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Richard B Day

Printed Name ____________________________________ Psych 3CC3 Test #1: Introduction thru Eyewitness Testimony ________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Instructions: You have 50 minutes to complete the following 40 questions. Please print your name and student ID number at the top of this paper, and return it with your scan sheet. On the scan sheet, print your ID number in the leftmost 7 boxes in the section at the top left marked "IDENTIFICATION NUMBER", and fill in the appropriate circle beneath each box. Please be sure to code your ID correctly, since it is the ONLY way the computer has of identifying you!! Please PRINT your name in the space marked "NAME" at the top right of the form, and SIGN your name underneath. In answering questions, be sure to mark darkly. IF YOU CAN STILL READ THE NUMBER IN THE BUBBLE YOUR MARKING IS TOO LIGHT. ________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 1. The first recorded offender profile was constructed in: a. the 1780s b. the 1840s c. the 1880s [correct] d. in 1914 e. none of the above 2. In the 1890s, _________ conducted research on memory that set the stage for later research on eyewitness testimony. a. Wilhelm Wundt b. Albert Schrenk-Notzing c. James McKeen Cattell [correct] d. William Marston e. none of the above 3. In the United States, psychologists could not serve as expert witnesses in cases considered to be 'medical' for many years. In ______, in People v Hawthorne, the U.S. courts ruled that the standard for expertise in a medically-related subject was the extent of the individual's knowledge of the field, not whether they had a medical degree. a. 1920 b. 1930 c. 1940 [correct] d. 1954 e. none of the above 4. The significance of the U.S. court case Jenkins vs the United States (1962) was that: a. it was the first U.S. case in which psychologists actually testified as experts in mental health. [correct] b. in this case, the U.S. Supreme Court accepted testimony from psychologists concerning the negative effect of segregated schools on child development. c. it marked the first introduction of offender profiles into a U.S. Federal court case. d. it was the first time that psychological assessment of violence risk was used to determine sentencing guidelines. e. none of the above 5. The American Psychological Association (APA) recognized forensic psychology as a separate specialty in: a. 1965 b. 1975 c. 1985 d. 1995 e. none of the above [correct] 6. According to your text, ____________ was the first to propose a testable theory of criminal behaviour: a. Bandura b. Freud c. Munsterberg d. Eysenck [correct] e. None of the above 3CC3 Midterm 1: Page 2 of 6 7. According to Sheldon’s (1949) constitutional theory described in the text, _______ are most likely to become involved with crime. a. ectomorphs b. mesomorphs [correct] c. those with lesions in the temporal lobe d. those who have experienced maternal deprivation e. none of the above 8. As your text notes, Hess (1987, 1999) described dimensions along which law and psychology differ. Which of the following does NOT describe one of them? a. Psychology is nomothetic and law is idiographic. b. Psychology is prescriptive and law is descriptive. [correct] c. Psychological knowledge is gained through research and legal knowledge is gained through precedent. d. Psychology believes in the quest for objective truths whereas the law defines truth subjectively. e. All of the aove ARE dimensions along which psychology and law differ 9. In discussing the use of appropriate interviewing techniques by police officers, we noted that: a. police officers trained in good interview techniques tend to use those techniques, but most officers do not receive that training. b. although most officers are given training in interviewing, they tend not to use those techniques in their work. c. the training given to most police officers involve inappropriate or ineffective interview techniques. d. even police officers trained in good interview techniques tend not to use them in their work. e. more than one of the above [correct] 10. Your text describes a number of limitations of the standard police interview. Which of the following is NOT one of them? a. asking brief, direct questions b. asking very broad questions [correct] c. mixing visual and auditory questions d. asking questions in a random order e. all of the above ARE limitations of the standard police interview 11. Which of the following is NOT one of the characteristics of a good interview protocol? a. It involves the establishment of a rapport between the interviewer and the interviewee. b. It involves an interviewer who has no preconceptions about the interviewee’s guilt. c. It ensures that the interviewee is unaware of the nature of the interview process. [correct] d. It involves mostly open-ended questions. e. all of the above ARE aspects of a good interview protocol. 12. There is little research on how to build rapport between an interviewer and interviewee. However, there is agreement that rapport- building has several aims. Which of the following is NOT one of these aims? a. Ensuring that the interviewee does more of the talking than the interviewer. b. Ensuring that the interviewer is seen by the interviewee as understanding and accepting. c. Ensuring that the interviewer is not seen by the interviewee as judgmental or coercive. d. Ensuring that the setting is formal and structured, so that the interviewee feels safe. [correct] e. all of the above ARE among the aims of rapport-building. 13. If we compare open-ended with closed-ended questions, we note that: a. closed-ended questions allow an interviewee to work at his/her own pace. b. open-ended questions promote more elaborate memory retrieval. [correct] c. answers to open-ended and closed-ended questions are equally accurate. d. closed-ended questions are less prone to mistaken answers than are open-ended questions. e. none of the above 14. In reviewing research on interviewing performance, which of the following is NOT one of the points I made? a. Most interviewers tend to use leading and closed-ended questions. b. Only interviewers aware of the best interview practices tend to use them. c. Few interviewers use best practices, even if aware of them. d. Interviewers trained in the cognitive interview tend to ask more open-ended questions than other interviewers. e. all of the above ARE points I made. [correct] 3CC3 Midterm 1: Page 3 of 6 15. As I indicated in lecture, the most controversial part of the cognitive interview procedure involves asking the interviewee to: a. imagine what would have happened if he had behaved differently. b. recall the events in a different chronological order. c. imagine what a different observer at the scene would have seen. [correct] d. report even vague impressions, and those memories that he is not certain are correct. e. none of the above 16. [Question Dropped] 17. Which of the following comparisons between hypnotized and unhypnotized subjects is NOT TRUE? a. Hypnotized subjects are less accurate in their overall recall. b. Hypnotized subjects have higher confidence in their recall accuracy. c. Hypnotized subjects recall more correct details. d. Hypnotized subjects recall fewer incorrect details. [correct] e. all of the above are TRUE 18. The final stages in the Reid model involve elaborating a suspect's admissions into a written and signed confession. According to the model, these stages come immediately after: a. a direct confrontation in which the suspect is told that his guilt is clear. b. the interrogator provides reasons that morally excuse the suspect's behavior. c. steps are taken to reduce the psychological distance between suspect and the interrogator d. the interrogator provides two alternative explanations for the crime, one of which casts the suspect in a more negative light. [correct] e. none of the above 19. The Reid model has been criticized on a number of grounds. Which of the following is NOT one of them? a. It arouses high levels of anxiety in the suspect, which is likely to interfere with recall of crime-related events. [correct] b. Detecting deception during the initial interview, and thereby choosing a subject to interrogate, is very difficult. c. A subject will be treated in a biased way if he is already believed to be guilty. d. The technique is coercive, raising the probability of false confessions. e. All of the above ARE criticisms of the Reid model 20. During the third stage of the PEACE model of interviewing the interviewer: a. works to establish a good rapport with the interviewee. b. explains to the interviewee the reason for the interview, and how it will proceed. c. obtains the interviewee's description of his or her behavior during the event in question. [correct] d. determines the case points that need to be proved, and the additional evidence to be obtained. e. None of the above is part of the third stage 21. In discussing false confessions we noted that: a. research suggests that between 10% and 25% of confessions obtained using the Reid model are false. b. most false confessions are provided by individuals suffering from mental illness. c. only a small proportion (less than 15%) of false confessions are later retracted. d. in mock jury studies, false confessions increase the probability of conviction unless they were obtained under obviously coercive conditions. e. none of the above [correct] 22. In discussing facial and body movement cues to deception we noted that: a. most people are reasonably good at detecting deceptive statements from facial and body cues. b. avoiding eye contact and higher rates of eye blinking are associated with deception. c. nervous fidgeting and higher levels of body and limb movements are associated with deception. d. higher levels of laughter and the use of gestures are associated with deception. e. none of the above [correct] 3CC3 Midterm 1: Page 4 of 6 23. According to your text, your accuracy in detecting deception is expected to be higher when the target is: a. unattractive and of the opposite gender [correct] b. unattractive and of the same gender c. attractive and of the opposite gender d. attractive and of the same gender e. gender
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