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PSYCH FINAL 1XX3 Quiz Part1 (1).pdf

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Psychology
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PSYCH 1XX3
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Joe Kim

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TEST 1: Development 1 & 2 Question 1 1 / 1 point Which of the following best exemplifies dishabituation? A) The return of heart rate to a resting level, such as 70 beats per minute, following the presentation of a novel stimulus. The dramatic increase of heart rate to an excited level, such as 120 beats per minute, following prolonged exposure to a B) stimulus. C) The return of heart rate to a resting level, such as 70 beats per minute, following prolonged exposure to a stimulus. D) The dramatic increase of heart rate to an excited level, such as 120 beats per minute, following the presentation of a novel stimulus. View Feedback Question 2 0 / 1 point Sally wants to conduct an experiment that tests whether infants can tell the difference between their mother's voice and another female voice. Which of the following methods would be most likely for Sally to use? A) ERP B) Preference Method C) Habituation Method D) High-Amplitude Sucking Method View Feedback Question 3 1 / 1 point How does the competence-performance distinction affect research conducted on infants and which gene/environment correlation is most influential at this age? A) Infants may fail a task because they lack the physical ability to perform the task; Active correlation. Infants may fail a task because they have overprotective parents who will not let them perform the experiment; Passive B) correlation. C) Infants may fail a task because they do not have the cognitive abilities to complete the task; Evocative correlation. Infants may fail a task because they are unable to demonstrate that they have the cognitive abilities to complete a task; D) Passive correlation. View Feedback Question 4 1 / 1 point As a child, Iman's parents bought him many books on planets and took him on trips to museums and observatories. As an adult, Iman is a well renowned expert on astronomy and has obtained his PhD in the subject. Which of the following best explains this phenomenon? A) Active genotype-environment correlation B) Passive genotype-environment correlation C) Implicit genotype-environment correlation D) Evocative genotype-environment correlation View Feedback Question 5 1 / 1 point Which of the following statements most accurately describes monozygotic and dizygotic twins? A) Monozygotic twins have exactly the same genotype and phenotype, whereas dizygotic twins do not. B) Dizygotic twins are less similar genetically than monozygotic twins, but more similar genetically than regular siblings. C) Monozygotic twins begin as the same zygote, whereas dizygotic twins begin as two separate zygotes. Monozygotic twins have exactly the same chromosomes and genes, whereas dizygotic twins have exactly the same D) genes but different chromosomes. View Feedback Question 6 1 / 1 point Sheena's parents both have very large ears and are curious about what type of ears Sheena will develop. If we assume ear size is a dominant trait, and contributed solely by a single gene pair, how might Sheena's genotype influence the size of her ears? A) If Sheena's mother is homozygous dominant and Sheena's father is heterozygous, Sheena will definitely have large ears. Because Sheena's genotype establishes a range of possible phenotypes and both her parents have large ears, she will B) have above average ear size with the extent depending on the diet and other environmental factors her parents expose her to. Since both of her parents have large ears, they must both be homozygous for this dominant trait, meaning Sheena will C) also be homozygous dominant and will one day have large ears. D) If Sheena's parents are both heterozygous for ear size, she has a 1 in 2 chance of having equally as large ears as her parents, but only a 1 in 4 chance of having even larger ears than her parents. View Feedback Question 7 1 / 1 point A pointy nose is the dominant trait, and a round nose is the recessive trait. Philip's parents both have round noses, and Kim's parents are both heterozygous with pointy noses. What is the probability that Philip and Kim's children will have a round nose if Kim herself has a round nose? A) 50% B) 100% C) 25% D) 75% View Feedback DevText Question 8 1 / 1 point Which of the following statements regarding development is most correct? A) Around the 12th postnatal month, we begin to lose many of the synapses we are born with. B) If typical neural development relies on experience, it is said to be experience-expectant. C) Early cataract removal alone is enough to prevent long-term amblyopia. D) At birth, an infant has blurred colour vision, 40 times worse than that of an adult. View Feedback Question 9 0 / 1 point Which of the following statements regarding development is true? A) Failure of the neural tube to seal in the head of the embryo results in teratogens. B) An embryo is initially resistant to the teratogenic effects of alcohol. C) Failure of the neural tube to seal in the head of the embryo results in spina bifida. D) Senses such as vision and audition are both fairly immature at birth. View Feedback DevLL Question 10 1 / 1 point As presented in the live lecture, what is the best conclusion on the development of sex type and gender? A) According to the case study, there is likely an influence of sex type for accepting a gender role. B) According to the case study, there is likely an influence of gender role for determining sex type. C) Gender role is independent of social influences and is shaped by biology. D) Sex type is independent of biology and is shaped by social influences. Question 1 Which of the following best exemplifies the canalization principle? A) Babies typically begin teething around 6 months of age. B) IQ scores of monozygotic twins raised apart will be less correlated than those raised together. C) Greg's genes allow for him to grow to a height between 6'1 and 6'4. D) Children learn to speak the language native to the region they live in. Question 2 1 / 1 point Which of the following correctly exemplifies the range of reaction principle? A) As a child, Stephanie noticed that she and her friends preferred the taste of sugary candy to bitter vegetables. B) Paul inherited a severe genetic disorder that prevents the proper development of his lower limbs. C) Despite being exposed to songs from other species, birds always learn the song of their own species. D) Daniel inherited genes that enhance his tennis abilities, and with proper training, he has the ability to become a professional tennis player. View Feedback Question 3 1 / 1 point Raoul is a 62-year-old man who has decided he wants to learn how to play the violin. Raoul is wondering whether this is a feasible task. Which of the following is most true regarding Raoul's goal to play the violin? Early input is necessary for development of new synapses required to play violin, meaning Raoul will have an A) extremely difficult time learning to play violin at the age of 62. Because Raoul is at a late age, many of his synapses have already been pruned away. Once he begins the learning B) process, however, his brain will expect new experiences, and reform synapses. This goal will likely result in subtle changes in brain growth if he continues playing violin, because some of his brain C) growth is dependent on Raoul's experiences throughout his life. D) Raoul will only be able to learn to play the violin if he received some early experience of playing music during his critical period, otherwise this task will be exceedingly difficult. View Feedback Question 4 1 / 1 point Which of the following lines of evidence would not support the importance of critical periods for visual development? After one year of normal life, Charlie is adopted and visually deprived for a year and is still able to discriminate visual A) patterns. B) Charlie is visually deprived for the first year of life, and later in life develops the ability to discriminate simple visual patters. C) Charlie is raised in an enriched environment and his monozygotic brother is raised in a deprived environment, and Charlie has more connections between neurons than his brother. D) Charlie is visually deprived for the first year of his life and is now unable to discriminate visual patterns. Which of the following, on its own, would be support for a critical period of development? A) When a Kitten is visually deprived after the first 6 weeks of life, it experiences no visual impairments upon the cessation of deprivation and has vision comparable to kittens of a similar age. When earmuffs are placed on a dog's ears to block out sound between 1 and 4 weeks old, they later have impaired B) hearing abilities compared to normal dogs of the same age. When nose plugs are placed on the noses of monkeys between 2 and 4 months old, they can distinguish the smells of C) a ripe and unripe banana as well as a normal monkey can. When eye patches are placed on the eyes of dogs between the ages of 1 and 6 weeks old, puppies initially have D) impaired vision but the impairment is reversed once the eye patches are removed. View Feedback Jeremy's father often demonstrates highly aggressive behaviour in response to the slightest criticism. As a child, Jeremy noticed that his mother would constantly compliment his father on everything. Jeremy is concerned that he will behave in a similar manner to his father when he is an adult. Which of the following does this scenario best exemplify? A) Evocative correlations B) Inheritance correlations C) Active correlations D) Interactive correlations Monozygotic twins are raised apart in separate foster homes. Each twin receives the same, normal level of environmental stimulation. Which of the following is most likely? The twins will undergo significantly different experience-expectant brain growth and experience-dependant brain A) growth. B) The twins will undergo similar experience-dependant brain growth and different experience-expectant brain growth. C) The twins will undergo similar experience-expectant brain growth and different experience-dependant brain growth. D) The twins will undergo identical experience-dependant and experience-expectant brain growth. View Feedback A scientist wants to extend research on the Mozart Effect and compares middle school students’ performance on several cognitive tasks after listening to either white noise or Polynesian folk music. Interestingly, the Polynesian folk music group performs better. Does this support the existence a more general music effect on infant brain development? A) No, the control conditions are still not sufficient to allow a conclusion to be made about infant brain development. B) No, the styles of music are too dissimilar to make a conclusion on infant brain development. Yes, the scientist has corrected the earlier problem of only using adult participants allowing a conclusion to be made C) about infant brain development. Yes, the fact that the Mozart Effect replicated with other music should bolster our belief in a general music effect on D) infant brain development. TEST 2: Evolution 1 & 2 Question 1 1 / 1 point A homogeneous population of 4 leaf clovers is growing in Mitchell's backyard. It is autumn now and leaves have fallen and covered all of the clovers. Without sunlight, the clovers will die. What is likely to happen to the clovers? A) Natural selection will act upon the clover population so that the tallest clovers will survive and reproduce. B) All of the clovers in Mitchell's backyard will die unless the leaves are removed from on top of them. C) Clovers with an adaptive advantage will survive and natural selection will act upon these clovers. D) Individual differences result in differential survivability allowing some clovers to survive and reproduce. View Feedback Question 2 0 / 1 point A certain genetically similar, eusocial species of animal relies on a single female to produce all of the offspring for the colony. Interestingly, non-reproducers take care of the offspring produced by the single reproducer. What is the most correct explanation for this phenomenon? According to the definition of inclusive fitness, the non-producers are actually increasing their individual fitness by A) helping the reproducer. The non-reproducers will benefit from direct fitness because they are helping someone who is genetically similar B) produce offspring. . C) The non-producers act altruistically and give up their ability to pass on their genes by helping the reproducer pass on hers. D) Hamilton's rule is being satisfied such that reproductive benefits of recipients multiplied by relatedness is less than the cost to the actor. View Feedback Question 3 1 / 1 point In a certain species of giraffe, neck length is heritable. Most giraffes possess long necks so that they can reach the most nutritious leaves at the top of trees. There are, however, giraffes with slightly shorter necks, unable to reach the tops of the trees and feed on less nutritious leaves at the bottom. During a drought, the leaves at the top of the tree die leaving only leaves at the bottom of the tree where long-necked giraffes are unable to bend down to reach. What will happen to the average neck length in giraffes several generations after the climate has normalized? A) Average neck length will be longer than before the drought. B) Average neck length will be shorter than before the drought. C) Average neck length will be unaffected by climate conditions. D) Average neck length will be the same as before the drought. View Feedback Question 4 1 / 1 point Yan has packed himself too much food for lunch. According to evolutionary theory, Yan is most likely to share his food with? A) Someone at work who reminds him of his childhood. B) Someone at work who looks like a friend of his. C) Someone at work who looks like his girlfriend. D) Someone at work who smells like his brother. View Feedback EvoText Question 5 1 / 1 point Which of the following statements about evolution is most correct? A) Natural selection always results in an evolutionary change to a more optimal design of a trait. B) Evolution by natural selection takes place as long as there is variation in a trait within a population. C) Evolution takes many thousands of years to show any significant change in a trait. D) Natural selection cannot take place without the premise that offspring are produced in excess. View Feedback Question 6 0 / 1 point Which of the following correctly describes the real-world studies conducted on kin recognition in incest avoidance? A) Members of a "minor" marriage are less likely to remain married as a function of how long the two lived together, but those who stay together tend to be as fertile as an average couple. Males are more dependent on co-residence as a means of incest avoidance but females are more dependent on B) phenotypic similarities. Individuals with older opposite-sex siblings are more dependent on co-residence as a means of incest avoidance but C) individuals with younger opposite-sex siblings are more dependent on maternal-perinatal association. Individuals who live in the same kibbutzim are less likely to marry a relative raised in the same kibbutz but will marry D) someone from the same kibbutz that they learned is unrelated. View Feedback EvoLL Question 7 1 / 1 point It was demonstrated in class that men tend to make riskier choices than women. How can this be linked to reproductive fitness in a natural fertility population? Women have more children than men on average. Therefore they are less likely to take risky actions that reduce their A) fitness. B) Some men have very few children and some have many. This leads to riskier choices. C) Men have more children than women on average. This encourages them to take greater risks to increases fitness. D) Men value physical attractiveness in a mate more highly than females. Therefore they are more likely to be involved with fertile partners. View Feedback EvoRecall Question 8 1 / 1 point Which of the following is NOT one of the essential components of Darwin's proposal for the theory of natural selection? A) There is variation of characteristics amongst individuals in the population. B) Differences between individuals affect the likelihood of surviving and reproducing. C) Traits that affect survival and reproduction are heritable. D) Traits that influence an organism's ability to obtain a mate are heritable through sexual selection. View Feedback Question 9 1 / 1 point Which of the following statements on evolution and natural selection is correct? A) Humans are likely descendants of monkeys since we share 98% of our genomes. B) While sometimes a mechanism on which natural selection acts, mutation is usually harmful. C) Natural selection acts upon differential survival between individual members of a species. D) The goal of evolution is to perfect a species which can live and thrive in any environment. View Feedback Question 10 1 / 1 point What was the main finding of the study investigating beak size in finches of the Galapagos during the 1977 drought? Only finches with large beaks were able to crack the hard seeds remaining, making those individuals more attractive to A) potential mates. Only finches with large beaks were able to crack the hard seeds remaining, resulting in an increase in average beak size B) in the next generation. C) Only finches with large beaks were able to crack the hard seeds remaining, resulting in the surviving finches growing larger beaks. D) Only finches with large beaks were able to crack the hard seeds remaining, resulting in surviving finches adapting and growing larger beaks. Question 2 1 / 1 point Sabrina and her family were caught in a big house fire. She was able to get out of the fire safely, however if she chose to risk her life she could also save certain family members. According to Hamilton's rule, which of the following groups of family members would she most likely save? A) One of her parents, her full brother and half sister. B) 3 cousins, 2 uncles and her half-sister. C) An uncle, an aunt and two cousins. D) One cousin and a half-sister. View Feedback Question 3 0 / 1 point Emma is very angry at her sister because she took their shared laptop to watch a movie, even though she previously had told her sister that she needed it to work on a school project. In retaliation, Emma steals her sister's beautiful brand-new sweater to wear to school the next day and receives several compliments. Which type(s) of social behaviours would best describe the actions of Emma and her sister? A) Emma and her sister both demonstrated selfishness. B) Emma demonstrated selfishness, whereas her sister demonstrated spite. C) Emma and her sister both demonstrated spite. D) Emma demonstrated spite, whereas her sister demonstrated selfishness. View Feedback Question 4 1 / 1 point Which of the following is not true about Darwin's finches? A) The beak size of Darwin's finches is a great example of selective transmission. B) Beak sizes were permanently changed in this population even after the drought because finches can get more food from big seeds. C) The beak size of finches is nicely explained through the three essential components of natural selection. D) Birds with large and heavy beaks had a greater chance of survival in after the drought because they could eat big seeds. View Feedback 1 / 1 point Question 5 Which of the following statements about evolution is most correct? A) Natural selection always results in an evolutionary change to a more optimal design of a trait. B) Natural selection cannot take place without the premise that offspring are produced in excess. C) Evolution takes many thousands of years to show any significant change in a trait. D) Evolution by natural selection takes place as long as there is variation in a trait within a population. View Feedback Question 6 1 / 1 point Dr. O'Brien is conducting a study on mate preferences in males and females. Considering evolutionary theory, which of the following hypothetical males is a female participant likely to rate as the most preferable long-term mate? A) A younger male who is willing to engage in casual sex, because he is of reproductive age. B) A younger male who desires multiple sexual partners, because it shows high levels of testosterone. C) An older male with resources to invest in her, because he is able to provide for her children. D) A same-aged male who recently fathered a child, because it indicates he is fertile. View Feedback Question 7 1 / 1 point As discussed in Live Lecture, which of the following best describes the key assumptions of evolutionary psychology as applied to humans? A) Variation in physical traits leads to the “survival of the fittest”. B) Evolved psychological mechanisms function as information processing devices to solve recurring adaptive problems. C) Evolved psychological mechanisms function as information processing devices to solve general problems. D) Psychological homogeneity in populations leads to “survival of the fittest”. View Feedback Question 8 1 / 1 point Which of the following statements on evolution and natural selection is correct? A) While sometimes a mechanism on which natural selection acts, mutation is usually harmful. B) Humans are likely descendants of monkeys since we share 98% of our genomes. C) Natural selection acts upon differential survival between individual members of a species. D) The goal of evolution is to perfect a species which can live and thrive in any environment. View Feedback Question 9 1 / 1 point In DeBruine's Investment game, what was the expected behaviour of participants? Participants would be less trusting of individuals who did not share a similar phenotype, exhibiting eusocial behaviour. Participants would be more trusting of players who looked more like themselves, exhibiting eusocial behaviour. Participants would be less trusting of individuals who did not look like themselves, exhibiting prosocial behaviour. Participants would be more trusting of individuals who shared a similar phenotype, exhibiting prosocial behaviour. View Feedback Question 10 1 / 1 point Which of the following is NOT one of the methods of recognizing kin? A) You assume individuals you were raised with are kin. B) You assume individuals who look similar to you are kin. C) You assume individuals who smell similar to you are kin. D) You assume individuals who live in the same area are kin. TEST 4: Neuroscience 2 Question 1 0 / 1 point Philip was once a star football player for his school team. After a hit to the head, Philip now has trouble processing where the players on the other team are on the field and he has trouble following the path of the football in the air. Which two of Philip's cortical lobes are most likely to present brain damage? A) Parietal and Temporal. B) Occipital and Parietal. C) Frontal and Occipital. D) Temporal and Occipital. View Feedback Question 2 1 / 1 point How would a doctor describe a lesion in the upper-frontal part of the brain, located close to the midline? A) Dorsal caudel lateral lesion. B) Ventral rostral medial lesion. C) Ventral caudel lateral lesion. D) Dorsal rostral medial lesion. View Feedback Question 3 1 / 1 point Bianca has a tumour in her brain that causes her to show the same symptoms as split- brain patients. How will she do when asked to identify a cube that has been presented to her right visual field? A) Bianca cannot identify the cube by name, but she can identify by touch. B) Bianca cannot identify the cube by name, and she cannot identify by touch. C) Bianca can identify the cube by name, and she can identify by touch. D) Bianca can identify the cube by name, but she cannot identify by touch. View Feedback Question 4 1 / 1 point After an accident, Jasmyn is having trouble orienting her eyes towards an object and cannot identify the path of a moving object. Which of the following describes the probable locations of Jasmyn's brain damage? A) The thalamus and the occipital lobe. B) The primary visual cortex and the parietal lobe. C) The temporal and occipital lobes. D) The superior colliculus and the parietal lobe. View Feedback Neuro2Recall Question 5 1 / 1 point Which of the following would best exemplify a double dissociation in the brain? A) When damage to a region in one hemisphere of the brain produces a particular deficit, and damage to a completely different region in the same hemisphere of the brain results in a different deficit. B) When two different structures in the same hemisphere are damaged, it results in the same deficit. When a structure in the right hemisphere of the brain is damaged it results in the exact same deficit as when the same C) structure in the left hemisphere is damaged. When a structure in the right hemisphere of the brain is damaged it results in a particular deficit, whereas when the D) same structure in the left hemisphere is damaged it results in a different deficit. View Feedback Question 6 1 / 1 point Which of the following incorrectly describes the role of the corresponding cortical lobe? A) The temporal lobe is responsible for initial auditory processing, memory and language. B) The frontal lobe generates motor commands, as well as decision-making and social skills. C) The occipital lobe is responsible for visual processing, and contains the visual cortex. D) The parietal lobe is responsible for guiding eye and body movements, as well as auditory attention. View Feedback Question 7 1 / 1 point Which brain imaging technique is described correctly? A) In PET scans, a lower level of radioactive tracers in the brain area indicates higher levels of activation. B) In single cell recording, an electrode is placed outside the cell body, and a small electric impulse is sent into the neuron. C) In MRI, large magnetic fields are generated that align oxygen atoms in the brain and localize certain tissues. D) In fMRI, a higher level of oxygen use indicates brain areas that are more highly activated. View Feedback Neuro2Text Question 8 1 / 1 point Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a symptom of hippocampal damage? A) An inability to remember your best friend's phone number B) An inability to describe your 7th birthday party C) An inability to differentiate between expressions of happiness and surprise D) An inability to orient to your location in the psychology building View Feedback Question 9 1 / 1 point According to the textbook, which of the following statements about the cerebral cortex is most correct? A) The hypothalamus is the part of the cerebral cortex responsible for autonomic nervous system functions that promote the survival of the individual. B) Humans have the largest brain of any animal in order to control functions such as language, planning and consciousness. C) An individual with damage to the parietal lobe is likely to have difficulty coordinating and carrying out motor functions. Sensory association areas perform increasingly complex functions the further away from the primary areas they are D) located. View Feedback Neuro2LL Question 10 1 / 1 point Which of the following is correct with regards to the advantages of particular types of neuroscience methods described? One advantage of ablation studies is that they are noninvasive, because they are isolated to specific brain structures. One advantage of fMRI is that it provides excellent temporal resolution. One advantage of CT scans is that it can provide fine detail of brain structures that other neuroimaging cannot. One advantage of single-cell recording is that it allows researches to relate brain region function to behaviour. Question 1 1 / 1 point Bianca has a tumour in her brain that causes her to show the same symptoms as split- brain patients. How will she do when asked to identify a cube that has been presented to her right visual field? A) Bianca can identify the cube by name, and she can identify by touch. B) Bianca cannot identify the cube by name, but she can identify by touch. C) Bianca can identify the cube by name, but she cannot identify by touch. D) Bianca cannot identify the cube by name, and she cannot identify by touch. View Feedback Question 2 0 / 1 point Jennifer has been diagnosed with cancer, and tumors have begun to form in her brain. Recently, she has shown increased fear responses to a wide variety of situations. Also, Jenifer has been having trouble forming new memories since her diagnosis. Without using brain imaging, which two brain areas are likely affected by the tumors? A) Hypothalamus and hippocampus. B) Amygdala and hippocampus. C) Thalamus and hippocampus. D) Amygdala and hypothalamus. View Feedback Question 3 1 / 1 point Philip was once a star football player for his school team. After a hit to the head, Philip now has trouble processing where the players on the other team are on the field and he has trouble following the path of the football in the air. Which two of Philip's cortical lobes are most likely to present brain damage? A) Parietal and Temporal. B) Frontal and Occipital. C) Occipital and Parietal. D) Temporal and Occipital. View Feedback Question 4 1 / 1 point Dr. Nernst plans to use neuroimaging techniques to determine whether certain behaviour triggers an immediate response in a brain region of interest as well as examine the fine details of the region. Which combination of neuroimaging techniques should Dr. Nernst use? A) CT and ERP. B) CT and fMRI. C) MRI and fMRI. D) ERP and MRI. View Feedback Question 5 1 / 1 point Which of the following statements about neuroimaging techniques is correct? A) A PET scan infers function from metabolism in the brain and is able to provide information about the brain's activity. B) MRI is useful because it uses magnetic fields to align hydrogen atoms and produce a clear image of the brain's activity. fMRI uses powerful magnetic fields like MRI, but is different from a PET scan because it does not infer function from C) metabolism. D) A CT scan takes a series of x-ray slices of the brain and puts them together to construct a model of brain activation. View Feedback Question 6 1 / 1 point Which of the following would best exemplify a double dissociation in the brain? When damage to a region in one hemisphere of the brain produces a particular deficit, and damage to a completely A) different region in the same hemisphere of the brain results in a different deficit. When a structure in the right hemisphere of the brain is damaged it results in a particular deficit, whereas when the B) same structure in the left hemisphere is damaged it results in a different deficit. C) When two different structures in the same hemisphere are damaged, it results in the same deficit. D) When a structure in the right hemisphere of the brain is damaged it results in the exact same deficit as when the same structure in the left hemisphere is damaged. View Feedback Question 7 1 / 1 point Which of the following best describes the function of the limbic system structures? A) The amygdala is involved in memory and is one of the few regions where neurogenesis continues in adulthood. B) The hippocampus is involved in biological functions including stress, feeding, and mating behaviours. C) The thalamus is considered a relay station for information about all the sensory modalities to the cerebral cortex. D) The pituitary gland is an important part of the endocrine system, releasing hormones important for physiological responses. View Feedback Question 8 1 / 1 point Which of the following statements is correct? A) The Cerebellum literally translates to 'big brain' in Latin. B) Degeneration of cerebellar neurons results in symptoms of Parkinson's disease. C) The brain is connected to the skull by a network of biological filaments. D) The medulla is part of a hindbrain region referred to as the metencephalon. View Feedback Question 9 1 / 1 point According to the textbook, which of the following statements about the cerebral cortex is most correct? The hypothalamus is the part of the cerebral cortex responsible for autonomic nervous system functions that promote A) the survival of the individual. B) Humans have the largest brain of any animal in order to control functions such as language, planning and consciousness. C) An individual with damage to the parietal lobe is likely to have difficulty coordinating and carrying out motor functions. Sensory association areas perform increasingly complex functions the further away from the primary areas they are D) located. View Feedback 1 / 1 point Question 10 Which of the following is correct with regards to the advantages of particular types of neuroscience methods described? One advantage of ablation studies is that they are noninvasive, because they are isolated to specific brain structures. One advantage of fMRI is that it provides excellent temporal resolution. One advantage of CT scans is that it can provide fine detail of brain structures that other neuroimaging cannot. One advantage of single-cell recording is that it allows researches to relate brain region function to behaviour. TEST 5: Vision Question 1 0 / 1 point Scientists in the jungle have just discovered a new vertebrate species. This species has large, laterally directed eyes. Which of the following most accurately describes the environment of this species? A) This species likely lives in an environment with many prey opportunities that may easily blend in with the trees. B) This species likely lives in an environment with many predators that may easily blend in with the trees. C) This species likely lives in an environment with many prey opportunities that stand out from the trees. D) This species likely lives in an environment with many predators that stand out from the trees. View Feedback Question 2 1 / 1 point Due to a rare disorder, Alie Balsa has difficulty telling the difference between colours and is especially poor at perceiving differences in richness of colour. Alie Balsa is unable to process which two physical characteristics of light? A) Amplitude and purity B) Saturation and wavelength C) Saturation and amplitude D) Purity and wavelength View Feedback Question 3 0 / 1 point Tabitha is undergoing a physical examination at her doctor's office where a light is shone into Tabitha's eyes from various points. Tabitha has trouble seeing the light when in her far left visual field, but she can see it everywhere else. When Tabitha can see the light, she cannot tell the doctor what colour it is. Where would you expect Tabitha to have damage? A) Dorsal stream and the optic tract after the optic chiasm. B) Ventral stream and the optic tract after the optic chiasm. C) Temporal lobe and the optic tract before the optic chiasm. D) Parietal lobe and the optic tract before the optic chiasm. View Feedback Question 4 0 / 1 point Augustine is in an accident where his optic chiasm is severed. Which of the following most accurately describes the effect this accident will have on his vision? A) Augustine will lose sight processed by the outer portions of both retinas. B) Augustine will lose all sight from his left visual field. C) Augustine will lose all sight from his right visual field. D) Augustine will lose sight processed by the inner portions of both retinas. View Feedback VisionRecall Question 5 1 / 1 point Which of the following connections of the visual neural impulse pathway does NOT consist of multiple axons converging into fewer cells? A) Lateral Geniculate Nucleus cells to Primary Visual Cortex cells. B) Cells in the optic disk to cells in the optic nerve. C) Photoreceptors to bipolar cells. D) Bipolar cells to ganglion cells. View Feedback Question 6 0 / 1 point Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the development of the visual system? Random firing of retinal cells during prenatal development is important for the development of a strong lens for visual A) focusing. B) Newborns have poor visual acuity because of the overabundance of cells in the retina that are not yet activated. C) Without any visual input, a newborn baby can still develop a normally functioning visual system. D) Visual acuity develops gradually in infants so that they are able to see more and more detail at closer distances. View Feedback Question 7 0 / 1 point Which of the following correctly outlines the path that light first travels through the eye? A) Pupil, Cornea, Lens B) Ganglion cells, Bipolar cells, Photoreceptors C) Cornea, Lens, Iris D) Retina, Bipolar cells, Ganglion cells View Feedback VisionText Question 8 1 / 1 point According to the textbook, which visual area would most likely be responsible for processing whether an object was circular or rectangular in shape? A) V2 B) V3 C) V4 D) V5 View Feedback Question 9 1 / 1 point Which of the following scenarios is most likely to occur following damage to the superior colliculus? A) Elliott is having difficulty differentiating between red and green apples at the grocery store. B) Erik is having difficulty determining how quickly cars are approaching him as he is crossing the street. C) Milissa is having trouble locating her cell phone even though she can hear it ringing. D) Regina is having trouble adapting to the dimly lit lecture hall because her pupils are not dilating. View Feedback VisionLL Question 10 1 / 1 point Which of the following is not evidence of top-down influences on visual processing? A) Incorrectly concluding that a child's image is of an exotic dancer. B) Interpreting circles with gradation as being concave or convex. C) Experience with shadows and checkerboards influences colour perception. D) Certain cells in V1 respond maximally to lines of different orientations. TEST 6: Colour Perception ColourApp Question 1 1 / 1 point What would be the most likely response if blue cones were activated in the retina? A) An inhibitory signal sent to the yellow-blue ganglion cells would signal to the brain that the stimulus is blue. B) An excitatory signal sent to the yellow-blue ganglion cells would signal to the brain that the stimulus is blue. Both an excitatory and an inhibitory signal sent to the yellow-blue ganglion cells would signal to the brain that the C) stimulus is blue. D) An inhibitory signal sent to the blue-green ganglion cells would signal to the brain that the stimulus is blue. View Feedback Question 2 1 / 1 point The donut shaped receptive field of a particular ganglion cell possesses opponent colour characteristics such that red light on the centre and green light on the surround cause inhibition. Which of the following scenarios would produce the greatest response in this ganglion cell? A) Green light on the centre and green light on the surround of the receptive field. B) Red light on the centre and red light on the surround of the receptive field. C) Red light on the centre and green light on the surround of the receptive field. D) Green light on the centre and red light on the surround of the receptive field. View Feedback Question 3 0 / 1 point Nadeem is a 7-year old boy whose parents have been noticing some unusual behaviour. If Nadeem has deuteranopia, which of the following is most likely the behaviour Nadeem's parents have been noticing? Nadeem is having trouble reading a sign at the front of his classroom written in blue writing on a white board. Nadeem chooses only the red apples when asked to get the green apples from the kitchen. Nadeem compliments his mother's red sweater as looking "beautiful like the green leaves". Nadeem picks blue and yellow flowers for his sister and says that they look like the ocean. View Feedback ColourRecall Question 4 1 / 1 point Regarding colour mixing, which of the following is true? A) In subtractive colour mixing, mixing the primary colours red and blue results in brown. B) When pigments are combined in subtractive mixing, we see colours that are not absorbed. C) In additive colour mixing, mixing the primary colour yellow with its complement results in grey. D) When pigments are mixed additively, we see colours that the pigments jointly reflect. View Feedback Question 5 1 / 1 point Which of the following is true regarding Trichromatic Theory? A) It does not fit with the process of coloured lights adding their dominant colour to the mixture. B) It explains colour processing in the retina and ganglion cells, but not within the visual processing areas of the brain. C) It does not easily explain why it is possible to imagine a blue-green colour but not a red-green colour. D) It proposes that each cone contains a photopigment that is only responsive to one of the 3 primary colours. View Feedback Question 6 1 / 1 point Which of the following best explains why you see the colour gray with additive colour mixing? The dominant wavelengths of a primary colour and its complimentary colour are individually absorbed and added A) together. B) The dominant wavelengths of two primary colours are individually reflected and added together. C) The dominant wavelengths of two complimentary colours are individually absorbed and added together. D) The dominant wavelengths of a primary colour and its complimentary colour are individually reflected and added together. View Feedback ColourText Question 7 1 / 1 point Which of the following is true of the prevalence of colour blindness? A) Tritanopia occurs in the population much less frequently than achromatopsia. B) The prevalence of red/green colour blindness in males is due to its association with the Y chromosome. C) The incidence of blue/yellow colour blindness in females and males is the same. D) Red green colour blindness is less common in females than tritanopia is in both males and females. View Feedback Question 8 1 / 1 point Which of the following statements about colour vision is most correct? The ability to determine that two squares are the same colour of red despite being painted on yellow or black A) backgrounds is known as colour constancy. B) Trichromatic colour vision is exclusive to mammals, while birds are often dichromats. C) The parvocellular cells in the lateral geniculate nucleus more closely resemble the retinal ganglion cells than the retinal cones. D) The discovery of the simultaneous contrast effect was strong support for the trichromatic theory of colour vision. View Feedback ColourLL Question 9 1 / 1 point In class, an experiment compared the ability of two sub-types of monkeys to locate coloured breakfast cereal in a controlled environment. Which of the following best describes the conclusion of that experiment? A) Dichromats found more cereal than trichromats. B) Trichromats found more cereal than dichromats. C) Tetrachromats found less cereal than dichromats. D) Tetrachromats found more cereal and dichromats. View Feedback Question 10 1 / 1 point Which of the following best describes the difference between the way blue and yellow are perceived in human colour vision? Blue is perceived when the yellow/blue ganglion cell receives excitatory input, while yellow is perceived when the cell A) receives inhibitory input. B) Blue is perceived when the yellow/blue ganglion cell receives inhibitory input while yellow is perceived when the cell receives excitatory input. C) Yellow requires the combined action of two ganglion cell types receiving input from separate cones, while blue does not. Blue requires the combined action of two ganglion cell types receiving input from separate cones, while yellow does D) not. TEST 7: Form Perception 1 & 2 Question 1 1 / 1 point In which of the following scenarios would the Gestalt principle of similarity be utilized? A) A stampeding heard of bison is grouped separately from a herd that is not partaking in this particular stampede. At a car and truck show, automobiles are grouped together based on how close they are to other automobiles in the B) show. In a shop, white roses and white lilies are priced the same and found next to red roses and red lilies whose price differs C) from the white flowers. D) Basketballs are collected in the same baskets as soccer balls and are grouped separately from baskets further away. View Feedback Question 2 1 / 1 point Which of following scenarios would best support the Geon Theory of object recognition? Tamra is easily able to recognize her coffee mug, but has difficulty recognizing any of her rectangular books or shelves A) after an accident causing brain trauma. Beshoy is easily able to recognize his television set, but has difficulty recognizing any of his family's shoes after an B) accident causing brain trauma. C) Duyen is easily able to recognize her parents' coffee table and her bed sheet that is crumpled at the end of the bed. D) Ikran is easily able to recognize table and chairs in her kitchen and the face of her family's pet rabbit, Fluffy. View Feedback Question 3 1 / 1 point Jan is reading a book about horses while he and his family travel by train. Jan looks up from his book and sees a tiny horse through his window. When his brother, Mendel, looks out the window he sees that the animal is, in fact, a cow far off in the distance. Why did Jan perceive the animal to be a tiny horse? A) Misapplication of size constancy; Influence of top-down processing B) Misapplication of shape constancy; Influence of bottom-up processing C) Misapplication of size constancy; Influence of bottom-up processing D) Misapplication of shape constancy; Influence of top-down processing View Feedback Question 4 1 / 1 point Constantine is participating in a study where he is presented with pairs of objects and asked whether they are the same or different. In one trial, Constantine is presented with a yellow hat producing a retinal image of 10 mm and viewed from the front. The next image is a yellow hat producing a retinal image of 10 mm viewed from the side but further away from Constantine. What is Constantine's most likely response and which perceptual constancies did he use? A) He is likely to say the objects are different, using the size and shape perceptual constancies. B) He is likely to say the objects are different, using the shape and location perceptual constancies. C) He is likely to say the objects are the same, using the shape and location perceptual constancies. D) He is likely to say the objects are the same, using the size and shape perceptual constancies. View Feedback FormRecall Question 5 1 / 1 point What does topographical organization of the visual cortex refer to? A) Different areas of the brain correspond to different processing streams. B) Certain parts of the brain process different characteristics of a visual scene. C) Adjacent areas of the cortex process adjacent information from a visual scene. D) The ability of the frontal lobe to store a neural map of a particular visual scene. View Feedback Question 6 1 / 1 point Which statement properly describes an aspect of object recognition? A) Bottom-up processing requires expectations of the observer to recognize the object. B) Top-down processing and bottom-up processing work together to influence object recognition. C) Priming will always lead to participants recognizing objects at faster speeds. D) Bi-directional activation implies object features and expectations act on each other. View Feedback Question 7 1 / 1 point Which of the following is most correct regarding object recognition theories? A) Template theory compares each new experience with a person to the most typical appearance of every person. Prototype theory is more flexible than template theory, as it does not require exactly the same prior experiences with B) that object. C) Geon theory is supported by objects that consist of distinguishable geons such as ice cream cones and faces. Geon theory suggests that individuals have hundreds of geometrical shapes stores in memory that can combine to form D) objects. View Feedback FormText Question 8 1 / 1 point Which of the following correct matches the theory of object recognition with a criticism of that theory? A) Template Matching Theory has difficulty explaining the role of top-down processing in interpreting ambiguous stimuli. B) Recognition-by-Components Theory has difficulty explaining how partially covered objects can still be recognized. C) Recognition-by-Components Theory has difficulty accounting for view invariant object recognition. D) Template Matching Theory has difficulty representing many natural objects that have subtle variations in features. View Feedback Question 9 1 / 1 point Juliet is a 4-month old infant taking part in visual recognition tasks in the lab. Which of the following is most likely to be true of Juliet's abilities? A) Juliet is able to distinguish between nearby small objects and far away large objects. B) Juliet is unable to discriminate between objects of different categories. C) Juliet is able to distinguish between moving and stationary objects. D) Juliet is able to use Gestalt principles to process visual information. View Feedback FormLL Question 10 1 / 1 point Anna suffers from Huntington’s disease and has difficulty detecting expressions of disgust in others. In addition, her own experiences of disgust are greatly reduced. According to Ekman’s theory about facial emotions during lying, Anna should most likely be: A) better at detecting lies but worse at telling them. B) worse at detecting lies and worse at telling them. C) better at detecting lies and better at telling them. D) worse at detecting lies but better at telling them. TEST 8: Audition Question 1 0 / 1 point Which of the following situations is most likely to occur with damage to the dorsal stream of auditory information? Charlene is unable to utilize differences in amplitude to determine the origin of a comment from one of her students. Seamus is unable to utilize differences in wavelength to determine whether the voice he heard was his sister?s or brother?s voice. Corrin is unable to utilize differences in purity to determine whether it is the violin or the piano playing the music on the radio. Jamie is unable to utilize differences in sound waves to determine whether a bark originates from the Chihuahua next door or the big Rottweiler down the street. View Feedback Question 2 1 / 1 point Jeanine hears a friend call her name from across the room. Which of the following is correct regarding how Jeanine is able to locate the sound of her friend's voice? There is a sound shadow cast on the ear closest to Jeanine's friend, allowing for detection of interaural intensity A) differences. B) The tonotopic organization of the basilar membrane allows Jeanine to locate her friend's voice in space. It takes longer for sound to reach the ear farthest from Jeanine's friend, allowing for detection of interaural time C) differences. View Feedback Question 3 1 / 1 point Based on the principle of co-evolution, if bats were to evolve to emit a lower frequency sound than they do currently, which trait would likely evolve in moths over time? A) Mechanisms to emit the same frequency noises as bats B) Mechanisms to detect lower frequency noises C) Mechanisms to emit even lower frequency noises than bats D) Mechanisms to detect higher frequency noises. View Feedback Question 4 1 / 1 point Martin and Olga are both auditioning for the school musical. When asked to sing a specific note, Martin and Olga sing at the same frequency and loudness, but both produce different sounds. Which of the following best explains this observation. A) Martin and Olga are singing at different decibels B) Martin is singing at 1000 Hz while Olga is singing at 1500 Hz C) Martin and Olga are singing with different overtones D) Martin and Olga are singing at different amplitudes View Feedback AuditionRecall Question 5 1 / 1 point Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the range of sound frequencies that different species can detect? A) Dogs and bats can both detect sounds of very high frequencies. B) Humans can detect the widest range of sound frequencies due to the length of their basilar membrane. C) Birds and bats are able to perceive a similar range of sound frequencies. D) Fish have the smallest range of sound frequencies that they are able to detect. View Feedback Question 6 1 / 1 point Which of the following best describes the component of the auditory pathway from hair cell receptors to the auditory cortex? Neighbouring regions of hair cells send information along the cochlear nerve to neighbouring regions of the auditory A) cortex. The cochlear nucleus can send signals to the cochlear nerve, which transfers EPSPs to either the dorsal or ventral B) stream. C) Inner hair cells are thicker and fewer in number than outer hair cells, so they are less influential in auditory processing. D) Low frequency sounds processed near the oval window will be represented at the opposite end of the auditory cortex from the high frequency sounds. View Feedback Question 7 1 / 1 point According to what you know about the localization of sound as presented in the web modules, which of the following statements is correct? A) Interaural time difference is useful for localizing sound at a far distance. B) Pinna cues help to localize sound and are the same in all humans. C) Turing your head may help to localize sound directly behind you. D) Sound is localized easiest when the source is directly in front of you. View Feedback AuditionText AuditionLL Question 8 1 / 1 point Which term below best describes a process that occurs inside our ears that allows us to hear very faint sounds in the environment? A) Wavelength. B) Leverage. C) Transmission. D) Transduction. View Feedback Question 9 1 / 1 point Research suggests that infants can process musical scales from any culture, but as they age and experience music related to their own culture, the ability to process foreign musical structures is lost. This is due a phenomenon called: A) Prosocial Behaviour. B) Perceptual Narrowing. C) Tympanic Leveraging. D) Perceptual Pruning. View Feedback Question 10 1 / 1 point Which of the following is NOT a shared property of the energies we perceive as light and sound? A) Frequency B) Wavelength C) Amplitude D) Timbre TEST 9: Hunger & Chemical Senses HungerApp Question 1 1 / 1 point Recently, Grabo has been eating more and more carbohydrates in his diet. In fact, he now considers carbohydrates to be his favourite food group. Which chemical imbalance does Grabo likely have? A) Increased levels of Neuropeptide Y. B) Decreased levels of leptin. C) Increased levels of leptin. D) Dcreased levels of Neuropeptide Y. View Feedback Question 2 1 / 1 point Which of the following areas was not listed in the web module as an area that processes smell? A) Hippocampus B) Frontal Lobe C) Temporal Lobe D) Orbital Cortex View Feedback Question 3 1 / 1 point Researchers are studying the role of the hypothalamus in hunger and satiety by blocking the receptors of all neuropeptides in their rat subjects. Which of the following best describes how this disruption would affect the rats' perception of hunger and satiety? The rats would never feel hungry because the hypothalamus would be unable to indicate to the liver that glycogen A) stores are depleted. The rats may not feel satiated as quickly as control rats because the hypothalamus is unable to indicate to the liver that B) glycogen stores are full. C) The rats would never feel satiated because the hypothalamus is unable to stimulate the release of insulin from the pancreas. D) The rats may feel hungry less often because the hypothalamus would not have high levels of neuropeptide activity to stimulate appetite. View Feedback Question 4 1 / 1 point Phoofy has a lesion in his orbital cortex. Which of the following statements is most correct regarding Phoofy? A) Phoofy will be unable to distinguish between the 5 different tastes. B) Phoofy will experience difficulty identifying flavours of food that he eats. C) Phoofy will experience difficulties ceasing feeding behaviour. D) Phoofy will be unable to feel the texture of the food he eats. View Feedback Question 5 1 / 1 point Which of the following statements is most correct? A) The brain uses glucose over fat because glycogen provides more calories per gram. B) Short-term mechanisms regulate overall energy balance while long-term mechanisms regulate body weight. C) Leptin levels in the hypothalamus are important for appetite and food consumption reduction. D) Cholecystokinin is released by the small intestine and is important for regulating long-term energy consumption. View Feedback Question 6 1 / 1 point Which of the following is true of taste receptors? A) Taste receptors are unable to detect flavor, and instead recruit help from another sensory system. B) Taste receptors are responsible for converting a physical stimulus into a chemical stimulus. We have one type of taste receptor that differentiates between sweet, salty, bitter and sour based on where the taste C) receptor is located on the tongue D) Taste receptors send taste and food texture information to the primary gustatory cortex. View Feedback Question 7 1 / 1 point Aidan just ate a big bowl of chocolate chip cookie dough ice cream. Which of the following statements about his body's response to this meal is most correct? A) The sweet taste indicates high glycogen content, which is converted to glucose by insulin released from the liver. B) The sweet taste indicates high glucose content, which is converted to glutamate by insulin released by the liver. C) The sweet taste indicates high glutamate content, which is converted to glucose by insulin released from the pancreas. D) The sweet taste indicates high glucose content, which is converted to glycogen by insulin released from the pancreas. View Feedback Question 8 1 / 1 point Which of the following best describes a possible explanation for overeating and obesity presented in the web module? A) A problem with the OB gene so that it produces excess leptin, thus leading to increased food-seeking behaviour B) A deficiency of endogenous opioid receptors because of their role in reward-driven feeding behaviour C) A problem with leptin's ability to act on the hypothalamus in order to reduce food-seeking behaviour An excess of NPY acting on the liver to indicate low blood glucose and glycogen stores in order to increase food-seeking D) behaviour View Feedback HungerLL Question 9 1 / 1 point In lecture a study was presented that involved three groups of rats exposed to different diets. Among other things this study demonstrated that which brain systems are involved in responding to food? A) Serotonergic areas. B) Hippocampal memory areas. C) Emotion areas of the amygdala. D) Dopaminergic reward areas. View Feedback Question 10 1 / 1 point In class we discussed a study investigating the accuracy of self-presentation in online dating profiles. What did researchers find? A) None of these listed options were found. B) Women were more likely than men to lie about their age. C) Men were more likely than women to give misleading information about their income. D) Women were more likely than men to give misleading information about their height. TEST 10: Psychopathology 1 Question 1 1 / 1 point Which of the following is not an example of a major criterion for determining psychopathology? A) Dexter is so friendly to everyone he meets that he feels anxious when people are not overly nice in return. B) Dexter is so friendly to his neighbors that they now worry that one day he will break down and become dangerous. C) Dexter is so friendly that he is unable to go to work because he likes talking to too many people on the way there. Dexter is so happy to do any activity he is involved in that he sometimes goes a few days without eating because he is D) distracted. View Feedback Question 2 1 / 1 point Which of the following is least likely to be characteristic of a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder? A) Krupa must wash her hands before and after eating, otherwise she grows anxious thinking that she will contract a virus. Bhavin must brush his teeth every morning, otherwise he grows anxious thinking that his attractive coworkers will smell B) his bad breath. C) Ikram must hit her lock key several times every time she locks her car or else she grows increasingly anxious thinking that someone will steal her car. D) Miko must open and close the house door three times before entering, and grows anxious if he is stopped midway. View Feedback Question 3 1 / 1 point Lisa truly believes that she has lost circulation in her left arm even after her doctor assures her that her circulation is fine. Last visit, he referred her to a psychiatrist because she has been to the hospital 9 times in the past month with various complaints. Which Axis would Lisa's disorder most likely be classified under? A) Axis I B) Axis IV C) Axis III D) Axis II View Feedback Question 4 0 / 1 point Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual? A) To provide a checklist that allows medical doctors to determine a specific diagnosis. To act as a dictionary, allowing researchers to look up words pertaining to mental disorders often used by clinical B) psychologists. C) To provide broad criteria that assist in assigning a diagnosis to observed symptoms. D) To outline the exact method, duration, and severity of treatment for each psychological disorder. View Feedback Psych1Recall Question 5 0 / 1 point What model of psychopathology suggests that depression arises from a learned mental state of helplessness? A) Cognitive B) Behaviourist C) Psychodynamic D) Biological View Feedback Question 6 1 / 1 point Which of the following statements about models of psychopathology is most correct? A) The cognitive model purposes that mental disorder is not caused by the events around us but how we interpret them. B) The disease model tends to advocate changes to a person's behaviour as a treatment for mental disorders. C) The psychodynamic model often suggests physical treatment to alleviate symptoms before a psychoanalytic therapy. The behaviourist model suggests that mental disorder is caused by a combination of an internal and D) external/behavioural malfunction. View Feedback Question 7 1 / 1 point Which of the following statements about Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) is most correct? A) PTSD often leads to symptoms of irritability, depression, excessive sleeping, and trouble concentrating. B) PTSD may be caused by a traumatic event that happens to an individual in which harm was threatened to a loved one. C) PTSD occurs immediately following an extremely traumatic event that occurs in an individual's life. D) PTSD is often characterized by frequent recollections or memories of the traumatic event. View Feedback Psych1Text Question 8 1 / 1 point Alina has developed an unusual set of psychological symptoms. Her first psychologist diagnoses her with bipolar disorder. Alina is quite unnerved by this diagnosis, so she gets a second opinion. Not to her surprise, the second psychologist diagnoses her with an anxiety disorder. What is the best explanation of the two differing diagnoses? Each of the two doctors has had their own past experiences with patients, which affects their diagnoses of new A) patients. B) The differing diagnoses highlight the need for a dimensional classification model for psychological disorders. C) One of the two psychologists must be wrong in their diagnosis, especially since Alina agrees with one more than the other. D) It is the nature of psychopathology to be subjective, as long as the treatment is appropriate and effective for relieving the symptoms. View Feedback Question 9 1 / 1 point Which of the following outlines a major difference between anxiety sensitivity and preparedness, as proposed by Martin Seligman? A) Anxiety sensitivity deals with the predisposition of individuals to develop obsessions as part of obsessive-compulsive disorder, whereas preparedness deals with the predisposition of individuals to spiders. B) Anxiety sensitivity refers to the tendency to interpret physiological symptoms of anxiety with fear, whereas preparedness refers to conditioning or learning that results in the development of a phobia. Anxiety sensitivity deals with the predisposition of individuals to develop a fear of anxiety-producing situations, whereas C) preparedness deals with the predisposition of individuals to develop a fear of ancient evolutionary threats. Anxiety sensitivity refers to the predisposition to fear of anxiety-related situations, whereas preparedness refers to the D) ability of an individual to cope with anxiety-related situations. View Feedback Psych1LL Question 10 1 / 1 point Which of the following would NOT support the hypothesis discussed in class that depression might be adaptive? People with depression have the same amount of offspring as people without depression but more than others with A) mental illness. B) Depression was found to have a single biological cause. C) If depression decreased in prevalence over time in a given population. D) People with depression are better at social reasoning tasks when depressed. TEST 11: Psychopathology 2 Question 1 1 / 1 point Malik has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia and lives alone in an apartment building. Malik frequently talks about imaginary players he watches play hockey on his driveway. When speaking, he continuously slides his hand across his forehead as if he is wiping sweat away. What schizophrenic symptoms is Malik displaying? A) Positive and paranoid B) Positive and catatonic C) Negative and catatonic D) Positive and negative View Feedback Question 2 1 / 1 point Vanika is undergoing therapy to pinpoint why she is always being accused of actions she does not recall doing, leading her therapist to diagnose her with dissociative identity disorder. Which of the following regarding her treatment is least likely? A) Vanika's therapist unintentionally implanted memories of childhood abuse. B) Vanika's alters resulted from her therapist's suggestions that she has them. C) Therapy identified that Vanika's alters are a result of a traumatic childhood. D) Therapy allowed for Vanika's main personality to resist her alters' temptations. View Feedback Question 3 1 / 1 point Guatam is an imaginative 12-year old boy. Guatam's adoptive parents often observe their son pretending he is a variety of different characters. In fact, he often goes to school acting like a character different than himself. Why are Guatam's parents not worried that their son has DID? A) DID is sexually dimorphic affecting more females than males. B) Guatam's characters are of different age and ethnicity but not sex. C) One of the characters that Guatam assumes is of the opposite sex. D) Guatam speaks about his alter egos in detail when not in character. View Feedback Question 4 1 / 1 point In therapy, which of the following patients would most likely be diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder? After his father's death, Adrian started drinking to cope with the pain. At work he would often show up angry and A) drunk. He was eventually fired for his actions, and cannot hold down a job. As a young boy, Timone's parents got a divorce and paid little attention to him. Now Timone has become obsessed with B) serial killers and wants to punish those he blames for his misfortunes. Every weekend, Sven has a sexual encounter with a different woman. He has the ability to charm women into his C) apartment on the first date because he cannot wait any longer to make love. As a child Brandon was often absent from school. He would rather walk across town by himself through a dangerous D) neighbourhood to visit his father in prison than attend class. View Feedback Psych2Recall Question 5 1 / 1 point An inflated sense of superiority and unstable life circumstances including relationships and jobs are symptoms of which personality disorder? A) Histrionic personality disorder B) Borderline personality disorder C) Narcissistic personality disorder D) Antisocial personality disorder View Feedback Question 6 1 / 1 point Which of the following statements about antisocial personality disorder is most correct? A) It is characterized by dangerous and sensation-seeking behaviours due to poor self-image. B) It is characterized by impulsive behaviours with only concern for themselves, not the safety of others. C) It is characterized by manipulative and sometimes aggressive behaviours towards others. D) It is characterized by irresponsible and self-centered behaviour that begins in adulthood. View Feedback Question 7 1 / 1 point Which of the following statements regarding schizophrenia is true? A) The environment is a more important contributor to schizophrenia than genes are. B) Someone with paranoid schizophrenia experiences hallucinations and delusions. C) Someone with schizophrenia may possess normal affect and normal thought. D) Genes are more important contributors to schizophrenia than the environment. View Feedback Psych2Text Question 8 1 / 1 point Timour is receiving treatment for a particular disorder. His therapist focuses on altering unhealthy behaviours by giving Timour a set of behavioural instructions. Timour's parents are required to attend the therapy sessions. According to information found in the textbook, what type of therapy is Timour receiving? A) Acceptance and Commitment Therapy B) Cognitive Behavioural Therapy C) Systems Therapy D) Behavioural Therapy View Feedback Question 9 1 / 1 point A pharmaceutical company runs a randomized control trial to test the effects of a drug on symptoms of a disorder. The company blindly assigns individuals suffering from the targeted disorder to two groups; control group and treatment group. The subjects do not know the group assignments. At the end of the study all subjects are asked to fill out a symptom checklist. Which of the following is true? A) The experiment is a single blind study in which subjects are blind to their group assignment. B) The purpose of the company's experiment was designed to test the effectiveness of the drug. C) The experiment is designed in such a way as to evaluate the efficacy of the drug in question. D) If the treatment group reports significantly lower symptom scores, the results are clinically significant. View Feedback Psych2LL Question 10
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