MGEA02H3 Study Guide - Economic Surplus, Demand Curve, Oligopoly

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lemondinosaur451

4 Aug 2013

School

UTSC

Department

Economics for Management Studies

Course

MGEA02H3

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all

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MGEA02H3 Full Course Notes

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Knowledge summary: public goods definition: individuals cannot be excluded from the use of good. Some of the examples would be: fresh air, national defense, park, etc: for a normal market, we horizontally add individual"s demand curve to get the market demand curve. See graph in lecture: for a market with public good, we vertically add the individual"s demand curve. See graph in lecture: free rider effect: a situation where an individual or organization is able to benefit from the actions of another without contributing to the cost associated with such actions. Questions to be asked: calculate the optimum amount to be consumed. Obtain total utility function for the economy. Use mu = p to derive the market demand curve. Set market demand = market supply, solve for the equilibrium quantity and price: calculate the gain to society by consuming the public goods. Total gain to society = consumer surplus + producer"s profit.

Related Questions

Question 3

We saw in class that the same good can fall in different categories (public/private/club/common resource) depending on circumstances. An example of such a good would be watching a movie at the theater. If a lot of people want to watch it, the movie is a _________. If very few people want to watch it (to the point where a room could not even be filled), the movie is likely to be a _______.

A. a common resource; a public good

B. a public good; a common resource

C. a private good; a club good

D. a club good; a private good

3 points

Question 4

Which of the following statements about the free-rider problem is not true?

A. Individuals have an incentive to free-ride when the good is not excludable.

B. The kinds of goods for which the free rider problem arises are common resources and public good.

C. Markets for goods for which there is a free-rider problem are inefficient because not enough of the good is produced.

D. Goods for which the free-rider problem exists tend to be over provided relative to what would be optimal.

4 points

Question 5

To achieve the efficient provision of public goods, the

A. market should be allowed to operate without government intervention.

B. government must limit the provision of those goods.

C. government must tax producers of those goods.

D. government must either provide those goods or subsidize their production.

3 points

Question 6

Which of the following statements about public goods is not true?

A. Because people cannot be excluded from their consumption and thus have no incentive to pay for them, public goods are underprovided by the market.

B. Efficiency requires that the government provide or fund (subsidize) the provision of all public goods.

C. Efficiency requires that the government provide or fund only the public goods that create more benefits than costs to society.

D. In reality, it is hard to provide public goods efficiently.

3 points

Question 7

Public goods must be provided by the government as the market on its own will fail to provide them. However, even with government provision it is very hard to achieve efficiency. Why?

A. In reality, it is very hard (if not impossible) to accurately estimate the benefits of providing a public good.

B. A. In reality, there can be overruns in the cost of providing the public good.

C. Government decisions about which public goods to provide can be influenced by lobbying by interest groups.

D. All of the above are true.

4 points

Question 8

Which of the following is not a common resource?

A. congested roads

B. clean water

C. wild life, which hunters want to hunt and others want to view.

D. a fireworks display.

3 points

Question 9

Many species of animals must be protected by law to keep them from extinction. Why are cows not one of these endangered species even though there is such a high demand for beef?

A. Cows reproduce at a high rate and have adapted well to their environment.

B. Public policies protect cows from predators and diseases.

C. Cows are privately owned (private goods), whereas many endangered species are owned by no one (common resources).

D.There is a natural ecological balance between the birth rate of cows and human consumption.

3 points

Question 10

Which of the following statements about common resources is not true?

A. Due to the free-rider problem, common resources tend to be overused.

B. Because there is rivalry in the consumption of common resources, whenever one person uses a common resource it is imposing a negative externality on others who might also want to use it.

C. There are no private solutions to the management of common resources.

D. One of the solutions that ensures that common resources are properly managed is their privatization.

3 points

Question 11

In our analysis of the firmâs behavior and goals, when we talk about cost, we include _________, and when we talk about profit, we mean ________.

A. Explicit costs only; economic profit

B. Implicit costs only; economic profit

C. Implicit costs only; accounting profit

D. Explicit + implicit costs; economic profit

E. Explicit + implicit costs; accounting profit

3 points

Question 12

One of the differences between explicit and implicit costs is that

A. explicit costs must be greater than implicit costs.

B. explicit costs do not require a direct monetary outlay, whereas implicit costs do.

C. implicit costs do not require a direct monetary outlay, whereas explicit costs do.

D. implicit costs must be greater than explicit costs.

3 points

Question 13

Which of the following is FALSE:

A. If accounting profit is zero, then economic profit is negative

B. Economic profit takes cost the opportunity cost of time and capital into account

C. Economic Profit = Accounting Profit + Implicit Cost

D. Economic Profit = Accounting Profit â Implicit Cost

3 points

Question 14

Which of the following is an example of an implicit cost?

(i) the owner of a firm forgoing an opportunity to earn a large salary working in Wall Street

(ii) interest paid on the firm's debt

(iii) rent paid by the firm to lease office space

A. (ii) and (iii) only

B. (i) and (iii) only

C. (i) only

D. (iii) only

3 points

sapphirekangaroo316

Question 1

Which compensation method helps to explain the large difference between the salaries of top-level managers and mid-level managers in a firm?

	A.	Tournaments
	B.	New blood
	C.	Piece rate
	D.	Backloaded compensation

3 points

Question 2

Please consider the information provided under Question 19 in Chapter 3 (page 54). Based on the stated information, the optimal number of bees kept if the externality is ignored by Yung is 5,000. Is the socially optimal number of bees higher or lower than 5,000?

	A.	We do not have enough information to answer this question
	B.	Same
	C.	Lower
	D.	Higher

3 points

Question 3

Which of the following factors contribute to the existence of firms?

	A.	All of these factors contribute to firm existence
	B.	Risks associated with specialization
	C.	Incomplete contracts
	D.	Willingness of some people to take on risk in exchange for residual income

3 points

Question 4

Public goods are often subject to free-rider problems because these goods are:

	A.	Non-rival and non-excludable
	B.	Rival and non-excludable
	C.	Non-rival and excludable
	D.	Rival and excludable

3 points

Question 5

Which of the following is the most efficient mechanism for allocating scarce goods?

	A.	Government allocation system
	B.	First-come-first-served system
	C.	Market system
	D.	Random allocation system

3 points

Question 6

Many years ago, most of the major Hollywood movie studios also owned chains of local movie theaters across the US. Today, most of the local movie theaters are owned by other companies. What has happened to the degree of integration in the movie industry over time?

	A.	Less horizontally integrated
	B.	Less vertically integrated
	C.	More horizontally integrated
	D.	More vertically integrated

3 points

Question 7

Your firm produces replacement parts for the nuclear submarines operated by the US Navy. Which one of Porter's Five Forces will be most prominent in determining your strategies and profitability?

	A.	Bargaining Power of Suppliers
	B.	Bargaining Power of Customers
	C.	Threat of New Entrants
	D.	Threat of Substitutes

3 points

Question 8

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

	A.	The market mechanism for allocating resources is most efficient due to the incentives it creates.
	B.	Markets are always the most efficient way to allocate goods, even if the market is not perfectly competitive.
	C.	The random allocation mechanism provides no incentives at all.
	D.	The government allocation mechanism provides no incentive for the economy to grow.

3 points

Question 9

Suppose a firm's cost structure exhibits economies of scope. Which of the following actions is compatible with this cost structure?

Diversify into other product lines

Focus on core competencies and reduce production

Focus on core competencies and maintain constant production

Focus on core competencies and expand production

Question 10

Please refer to Table 8.3 on page 132 in the book. Suppose we change the payoffs in the "low price, low price" cell to 0, 25 from 0, 0. Does this change the Nash equilibrium for the game, and is the game still a Prisoner's Dilemma?

	A.	Equilibrium changes, still a Prisoner's Dilemma
	B.	Equilibrium changes, no longer a Prisoner's Dilemma
	C.	Same equilibrium, no longer a Prisoner's Dilemma
	D.	Same equilibrium, still a Prisoner's Dilemma

3 points

Question 11

Which of the following statements about restricting entry to markets is NOT true?

	A.	Brand identity and logos are expensive to establish, and entrants may find it very expensive to establish comparable position in the market.
	B.	Predatory pricing is illegal but very difficult to prove in court
	C.	Branded products tend to have more elastic demand, which makes it more difficult for entrants to charge high prices and they must stay out of the market.
	D.	A low-quality seller cannot effectively use a warranty program to keep other firms out of its market

3 points

Question 12

Your firm earns $2 million per quarter in total revenue, and your accounting profits are $100,000 per quarter. You do not charge the firm for the use of an old building that you own because it is 50 years old and fully depreciated. However, another firm has offered you $200,000 per quarter to use the facility, and this is the market rental rate for similar facilities. In this case, we know that your:

	A.	Opportunity costs are positive and economic profits are negative
	B.	Opportunity costs and economic profits are positive
	C.	Opportunity costs are negative and economic profits are positive
	D.	Opportunity costs and economic profits are negative

3 points

Question 13

Please refer to Question 13 in Chapter 1 (page 17). What is the marginal cost of reducing global warming by 0.017 degrees?

	A.	MC = 60
	B.	MC = 5
	C.	We do not have enough information to answer this question
	D.	MC = 50

3 points

Question 14

In Chapter 6, Boyes focuses on negative externalities such as the various types of pollution. However, as we discussed during our online session, we can also observe positive externalities in which external benefits are generated for people. Which of the following is NOT an example of a positive externality?

	A.	Workers can help one another to "cover the phones" and make sure that someone is always available to help clients
	B.	Workers can provide ideas to one another about how to solve problems
	C.	All of these cases are examples of positive externalities
	D.	Workers can form carpools and use other means to reduce commuting costs

3 points

Question 15

Common property resources are:

	A.	Non-rival and non-excludable
	B.	Non-rival and excludable
	C.	Rival and non-excludable
	D.	Rival and excludable

3 points

Question 16

The free-rider problem arises in markets for common property resources.

	A.	False
	B.	True

3 points

Question 17

Firms that set their product price below the actual cost of production may be engaging in:

	A.	Predatory pricing
	B.	Monopoly pricing
	C.	Moral hazard
	D.	Dollar-cost averaging

3 points

Question 18

Under a cap-and-trade mechanism to control air pollution, what happens to the price of pollution rights if the supply of righs is reduced (i.e., the supply of rights is reduced)?

Increases

Decreases

No change

Question 19

The key method for a manufacturing firm to avoid hold-up problems is to have another source of inputs.

	A.	False
	B.	True

3 points

Question 20

Your firm sells luxury autos, and you have asked the marketing department to develop and stronger brand identity through a new ad campaign. After the campaign has run for 6 months, you hire an economic consultant to study the impact of the campaign on the demand for your autos. The consultant reports that the demand for your cars is now more elastic than it was 6 months ago. Was the new ad campaign successful?

	A.	Yes
	B.	No

31. A country's tax system influences the attractiveness of investing in that country and affects the relative level of profitability for an MNC.

a. True

b. False

32. Points inside a production possibilities frontier represent

a. unattainable production combinations

b. efficiency

c. situations where supply exceeds demand

d. unemployment of resources

33. Firms in a high-wage nation like the U.S. can compete effectively with imports from low-wage nations if

a. the U.S. reduces tariffs on imports

b. low-wage nations impose tariffs on U.S. made goods

c. labor productivity is higher in the low-wage nation

d. labor productivity is higher in the U.S.

34. Assume that production in the United States is valued at $100,000. National income is therefore $100,000. Of their income, workers save $2000, pay $6,000 in taxes, spend $89,000 on consumer goods, and spend $2000 on imports. Businesses spend $5,000 in new investment spending. And, foreigners spend $1000 on exports. To avoid any problems of inflation or unemployment, the government should have a budget deficit or surplus of:

a. $2,000 surplus

b. $1,000 deficit

c. $2,000 deficit

d. $1000 surplus

e. $0 deficit

35. Autarky means-----------------------------------------------------------------

a. the absence of government

b. lack of agriculture

c. self-sufficient, in the absence of international trade

d. short of exchange rates

36. The more people there are----------------------, the less the public as a whole will spend on goods and services.

a. unemployed

b. underemployed

c. employed

d. as discouraged workers

37, Which of the following theories holds that countries will produce and export products that use large amounts of production factors that they have in abundance?

a. Mercantilism

b. The theory of absolute advantage

c. The factor endowment theory

d. None of the above.

38. Suppose that a consumer has a marginal propensity to consume of 0.79. If this consumer earns an extra $1220, her saving would be expected to increase by-----------------------------

39. Many countries in Asia, Africa, and South America-----------------------

a. Are developing countries

b. Are industrialized nations

c. Have a high demand for nonessential products

d. Do not trade

40. Which two of the following are regarded as the main aims of the World Trade Organization (WTO)?

a) To eliminate discrimination in world trade

b) To provide financial assistance to countries with debt

c) To reduce tariff barriers

d) To make infant industry protection illegal

e) To help give preferences to smaller economies

b) and e) a) and c) a) and d) c) and e) b) and d)

41. Last year Sophia's nominal income increased by 12% while the price level rose by 5.5%. Consequently, Sophia's real income:

a. rose by approximately 7%

b. fell by approximately 1%

c. rose by approximately 2%

d. ------------------------------------

42. Consumer surplus

a. is always positive.

b. for a particular unit of consumption is computed by taking the difference between quantity demand and quantity supplied.

c. for all units consumed is the area below demand and below market price over all the units consumed.

d. added to producer surplus provides a measure of the net gain to society from the production and consumption of the good.

43. A decline in Real GDP for six or more consecutive months is called-------------------------------

a. A trough

b. A recession

c. An expansion

d. A recovery

44. What do we call the situation where capital grows faster than the labor force?

a. economic growth

b. technological change

c. productivity growth

d. capital deepening

45. The terms of trade are-------------------------------------------

a. the cost of transportation between countries

b. the ratio of wages in two countries

c. the terms which are used in the trade negotiations

d. the rate at which two products can be exchanged

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MGEA02H3 Study Guide - Economic Surplus, Demand Curve, Oligopoly

MGEA02H3 Full Course Notes

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