BIO130H1 Study Guide - Midterm Guide: Cycloheximide, Chloroplast Dna, Metabolome

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BIO130H1 Full Course Notes

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They would like your advice about how to go about this. Which of the following will be least affected in a human cell treated with cycloheximide: the transcriptome, the proteome, the metabolome, all of the above will be affected equally. Which of the following best describes the item marked by the arrow: the 5" carbon, the 1" carbon, the base, the phosphodiester bond, many down syndrome patients are characterized by an extra chromosome 21. Page 2 of 7: a particular polypeptide chain has 4 domains. He adds high concentrations of this functioning helicase and atp to a test tube containing pcr materials (target. Dna, primers, heat-resistant dna polymerase, and deoxynucleoside triphosphates). Which of the following is not a possible function of chemical. If the newly synthesized strand of dna contained 1000. Okazaki fragments, how many nicks were sealed by dna ligase: 999, 1000, 1001, 500. Page 5 of 7: the drug doxorubicin inhibits topoisomerase ii.

Related Questions

QUESTION 1

A mutation caused by exposure to gamma rays is called a spontaneous mutation

	a.	True
	b.	False
	c.	Sometimes, depending on the type of base change
	d.	Gamma rays do not cause mutations

QUESTION 2

A recessive mutation affecting an essential biochemical pathway can be detected________

	a.	when the organism is heterozygous for that mutation.
	b.	when the organism is homozygous for that mutation.
	c.	in either homozygous or heterozygous conditions.
	d.	only by sequencing (recessive mutations never show a phenotype).

QUESTION 3

During DNA replication, the newly synthesized chain grows by adding

	a.	nitrogenous bases
	b.	the sugar-phosphate backbone
	c.	nucleosides
	d.	dNTPs

QUESTION 4

During replication, the DNA strand 5â- AAGTCTAGCCTAG -3â will serve as a template for the polymerization of:

	a.	5â- CTAGGCTAGACTT -3â
	b.	5â - TTCAGATCGGATC -3â
	c.	5â - GATCCGATCTGAA -3â
	d.	3â - AAGTCTAGCCTAG -5â

QUESTIOn 5

Given the following DNA sequences, select which statement(s) is(are) correct.

Sequence 1:

5â-TGGACGCTAA-3â

3â-ACCTGCGATT-5â

Sequence 2:

5â-AATCGCAGGT-3â

3â-TTAGCGTCCA-5â

Sequence 3:

5â-ACCTGCGATT-3â

3â-TGGACGCTAA-5â

	a.	Sequences 1 and 2 are the same
	b.	Sequences 1 and 3 are the same
	c.	Sequences 2 and 3 are the same
	d.	Sequences 1, 2 and 3 are all different

QUESTION 6

Repetitive sequences in the genome are hotspots for:

	a.	Deamination
	b.	Depurination
	c.	Thymine dimer formation
	d.	Replication errors

QUESTION 7

Select which statement(s) about the Ames test is(are) correct

	a.	it has been designed to understand mutation repair systems in Salmonella typhimurium
	b.	it uses mammalian liver extract
	c.	it allows to study whether chemical compounds or their enzymatic breakdown products are mutagenic
	d.	it is based on whether a chemical compound causes reversion mutations from his+ to his-
	e.	two of the above are correct
	f.	three of the above are correct

QUESTION 8

Select which statement(s) is(are) correct.

	a.	All DNA strands have a direction, and it is specified by the carbons in the sugar backbone.
	b.	All DNA strands have a direction, and it is specified by hydrogen bonds between nucleotides.
	c.	In order to form proper base pairs in a double stranded DNA molecule, the two strands must run in opposite directions.
	d.	A and C are correct.
	e.	B and C are correct.

QUESTION 9

Studies of gene mutation frequencies have shown that:

	a.	mutations are rare, and genomes are generally stable.
	b.	mutation frequencies differ among organisms and also between genes, suggesting certain genes are more susceptible to mutation.
	c.	mutation frequencies are consistent between organisms, and each region of DNA is equally susceptible to random mutations.
	d.	Both A and B are correct.
	e.	Both A and C are correct.

QUESTION 10

The compound 5-bromodeoxyuridine (BrdU) is a derivative of uracil, and if BrdU becomes incorporated during DNA replication, it pairs with adenine. This compound is best classified as which type of mutagen?

	a.	base analog
	b.	base inducer
	c.	intercalating agent
	d.	oxidative agent
	e.	alkylating agent

QUESTION 11

The rate of mutation of the fruit fly is higher than the rate of mutation of Algae

True

False

QUESTION 12

Thymine dimers are most commonly caused by which of the following?

	a.	X-rays
	b.	Alkylating agents
	c.	U.V. irradiation
	d.	DNA intercalating agents

QUESTION 13

What chemical group is found in the 3â end of a DNA strand?

	a.	an alcohol
	b.	a hydroxyl
	c.	a methyl
	d.	a phosphate

QUESTION 14

What chemical group is found in the 5â end of a DNA strand?

	a.	an alcohol
	b.	a hydroxyl
	c.	a methyl
	d.	a phosphate

QUESTION 15

Which is the correct order of molecules binding to DNA during DNA replication?

	a.	Helicase, SSB, primase, DNA pol III, DNA pol I, ligase
	b.	SSB, DNA pol I, ligase, helicase, DNA pol I, primase
	c.	primase, helicase, DNA pol III, ligase, DNA pol I, SSB
	d.	SSB, helicase, primase, DNA pol III, DNA pol I, ligase

QUESTION 16

Which statement(s) is(are) correct about strand slippage?

	a.	It can cause disorders such as Huntingon disease.
	b.	It is a process that causes mutations altering the number of DNA repeats.
	c.	It is a process that incorporates nucleotide base analogs and trinucleotide repeats.
	d.	a and b are correct.
	e.	b and c are correct.
	f.	a, b and c are correct.

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chocolatesea-lion434

__________ are fairly small organelles that provide a safe place within the cell to carry out certain biochemical reactions that generate harmful, highly reactive oxygen species. These chemicals are both generated and broken down in the same location.

Lysosomes

Endosomes

Peroxisomes

Nucleosomes

Biologists cannot possibly study all living species. Instead, they try to understand cell behavior by studying a select subset of them. Which of the following characteristics are useful in an organism chosen for use as a model in laboratory studies?

rapid rate of reproduction

all of the above

ability to grow under controlled conditions

amenability to genetic manipulation

By definition, prokaryotic cells do not possess __________.

ribosomes.

a nucleus.

membrane bilayers.

replication machinery.

Cell biologists employ targeted fluorescent dyes or modified fluorescent proteins in both standard fluorescence microscopy and confocal microscopy to observe specific details in the cell. Even though fluorescence permits better visualization, the resolving power is essentially the same as that of a standard light microscope because the resolving power of a microscope is limited by the __________ of light.

intensity

absorption

wavelength

filtering

Choose the phrase that best completes this sentence: Microtubules ____________ and are required to pull duplicated chromosomes to opposite poles of dividing cells.

generate contractile forces

can rapidly reorganize

are found in especially large numbers in muscle cells

are intermediate in thickness

Despite the differences between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells, prokaryotes have proteins that are distantly related to eukaryotic actin filaments and microtubules. What is likely to be the most ancient function of the cytoskeleton?

cell division

cell motility

vesicle transport

membrane support

DNA and RNA are different types of nucleic acid polymer. Which of the following is true of DNA but not true of RNA?

It contains thymine.

It has 5'-to-3' directionality.

It is single-stranded.

It contains uracil.

Double covalent bonds are both shorter and stronger than single covalent bonds, but they also limit the geometry of the molecule because they ____________________.

prevent additional bonds from being formed with the bonded atoms.

limit the rotation of the bonded atoms.

create a new arrangement of electron shells.

change the reactivity of the bonded atoms.

Drosophila melanogaster is a/an __________. This type of animal is the most abundant of all animal species, making it an appropriate choice as an experimental model.

mammal

amphibian

bird

insect

10.

If the isotope 32S has 16 protons and 16 neutrons, how many protons, neutrons, and electrons will the isotope 35S have, respectively?

16, 19, 17

16, 19, 15

16, 19, 16

16, 20, 15

11.

Living systems are incredibly diverse in size, shape, environment, and behavior. It is estimated that there are between 10 million and 100 million different species. Despite this wide variety of organisms, it remains difficult to define what it means to say something is alive. Which of the following can be described as the smallest living unit?

cell

organelle

protein

DNA

12.

Macromolecules in the cell can often interact transiently as a result of noncovalent interactions. These weak interactions also produce stable, highly specific interactions between molecules. Which of the factors below is the most significant in determining whether the interaction will be transient or stable?

the concentration of each molecule

the size of each molecule

surface complementarity between molecules

the rate of synthesis

13.

Many of the mechanisms that cells use for maintenance and reproduction were first studied at the molecular level in bacteria. Which bacterial species had a central role in advancing the field of molecular biology?

E. coli

S. pombe

C. elegans

D. melanogaster

14.

Many types of cells have stores of lipids in their cytoplasm, usually seen as fat droplets. What is the lipid most commonly found in these droplets?

cholesterol

isoprene

triacylglycerol

palmitic acid

15.

Mitochondria contain their own genome, are able to duplicate, and actually divide on a different time line from the rest of the cell. Nevertheless, mitochondria cannot function for long when isolated from the cell because they are __________________.

anaerobes.

viruses.

parasites.

endosymbionts.

16.

Mitochondria perform cellular respiration, a process that uses oxygen, generates carbon dioxide, and produces chemical energy for the cell. Which answer below indicates a correct pairing of material âburnedâ and the form of energy produced during cellular respiration?

17.

Polar covalent bonds are formed when the electrons in the bond are not shared equally between the two nuclei. Which one of these molecules contains polar bonds?

1). Thyroid hormone (TH) has been identified as one of the factors promoting phenotype development in the Mexican axolotl salamander. Which of the following statements regarding the impact of TH is FALSE?

A). Axolotls maturing in water with high concentration of TH (thyroxine; T4) metamorphose into a terrestrial form.

B). A genome-wide scan of both the axolotl and its sister species found a large reduction in the number of mRNA transcripts that regulate the production of TH.

C). Adding TH (thyroxine; T4) to the water in which axolotl individuals are reared causes them to remain in a larval stage.

D). Most salamander species produce a burst of TH when they move from water to land.

2).What would be an appropriate evolutionary explanation of the fact that the ordering of some homeotic genes (such as Hox genes) on vertebrate chromosomes parallels the ordering of homeotic genes on fruit fly chromosomes?

A). The similarity is a coincidence, not documented in other invertebrates and largely a result of random mutations.

B). Homeotic genes show that insects and vertebrates are closer relatives than the traditional classification system indicates.

C). Homeotic genes of different animal lineages might be ordered in a similar fashion, yet their sequences are completely different.

D). The similar ordering of homeotic genes in animals, both vertebrate and insect, is due to ancient homology.

3). Which of the following correctly defines "homeotic genes"?

A). Homeotic genes encode proteins that control the cellular environment in a differentiated cell tissue.

B). Homeotic genes are DNA sequences that turn off, but not on, the expression of other genes and are controlled by "master-switch" genes.

C). Homeotic genes are "master-switch" genes that control other genes in a set sequence and thereby affect cell size, shape, division, and the positioning of the cells within the organism.

D). Homeotic genes are DNA sequences that turn on, but not off, the expression of other genes and are controlled by "master-switch" genes.

4). Which of the following is NOT considered a type of heterochrony (change in the rate and timing of development)?

A). hypermorphosis

B). acceleration

C). neoteny

D). ontogeny

5). How does the dominance theory explain why the heterogametic sex is at a disadvantage in Haldane's rule?

A). Beneficial dominant alleles will never be fully expressed in hybrids as they only carry one copy of the sex chromosome that carries the allele.

B). If a dominant allele has a negative effect on the fitness of hybrids, it will always be expressed in the heterogametic hybrids that possess that allele because they only need one copy of the respective sex chromosome.

C). If a recessive allele linked to a sex chromosome has a negative effect on the fitness of hybrids, that allele will always be expressed in the heterogametic hybrids that possess that allele because they only have one copy of the sex chromosome that carries the allele.

D). If a recessive allele linked to a sex chromosome has a positive effect on the fitness of hybrids, that allele will never be expressed in the heterogametic hybrids that possess that allele because they only have one copy of the sex chromosome that carries the allele.

6). In a hypothetical flowering plant species, one population evolves a different response to environmental stimuli and begins to bloom significantly later in the season than nearby populations. What type of reproductive isolating mechanism would this be?

A). hybrid sterility

B). postzygotic

C). prezygotic

D). gametic incompatibility

7). In a study of red spruce trees and black spruce trees, scientists found that the red spruce was living in a smaller geographic area and had much less genetic variation than the black spruce. They proposed that the red spruce might have arisen from a southern population of black spruce, which became geographically isolated from other black spruce populations at some point during the Pleistocene glaciations. What is this an example of?

A). allopatric speciation with the vicariance model

B). sympatric speciation

C). allopatric speciation with the peripheral isolate model

D). sympatric speciation with the ring species model

8). Which of the following defines Haldane's rule and its predictions?

A). If among hybrid offspring one sex is absent, rare, or sterile, that sex is always male.

B). If among hybrid offspring one sex is absent, rare, or sterile, that sex is always female.

C). If among hybrid offspring one sex is absent, rare, or sterile, that sex is heterogametic (has two different sex chromosomes).

D). If among hybrid offspring one sex is absent, rare, or sterile, that sex is homogametic (has two of the same sex chromosomes).

8.) Which of the following statements best explains secondary reinforcement?

A). If the reproductive isolating mechanisms that developed during the geographic isolation are strong but the hybrids have higher fitness than the parent species, then the speciation process will cease.

B). If the reproductive isolating mechanisms that developed during the geographic isolation are somewhat weak but the hybrids between two populations have lower fitness, then the speciation process may continue.

C). If the reproductive isolating mechanisms that developed during the geographic isolation are sufficiently weak as to allow free interbreeding across reunited populations, then the speciation process will halt and a single species will remain.

D). When geographic isolation comes to an end, two populations always complete the divergence process and become separate species.

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BIO130H1 Study Guide - Midterm Guide: Cycloheximide, Chloroplast Dna, Metabolome

BIO130H1 Full Course Notes

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