IMM250H1 Study Guide - Midterm Guide: Lady Mary Wortley Montagu, Muhammad Ibn Zakariya Al-Razi, Fowl Cholera

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8 Mar 2011

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Lecture one: the history of immunology the black plague. thought to be spread by trade routes; worsened by migrations. rats had fleas, fleas carried the yersinia pestis bacteria that caused the plague (cats were seen as evil, which didn"t help because you needed cats to get rid of the rats) ::farmers were hit, they cut off food supplies causing starvation. ::peasants were taxed more leading to the peasant revolt in 1371. survivors had an immunological advantage maybe beneficial mutations. the survivors also benefitted from greater resources leading to the renaissance. ::renaissance could also be attributed to the disillusionment of the church or the collapse of feudalism. *immunity: the quality or state of being immune; a condition of being able to resist a particular disease; that which confers protection against disease. ::first seen in 2000 bc: the babylon epic of gilgamesh had accounts of pestilence and disease. *variolation: inoculating someone with the virus of smallpox to induce the disease.

Related Questions

Which best describes the term "immunological disorder"?

a. An exaggerated or inadequate immune response.

b. A disorder that destroys the immune system.

c. Any genetic disease.

d. A complete lack of immune function.

e. Immune problems that cause disease but cannot be detected.

2. How would an immune deficient person react to the introduction of an antigen to their bodies, assuming the cause of the deficiency was genetic?

a. Inadequate immune response due to primary immunodeficiency.

b. Inadequate immune response due to secondary immunodeficiency.

c. Excessive immune response due to primary immunodeficiency.

d. Excessive immune response due to secondary immunodeficiency.

3. An ordinarily innocuous substance that can trigger a harmful immunological response in a sensitized person.

a. Autoimmune substance

4. Which is the best example of an Immediate (Type I) hypersensitivity?

a. Clumping of red blood cells

b. Generalized inflammation

c. DiGeorge Syndrome

d. Airway restriction

e. Arthus reaction

5. Which of these is the first action that takes place during an Immediate (Type I) hypersensitivity reaction?

a. Production of plasma cells

b. IgE attachment to mast cells and basophils

c. Activation of B cells

d. Production of IgE antibodies

e. Degranulation

6. A patient has signs of allergy following a blood transfusion. Which of these hypersensitivities is being displayed?

a. Immediate (Type I)

b. Cytotoxic (Type II)

c. Immune complex (Type III)

d. Cell-mediated (Type IV)

e. Localized

7. Which of these mechanisms is NOT involved in the mechanism of Type II hypersensitivities?

a. Opsonization of cellular antigens

b. Mediation by IgG and IgM

c. Destruction of invading cells

d. Complement

e. Prostaglandin and histamine release

8. How is hemolytic disease of the unborn prevented?

a. Treatment of the infant with steroids.

b. Antihistamine administration to both mother and infant.

c. Administration of serum tests to the infant and careful monitoring.

d. Injection of the mother with anti-Rh IgG antibodies.

e. All of these choices.

9. Immune complex (Type III) hypersensitivity results from the formation of:

a. soluble/particulate antigen-complement complexes.

b. cellular antigen-antigen complexes.

c. soluble/particulate antibody-antibody complexes.

d. cellular antibody-antibody complexes.

e. soluble/particulate antigen-antibody complexes.

10. A local immune response to an antigenic substance (usually injected) that causes edema and hemorrhage is known as _____.

a. serum sickness

b. Arthus reaction

c. hemolytic disease of the newborn

d. hemolytic uremic syndrome

e. generalized anaphylaxis

11. One form of Cell-Mediated (Type IV) hypersensitivity that involves phagocytes capturing but failing to kill pathogens, so a mass of cells forms around the pathogens, is:

a. Atopy

b. Tuberculin hypersensitivity

c. Disseminated intravascular coagulation

d. Granulomatous hypersensitivity

e. Serum sickness

12. Cell-mediated hypersensitivity is often referred to as a "delayed" hypersensitivity because reactions may take _____ to develop.

a. less than one hour

13. Which of these takes place during a Cell-Mediated (Type IV) hypersensitivity reaction?

a. Release of cytokines.

b. IgE attachment to mast cells and basophils.

c. Release of histamine and heparin.

d. Activation of complement.

e. Activation of B cells.

14. This type of disorder arises from a hypersensitivity to self antigenson cells and in tissues.

15. This occurs when the immune system responds to a body component as if it were foreign.

16. Which of the following would be considered an organ-specific autoimmune disorder?

a. Osteoarthritis

b. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

c. Hemolytic disease of the newborn

d. Rheumatic fever

e. DiGeorge Syndrome

17. Under which circumstances is an organ transplant most likely to succeed?

a. If recipient T cells become sensitized to the graft.

b. If patient complement binds to graft cells.

c. If immunosupression therapy is avoided.

d. If the graft has the same histocompatibility antigens as the recipient.

e. If plasma cells proliferate in response to the graft.?

18. Which of the following would be typical of a Type IV sensitivity to a drug?

a. A nurse develops contact dermatitis from frequent contact with Betadine.

b. A patient has a generalized anaphylaxis to intravenous Rocephin.

c. IgG and IgM are produced in a patient due to administration of sulfonamides.

d. Serum sickness develops after a patient has multiple exposures to penicillin.

19. A 40 year old patient examined in an emergency department presents with fatigue, wasting, and diarrhea. Tests show a very low helper T cell level, and an endoscopy shows loss of Peyerâs patches in the colon. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Chronic Epstein-Barre infection

b. DiGeorge Syndrome

c. Agammaglobinemia

d. HIV/AIDS

e. Guillian-Barre Syndrome

20. This test, often coupled with a Western blot, utilizes enzymes that produce a colored compound if the antigen or antibody of interest is present.

a. Complement fixation test

b. Immunoelectrophoresis

c. Precipitin test

d. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

e. Immunofluorescence

goldbat748

1) What is the most efficient and cost-effective way to control infectious diseases? A) variolation C) passive immunotherapy using immunoglobulins B) active immunization by vaccination D) immune testing E) autoimmunization 2) Variolation was first used _______ A) to immunize the Chinese against smallpox. B) to protect individuals against the plague during the Middle Ages. C) to spread smallpox throughout the Native American populations. D) to treat individuals exposed to hepatitis. E) for research purposes in the 20th century. 3) Almost a century after Edward Jenner introduced successful vaccination, Louis Pasteur developed vaccine(s) against A) anthrax. B) human cholera. C) rabies. D) influenza. E) both anthrax and rabies. 4) Pathogens may be attenuated for use in vaccines by ______ A) raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells. B) genetic manipulation. C) treatment with formaldehyde. D) genetic manipulation coupled with treatment with formaldehyde. E) genetic manipulation and/or raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells. 5) Which of the following statements regarding an inactivated vaccine is FALSE? A) It can be produced with deactivated whole microorganisms. B) It can be produced from antigenic fragments of a pathogen. C) It is safer than an attenuated vaccine. D) It is made from mutated forms of the pathogen. E) It is made from pathogens that cannot replicate. 6) Which of the following substances is commonly used to inactivate microbes before using them for vaccination? A) formaldehyde B) aluminum C) mineral oil D) saponin E) aluminum phosphate 7) What type of vaccine is the hepatitis B vaccine? A) inactivated whole pathogen B) attenuated vaccine C) toxoid vaccine D) a recombinant vaccine composed of a single antigen of the hepatitis virus E) a vaccine produced by treating the virus with formaldehyde 8) An infectious disease researcher isolates the pathogen responsible for an emerging disease. The microbe is grown in the lab for many generations. A preparation of the laboratory-grown microbe is treated with ionizing radiation and then tested for its potential as a vaccine. What type of vaccine is this? A) attenuated B) subunit C) combination D) toxoid E) inactivated whole 9) OPV, the attenuated oral poliovirus vaccine, is no longer administered in the U.S.A. because it A) is very toxic. B) does not provide good immunity. C) can revert to wild-type virulence. D) can be spread to contacts. E) can be spread to contacts and can revert to wild-type virulence. 10) Hybridomas are factories for antibodies and are produced by _____ A) combining two virus-infected cells. B) fusing plasma cells with myeloma cells. C) repeated culture of a pathogen until it loses its virulence. D) combining a viral infected cell with a bacterial infected cell. E) combining two bacterial infected cells. 11) The study and diagnosis of antigen-antibody interactions in the blood is known as _____ A) immunology. B) hematology. C) serology. D) cytology. E) histology. 12) Which type of antibody assay is represented in this figure? A) an indirect ELISA C) an indirect immunofluorescence assay B) a direct ELISA D) a western blot E) an immunodiffusion assay 13) Titration is a serological procedure that A) identifies the causative microbe of an infectious disease. B) determines the amount of an antibody in the blood. C) must be done before the western blot test to diagnose HIV. D) is used for blood grouping. E) has been replaced by genetic engineering in isolating the antigen of a pathogen. 14) A woman uses a home pregnancy test kit that tests for hCG hormone in urine. She knows this is a type of antibody assay from the kit brochure. Antibodies reacting with the hormone produce two lines on the test strip. What specific type of antibody assay does this represent? A) a direct immunofluoresence test C) an immunochromatographic assay B) a complement fixation test D) an ELISA E) a neutralization assay 15) The complement fixation test uses red blood cells as the target for complement activation. Test serum containing antibodies is combined with a known amount of antigen in a tube, and then the RBCs and antibodies against the RBCs are added. A positive result for the complement fixation test would be A) a line of precipitate near the bottom of the tube. C) loss of color in the tube. B) a cloudy solution in the tube. D) a fluorescent precipitate. E) a solution that is clear due to precipitation of RBCs.

lilaccod196

Highlight or bold the answer you select for multiple choice or type in your answer in the blank space provided.

1. Which of the following is not true of the nervous system?

Consists of central and peripheral systems

(b) Central nervous system is composed of brain and spinal cord

(d) Meninges are membranes that cover brain and spinal cord

(e) Normally free of microbes

2. Which of the following is a common cause of meningitis in nonimmunized young children?

(a) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(b) Escherichia coli

(d) Haemophilus influenzae

(e) None of the above

3. A complication of infection with this organism (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome) can occur if the organism becomes widely distributed in the body, leading to endotoxin shock and death. The organism is:

(a) Haemophilus influenzae type A

(b) Neisseria meningitidis

(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

4. Which of the following bacterial meningitis diseases currently is the most common type in the U.S., with increased incidences in infants and in the 15- to 24-year-old age group, and has three types or strains of the infectious microbe?

(a) Haemophilus meningitis

(b) Listeriosis

(d) Meningococcal meningitis

(e) a and c

5. Before development of a vaccine against this microbe, the disease it caused accounted for two-thirds of bacterial meningitis cases during the first year of life but is still the number one leading cause of mental retardation in patients who survive serious disease due to permanent central nervous system disorders. What is the microorganism?

(a) Haemophilus influenzae type B

(b) Haemophilus influenzae type A

(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

6. Which of the following bacteria that may cause meningitis is Gram-positive and therefore does not cause endotoxin shock in infected individuals?

(a) Escherichia coli

(b) Neisseria meningitidis

(d) Haemophilus influenzae type B

(e) None of these

7. Avid swimmers and hot tub enthusiasts sometimes acquire an opportunistic infection caused by Naegleria fowleri that results in a meningoencephalitis. This organism is a (an):

(a) Protist

(b) Helminth

(d) Amoeba

(e) a and d

8. Which of the following in NOT true about listeriosis?

(a) Foodborne transmission is the most common source of infection.

(b) It is a leading cause of bacterial meningitis today.

(d) It is sometimes acquired as a zoonosis.

(e) Individuals with impaired immune systems are highly susceptible to this disease.

9. Viral meningitis is usually always fatal if untreated, unlike bacterial meningitis, which is always self-limiting and nonfatal. True or false?

10. Which of the following is acid-fast and causes Hansen's disease?

(a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

(b) Clostridium tetani

(d) Haemophilus influenzae

(e) Mycobacterium leprae

11. An immunofluorescent antibody test (IFAT) has replaced the older test for the presence of inclusions in neurons (Negri bodies) for the detection of infections caused by:

(a) Neisseria meningitidis

(b) Enteroviruses

(d) Rabies virus

(e) Haemophilus influenza

12. The viruses that cause encephalitis are most likely to be:

(a) Togaviruses

(b) Enteroviruses

(d) Rabies virus

(e) Hepatitis viruses

13. What do the following viral encephalitis diseases have in common: eastern equine encephalitis, western equine encephalitis, Venezuelan equine encephalitis, St. Louis encephalitis, West Nile fever?

(a) They are all caused by the same virus.

(b) They are have the horse as a common intermediate host.

(d) Birds are never involved in the life cycle of the viruses that cause these diseases.

(e) Both a and d.

14. The only bacterium known to damage peripheral nerves is:

(a) Naegleria fowleri

(b) Mycobacterium leprae

(d) Neisseria meningitidis

(e) Haemophilus influenzae

15. All of the following are true about Clostridium tetani, the causative agent of tetanus, EXCEPT:

(a) They are spore-forming rods.

(b) They are part of the normal bowel microflora of horses, cattle, and humans.

(d) Their toxin elicits muscle stiffness, spasms, and paralysis in the victim.

(e) They require oxygen to survive.

16. A vaccine that was developed in 1933 has proven effective in reducing the incidence of disease caused by:

(a) Clostridium botulinum

(b) Mycobacterium leprae

(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

17. The most common form of disease caused by Clostridium botulinum is:

(a) Infant

(b) Wound

(d) Foodborne

(e) None of these

18. The endospores of this organism are the most heat-resistant known; it is:

(a) Clostridium tetani

(b) Clostridium botulinum

(d) Streptococcus thermicos

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

19. All of the following are true about Clostridium botulinum, the causative agent of botulism, EXCEPT:

(a) Their ability to form toxin depends on infection with a bacteriophage.

(b) They can produce one of eight different toxins, all of which cause human disease.

(d) Although their endospores are highly heat-resistant, their toxin can be inactivated by only a few minutes' boiling.

(e) All of the above are true.

20. All of the following are true about poliomyelitis EXCEPT:

(a) Most poliovirus infections are inapparent or mild and nonparalytic.

(b) Polio can be caused by three strains of picornaviruses.

(c) The Salk vaccine contains live, attenuated polioviruses while the Sabin vaccine contains formalin-inactivated polioviruses.

(d) Transmission is by the fecal-oral route and pharyngeal secretions.

(e) Poliomyelitis has afflicted man for thousands of years.

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IMM250H1 Study Guide - Midterm Guide: Lady Mary Wortley Montagu, Muhammad Ibn Zakariya Al-Razi, Fowl Cholera

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