description of enzyme reaction rates to [S] constans Vmax and Km occurs by the
Michaelis-Menten equation. What is the equation? Define each term.
If affinity _____ then the number of ES complexes increase at any given [S] or the same number of [ES] at
lower [S] (i.e. Km _____). In other words at high affinities 1/2Vmax occurs at a _____ [S].
Define metabolic pathways.
Define end product inhibition.
Specific reaction steps may be regulated to control _____ through the entire pathway. Classically, these are
called “_____ _____” stems but modern control theory does not use this term.
What is control theory?
Metabolic pathways – ATP synthesis: One of the major roles of metabolic pathways is to convert the
energy in food (stored as fuel) to power _____ _____.
List methods of ATP production.
List methods of consuming ATP.
ATP can be produced by two types of phosphorylation. What are they? When do they occur?
List the functions of the mitochondria.
Mitochondria: Provide characteristics of the 1) outer membrane, 2) inner membrane, and 3) matrix.
Transport mechanisms: Transport across _____ is important for physiological function. Membrane provides
a _____ _____ to control movement in and out of cells.
What are two transport mechanisms?
Diffusion is the movement of molecules from one location to another due to _____ _____ _____.
Movement is from a region of _____ to a region of _____ concentration until there is _____ _____.
Net flux: flux 1 – flux 2 and is in the direction of _____ concentration.
If flux 1 > flux 2: Net flux from compartment with _____ concentration to that with lower concentration.
Gradient for diffusion causes _____ movement of solute.
If flux 1 = flux 2: Net flux is zero when the system reaches _____ _____. No gradient for diffusion exists.
Net flux depends upon what 4 factors?
Diffusion: times (t) are proportional to the distance (x)^2 over which diffusion occurs. Therefore, it is only
effective over _____ _____.
Single cells are small enough (10um-20um) for diffusive exchange but large animals need a _____ _____
for long-distance transport.
Flux across the lipid bilayer is described by Fick’s equation. List the equation and define all variables.
Kp: is a measure of the ease of passage of a substance across a phospholipid membrane. It is a function of
what three things? O2, CO2 and fatty acids and steroid hormones are nonpolar (high Kp) and diffuse _____. Most organic
molecules are charged (polar) or ionized (ionized phosphate groups) and diffuse _____ or not at all (low
Diffusion thru transmembrane protein channels: Important for the movement of _____ _____ which
normally do not diffuse across lipid bilayers.
Na+, K+, Cl- and Ca+ pass thru the membrane with the aid of _____ transmembrane protein channels.
Both _____ and _____ are important for the movement of ions. Also called the _____ _____. The
membrane potential is always _____ inside a resting cell.
Separation of charge across a membrane = _____
List properties of electrical forces. Electrical driving force on cations = _____ _____. Electrical driving
force on anions = _____ _____.
Magnitude of electrical driving force is dependent on what two factors?
Electrochemical driving forces: Direction of ion movement depends on balance between chemical and
electrical driving forces. If the two forces are equal, the electrochemical force is _____.
If chemical > electrical = _____ _____
If chemical < electrical = _____ _____
Ek = _____ _____ for K+ reflects the chemical driving force. Different from membrane potential.
Define channel protein.
Selective for _____ _____ _____ due to size and the charged and polar surface of the protein subunits of
the channels. Electrically _____ or _____ particular ions. Opening of pore can be regulated (e.g. membrane
potential regulates _____-_____ channels).
Define facilitated diffusion.
Explain the glucose flux diagram.
Define facilitated diffusion.
Facilitated diffusion differs from simple diffusion in that it involves selective _____ _____ for large polar
or charged molecules. Mediated transport can also become _____ and reach maximal flux. It binds to
substrates and undergoes _____ _____.
Define primary active transport.
Covalent modulation of transporter (via _____ of ATP) increases the affinity of the solute _____ _____.
Define covalent modulation.
Dephosphorylation occurs by conformational change of the _____ and decreases the _____ of the binding
site. Define dephosphorylation. Provide examples.
Intracellular K+ = _____. Extracellular K+ = _____. Inward movement of K+ is uphill and requires _____
transport. Intracellular Na+ = _____. Extracellular Na+ = _____. Inward movement of Na+ is uphill and
requires _____ transport. Exists in almost _____ cell.
Membranes are “_____” to ions. Ion pumping to maintain proper gradients produces _____ as a byproduct.
Up to _____% heat production in some cases.
Endotherms have _____ membranes than ectotherms. This results in a metabolic rate that is _____ times
that of a similar sized ectotherm. Which has leakier membrane – mouse or frog?
Define secondary active transport.
SAT uses [ion] gradient across membrane as _____ _____. As ion moves down its concentration gradient it
provides energy for the _____ _____ of another solute. Usually Na+ binding changes the _____ of the
transporter for solute via _____ _____. Primary active transport is needed to _____ the Na+ gradient that
provides energy for secondary transport.
Define signal transduction. Define osmosis.
Flux can be increased by the presence of _____ = protein channels.
H2O concentration depends on the _____ of dissolved particles.
Total [solute] in solution determines _____ (colligative properties).
Define colligative properties.
1 mole of dissolved particles = _____ _____ _____
1 M of glucose in solution = _____ _____, but 1 M of NaCl = _____ _____ since it ionizes in sol’n to Na+
The higher osmolarity of a solution the _____ the H2O concentration.
Osmosis is in the direction of _____ osmolarity or _____ H2O concentration.
Cells are very _____ to water and _____ to many solutes.
Define isotonic. What happens to the cell?
Define hypertonic. What happens to the cell?
Define hypotonic. What happens to the cell?
Compare this to osmolarity: Relates the osmolarity of a solution relative to normal extracellular fluid
without regard to penentrating or nonpenetrating nature of solutes. A solution can be _____ at 300 mOsm
but _____ due to penentrating solutes.
Signal transduction pathways detect intercellular messengers and convert them into a biologically
meaningful response. There are 4 features…
What is feedback?
Receptors: What 3 factors does the magnitude of a cell’s response depend upon?
Receptors show characteristics very similar to _____. They can become _____ with messenger.
An increase in the number of receptors _____ the % bound with messenger.
A change in the affinity for messenger can increase the number of bound receptors at the same _____
concentration. Or 50% of the receptors are bound at a _____ messenger concentration.
Receptors can be intracellular: bind to _____ messengers. This alters synthesis of a specific _____. Acts as
Lipophilic messengers can cross over the _____ _____ and get into cell.
Receptors can be located in the _____ or in the _____. Provide example of a nuclear receptor.
Receptors can be membrane bound: How many main types?
Define channel-linked. (e.g. binding opens ion channel). Called _____-_____ channels. This is an example
of a “_____” channel as it just relies on binding of messenger. Channel also acts as the _____. Allows
channel to _____ quickly and briefly.
Enzyme-linked: Ligand-binding domain on _____ _____ and an enzyme active site on the _____ side.
Binding activates tyrosine kinase activity which phosphorylates a protein on tyrosine.
Define tyrosine kinase.
G-protein linked: Activate membrane proteins called _____ and begin a signalling cascade. G-proteins can
be stimulatory (Gs) or inhibitory (Gi).
G-protein linked receptors regulate a _____ _____. (i.e they can open or close a “_____” ion channel. The
cannel does not act as a receptor. They also often activate an _____. (i.e. adenylate cyclase to produce
Second messengers: IntERcellular chemical messengers which reaches the cell surface is called the _____
messenger. The intracellular messenger produced by the binding of the first messenger is called the _____
messenger. SMs act as _____ _____ from the plasma membrane to the biochemical machinery _____ the
List the important 2 messengers. Review the response of the cell for glycogen breakdown in liver cells.
Why do we have a circulatory system?
The CS is a fast connection system = rapidly circulating fluids between surfaces that equilibrate _____
_____ and _____ _____ _____ organisms.
What is the primary role of the CS? What is the secondary role?
What does the CS consist of?
The CS is composed of _____ circuits.
Outline the pulmonary circulation.
Outline the systemic circulation.
Both have an _____ (blood away from heart) and a _____ component (returns blood to heart). The
bloodflow is equal in each at approximately _____ L/min.
The plasma is composed of 6 things: List all 6, and provide properties and examples.
ISF and plasma values are close to each other except that proteins are _____ in the plasma.
Capillary wall is very _____ to H2O and most plasma components except _____.
In a microhematocrit tube, plasma is the _____ dense and is _____% of blood. The buffy coat is composed
of _____ and _____ and is the _____ dense and is _____% of blood. Erythrocytes are the _____ dense and
is _____ % of blood.
Total blood volume = _____ L. Plasma = _____ L, and RBCs = _____ L.
What is the most abundant cell type in blood?
What is the major function of RBCs?
In mammals, RBCs do not contain a _____ or other _____. They contain large amounts of _____ (85% of
protein content) for carrying O2 (and some CO2). The enzyme _____ _____ is important for CO2 transport.
_____ of cells are important for rapid O2 and CO2 diffusion. Biconcave disk = thicker on the edges than in
the middle. This provides a high _____ _____ to _____ ratio and gives the greatest flexibility.
There are _____ Hb molecules per RBC. Hb is a _____ with a molecular weight of _____, composed of 4
Each unit consists of a “_____” ring structure which binds and a polypeptide chain (_____) which binds
_____, _____, and _____, etc.
Hb exhibits the property of _____ _____ = “binding at one site on a molecule affects binding at a second
site, usually by changing the shape of the molecule.”
Regulation of erythrocyte production: Blood components are under tight reflex (_____) control.
RBC product occurs primarily in the _____ _____. RBCs have a relatively short life span of _____ days.
Approximately _____% of RBCs are recycled per day and the breakdown occurs in the _____ and _____.
The product of breakdown is _____ which is _____ in colour.
Production (_____) is primarily regulated by the hormone _____, secreted by specialized cells in the _____.
Increased release triggered by _____ O2 delivery to the _____.
Outline the regulation of erythrocyte production.
What are the ways to increase RBCs?
The buffy coat is comprised of leukocytes and blood platelets. Provide properties and examples for 1)
leucosytes and 2) blood platelets.
What is the equation for the fundamental law of circulation? Define all variables.
deltaP = _____ - _____. Provide the rest of the equation.
MAP is the overall pressure driving _____ into tissues.
Systemic = _____ mmHg, Pulmonary = _____ mmHg Q = m L/min for each circuit, thus R must be _____ in the pulmonary circuit.
Pulmonary circuit has _____ pressure and _____ resistance. What are the three purposes to this?
Systemic circuit has _____ pressure and _____ resistance. What are the three purposes to this?
What is Poiseuille’s Law? Define all variables.
Resistance vessels (arterioles) are capable of _____ (muscle contraction) and _____ (stretching of vessel)
changes in radius.
What occurs when there’s addition of Rs in series? In parallel?
Most major resistances are arranged in _____. Portal circulation is an example of resistance in _____.
_____ networks are small vessels arranged in parallel. Even though r is small per _____, total resistance of
all capillaries is not huge.
Define total peripheral resistance (TPR).
Resistance across a network of blood vessels depends on _____ of all vessels.
_____ through network varies with resistance.
Vasoconstriction in network increase resistance _____ flow.
Vasodilation in network decrease resistance _____ flow.
What is the formula for cardiac output?
Vascular system: Complete the table.
Part Inner radius Properties
Which three parts are associated with microcirculation?
All parts of the circulatory system have _____ (inner layer), all but capillaries have _____ _____ and
connective tissue (outer layer).
Arteries are muscular and highly elastic because they have high _____/_____ in connective tissue.
Define compliance. What is the formula for compliance?
Moderate compliance to smooth out _____ fluctuations in heart. Large chances in _____ with small
changes in _____ make arteries _____ reservoirs. Large changes in volume with small changes in _____
make veins _____ reservoirs. The higher the compliance the greater a vessel can be stretched.
Which has higher compliance – arteries or veins?
Arteries as a pressure reservoir: Stores pressure which is then released between _____ _____ (diastole).
Only _____ of the stroke volume leaves the arteries at this time, and the rest leave when the arterial wall
recoils. Recoil occurs during diastole and this maintains _____ constant.
Pressure peaks during ventricular ejection (systole) = systolic pressure (SP), lowest is diastolic pressure btw
_____. SP – DP = _____ _____ (_____).
PP depends on stroke volume, speed of injection and compliance of arteries. Low compliance = high
_____. Provide an example.
What are the two roles of arterioles?
Arterioles are the major site of _____ in cardiovascular system. Adjust resistnce of vessels going to tissues
by adjusting _____ both passively (stretch) and actively (nerves, hormones, etc). Are well _____ and
contain _____ _____ that contracts (vasoconstriction) or relaxes (vasodilates). Always some intrinsic tone
(_____ _____) plus tonic constriction due to basal firing of SNS.
Control of vascular smooth muscle: What are some local/intrinsic controls? What are some extrinsic
What is active hyperemia? Where does it occur? What does it affect?
What is reactive hyperemia? What is a myogenic response?
Extrinsic controls: Provide properties for SNS. PSNS. Hormones. In most vascular beds, _____ outnumber _____ (except in skeletal muscle). Epinephrine has a greater
affinity for _____ receptors.
At rest, cardiac output is 5L/min. How is this 5 L divided – complete table?
During exercise, cardiac output is 25L/min. How is this 25 L divided – complete table?
At rest During exercise
High concentration of _____ - binds to both alpha and beta2. _____ in skeletal and cardiac muscle vascular
beds. _____ TPR. _____ in most other vascular beds. Maintain/increase TPR maintain _____ _____.
Dominant effect usually _____.
List all vasoconstrictor hormones.
List all vasodilator hormones.
Metarterioles and precapillary sphincters: Passive and active changes in _____ and _____. Both contain
rings of _____ _____, no _____, only affected by _____ _____ (intrinsic control).
Metarterioles act as bypass channels or shunts from _____ to _____. When _____ is low in these vessels,
blood may bypass capillary bed.
Capillaries: Thin walled tube of _____ _____. Permeate most tissues and cells generally within _____ mm
from a capillary. Small in radius but networks have large _____ _____, approximately 10-40 billion
capillaries for a combined surface area of _____ m^2.
This is important for two things. What are they?
Increased SA leads to _____ blood velocity. This is important because it maximizes time for _____
nutrients and wastes.
Provide properties of continuous capillaries.
Provide properties of fenestrated/sinusoidal capillaries.
Bulk flow: Capillary membranes freely permeable to _____ and _____ _____.
Net flow of fluid from _____ to _____ (IF) = filtration _____ _____ to _____ = absorption.
The role of bulk flow is to maintain fluid balance between plasma and _____ = _____.
What are the 4 main forces determining direction of flow (Starling-landis forces)? List whether each force
favours absorption or filtration.
Net fluid flow across capillaries depends on the difference in filtration pressure and absorption pressures.
Provide the formula for NFP.
Filtration = _____ L/day
Absorption = _____ L/day
Filtration usually exceeds absorption with _____ L entering IF (= total plasma volume). This fluid is
returned to the circulatory system by the _____ system. Lymph flow = _____L/day. If it is not returned,
what is the result?
What is the term used for extreme case of failure of lymphatic system to clear fluid?
Due to low pressures there is normally no filtration in _____ capillaries.
Venuoles and veins: Return blood back to the heart (via _____ _____) and act as a _____ _____ (50-85%
of blood volume – vasoconstriction or vasodilation).
Think-walled and highly _____ vessels to accommodate large volumes for small changes in pressure
Necessary force provided by _____ between peripheral veins (10-15 mmHg) and right atrium (0 mmHg).
Adequate becase of low _____ of veins. Veins have one-way _____ that ensure movement is towards heart.
What does venous pressure depend upon?
Venous return has a major effect of volume ejected by the heart = _____ _____
Skeletal muscle pump: muscle contraction increases _____ pressure. Lower valve closes and upper valve
opens – reverse when muscle _____.
Lecture 11 and 12
What are the three layers the heart is composed of?
Cardiac muscle is comprised of _____ types of cells. Name them.
Contractile cells: majority of cells (_____%), have properties of skeletal (striated – actin and myosin) and
smooth muscle (gap junctions).
All cardiac cells interconnected (as a _____) through gap junctions, protein channels linking cytosols, small
Concentrated at _____ _____ which contain connections that hold the cells tightly together and resists
mechanical stress (_____).
Pacemaker cells: determine the _____ the heart beats. Where are the two locations that they are located?
SA has a higher intrinsic rate (_____ impulses/min) than the AV (_____ impulses/min).
Conduction fibers (Bundle of His and Purkinje fibers): Rapidly conduct (_____ m/s) AP generated by the
pacemaker cells. Cell-cell rate through gap junctions is _____ m/s.
The heart consists of 2 synctiums (_____ and _____) connected by conduction fibers.
Autorhythmic cells: Complete the table.
Location Firing Rate at Rest (APs/min)
Bundle of His
_____ depolarizing cells drive all other cells. (They are linked together by _____ _____ = pacemaker = sets
pace for entire heart.)
Regulation of heart rate (both rate and force are regulated): Heart affected by changes in rates of AP
generated by pacemaker. Pacemakers get direct input by _____ _____ _____.
SNS and PSNS have _____ effects. SNS has more connections to _____ (more effects on _____ than
Cardiac nerve: acts on SA and AV nodes via _____ adrenergic receptors to _____ heart rate.
Vegus nerve (acetylcholine) acts on SA and AV nodes via _____ muscarinic receptors to _____ heart rate.
Predominant factor in setting resting heart rate of _____ bpm (rate without any inputs = _____ bpm)
Hormones (e.g. Epi) can affect heart rate. Increases heart rate via same mechanisms as _____.
Molecular mechanism (neuro- and hormonal): Receptor binding alters _____ _____ and changes rate of
_____ _____. Provide example.
How does temperature affect heart rate?
List the sequential events that trigger a heartbeat.
Volume ejected by ventricles with each heartbeat = _____ _____.
What is the formula for SV?
EDV (ventricle filled) = _____ ml
ESV (ventricle emptied) = _____ ml
SV (volume ejected) = _____ ml
If EDV _____ then SV increases. If ESV _____ then SV decreases.
Ejection fraction = _____/_____. What is the percent of ejection fraction at rest? What % of blood is still
left in the heart?
What is the Frank-Starling law? What is its most important function? Review graph.
What are the 6 factors that affect venous return and EDV?
Regulation of stroke volume via ESV. Define afterload. Define ventricular contractility.
Molecular mechanism: Usually involves a change in the amount of Ca2+ _____ per AP into (contractile)
What are three factors that affect contractility and ESV? What do they affect?
Review summary of cardiovascular changes during mild exercise.
Despite all these complex changes, the _____ did not change very much. This reflects the homeostatic role
of the _____ _____.
The role of the baroreceptors (sensory receptor neuron) is to keep systemic MAP as close to _____ mmHg
The arterial baroreceptors continually monitor the systemic MAP and inform the _____ _____ _____ in the
medulla of the brain.
Baroreceptor reflexes are the most important _____ _____ regulator of MAP (seconds to minutes).
Baroreceptors = _____ _____
List two types of arterial baroreceptors. Where are they locate?
The level of MAP is continually “_____” as AP frequency sent by the arterial baroreceptors. This is
“_____” at a higher level in hypertension. Review diagram.
What occurs following a haemorrhage? What’s the result?
Efferent pathways of the baroreceptor reflex: sympathetic nerve goes to pacemaker cells to _____ heart
rate, and to heart muscles to _____ the rate of contraction.
Baroreceptor reflexes also facilitate short term _____ _____ of blood plasma volume by _____ of fluid
from interstitial space and lymph.
Long-term regulation of MAP happens at the _____.
List all of the things the kidneys regulate.
The urinary system has 4 components. List all 4.
All smooth muscles have _____ _____.
The urinary bladder consists of three components, list them. Which one can be control consciously (SNS
control)? Which one cannot be controlled consciously (Somatic NS control)?
Complete the table: Active or Inactive
List key structures within the kidney.
What is a nephron?
Each renal pyramid contains _____ to _____ nephrons and _____ to _____ pyramids per kidney, each with
separate branches of renal artery and renal vein. 1-1.5 million nephrons per kidney x 2 = 2-3 million
nephrons total in your waste filtration system. Lots of filtration, similar to arteries. Small, but large _____
_____ when combined with others.
By the time the urine leaves the nephron, it is fully _____ (processed so that it only contains _____, and
_____ have been removed and sent for processing.
We can understand urine formation by understanding the function of a single _____.
Glomerular filtration: What is the function of the peritubular capillary bed? This system uses _____ to help
filter stuff in and out.
Nephron (blood side): “_____ _____” = essentially two capillary beds in series, joined by an arteriole.
What is the function of the afferent arteriole? What is the function of the glomerulus?
What is the function of the efferent arteriole?
What is the function of the pertitubular capillary bed and vasa recta?
What are the three basic processes by which urine is formed?
Nephron (urine/tubule side): Tubule is essentially a single winding _____ along which the urine flows and
gets progressively _____.
What is the function of the Bowman’s capsule?
What is the function of the proximal convoluted tubule?
PCT: _____% of Na+, Cl- and H2O reabsorption occur here (a _____ _____).
PCT: _____ to _____% of everything else is reabsorbed here (a _____ _____).
PCT: >_____% of secretion occurs here for most substances.
What is the function of the Loop of Henle?
LoH: _____% of Na+, Cl-, and H2O reabsorption occurs here (a _____ _____).
The distal convoluted tubule is the _____ largest part.
What is the function of the common collecting duct?
Together, the DCT and CCD account for approximately _____% of the Na+, Cl- and H2O reabsorption (a
Variability occurs because there are sites of _____ actions controlling reabsorption and secretion.
Key hormones are _____ and _____ (antidiuretic hormone = vasopressin), also _____ _____ _____ and
The DCT and CCD are major sites of _____ secretion.
A simplified model of nephron function: Outline the three basic exchange processes.
Glomerular filtration: a volume equivalent to _____% of the plasma flowing through the glomeriular
capillaries is filtered, forming the _____ _____ collected into the Bowman’s capsule.
This “_____” contains a representative sample of everything in plasma except _____ (and _____-bound
M.W. cutoff is approximately _____, and the smallest plasma protein is albumen at _____.
GFR = _____ L/day.
Entire plasma volume of the body is converted to primary urine every _____ minutes. _____% of the
filtrate is subsequently reabsorbed in the tubule.
A fraction (_____%) of everything is filtered. Valuable substances are selectively _____ while wastes,
foreign substances are _____ _____. Therefore, the kidney can excrete virtually any waste or foreign
Plasma flow = _____ ml/min, GFR = _____ ml/min, and filtration fraction = _____/_____ = 20%.
180L filtered per day but only _____ L of urine excreted. (Thus, a lot of reabsorption).
Provide properties of filtration barrier.
Glomerular filtration: Starling-landis forces involved in glomerular filtration. What is the formula for net
filtration pressure (NFP)? Define all variables.
What is the result of constricting afferent arteriole?
What is the result of constricting efferent arteriole?
Balance of afferent and efferent resistance is very important in controlling proper equilibrium of _____ and
_____ and balancing GFR. Level of MAP is also very important in controlling GFR.
Tubular secretion: Relatively few substances (approximately _____) which are often present in great excess
are actively transported into the urine from the blood. What are some examples? Where does this mainly
occur? (Except for K+)
Tubular reabsorption: All “_____” substances (a very large number) are reabsorbed from the urine into the
blood by a combination of _____ and _____ mechanisms. Provide examples. This occurs mainly in _____ _____, but variable reabsorption of H2O, Na+, Cl- and urea in DCT and CCD
determines final urine volume and composition. Because of this active transport work, _____ can account
for _____% of BMR of whole body.
What substances are reabsorbed in the proximal tubule? Loop of Henle (descending limb)? Loop of Henle
(ascending limb)? Distal tubule? Collecting duct?
What substances are secreted in the proximal tubule? Loop of Henle (descending limb)? Loop of Henle
(ascending limb)? Distal tubule? Collecting duct?
What are the three patterns for renal handling? Provide examples of actual molecules for each.
Complete the table:
Substance Filtration Rate Reabsorption Rate Percent of filtered load
Reabsorption barrier: Active transport of Na+ and _____ co-transport.
Plasma membrane only a barrier for _____. Tubule epithelia is the _____ barrier for re-absorption.
Proximal tubules have more _____ than DCT or CCD.
Tight junctions between epithelia cells restrict paracellular transport (i.e. forces diffusion _____ the cells.)
Are the tight junctions tighter in proximal tubules or DCT/CCD? Why?
Proximal tubules also have higher _____ content due to many active transport processes.
The same barriers must be crossed for _____.
What is the formula for excretion?
Analysts of renal function: What is the formula for excretion rate?
What is clearance rate? What is the formula for clearance rate?
If X is a substance that is totally cleared from the plasma (eg. PAH), then the clearance rate is total _____
_____ flow rate. See example.
If X is