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PHYSIO 2008 FINAL exam.pdf

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Physiology 1021
Anita Woods

1 THE UNIVERSITY OF WESTERN ONTARIO PHYSIOLOGY 130 DATE: April 12nd, 2008 FORMAT: 3 Hour Markex Exam DIRECTIONS FOR COMPLETING THE ANSWER SHEET Use a PEN for your signature, and a PENCIL for the other information. Print your name, the course name and the course number. Under the heading STUDENT NUMBER, record all nine digits of your student number. Also FILL IN THE OVALS UNDER THE NUMBERS COMPLETELY!! SECTION digits and ovals must be filled in. The section digits to be used for this exam is 130 Under the heading CODE, enter 001. To answer the multiple choice questions, use an HB pencil to completely fill the ovals on the answer sheet. Use a white nylon eraser to entirely remove any mistakes. Calculators are allowed QUESTION BOOKLET Please make sure that this booklet contains 99tions. Hand in this booklet, along with the answer sheet, when you have completed the test. Fill in the information requested below. : E M A N TA=s name: 2 DIRECTIONS: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or completions. Select the ONE that is BEST in each case and blacken the appropriate space on the Scantron sheet. 1. In order for a muscle to contract, ich of the following events must occur? (A) Calcium ions (Ca ) must be released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. (B) Troponin must roll off te actin binding sites socross bridges can form (C) ATP will attach to actin tocause tropomyosin tomove off the myosin binding sites. (D) Acetylcholine causes the cross-bridgesto release and themuscle to relax (E) Both B and D are correct 2. Which of the following contributes to the pacemaker potential in the SA node cells of the heart? (A) Increased leakage of K out of the pacemaker cells (B) Ca ++leaking into the pacemaker cells - (C) Chlorii+(Csl ) leaking into the pacemaker cells (D) Na leaking out of the pacemaker cells (E) Both B and D are correct 3. An increase in cardiac output can be produced by all of the following EXCEPT ? (A) An increase heart rate (B) An increase stroke volume (C) The release of acetylcholine onto the pacemaker (D) Activation of the sympathetic nervous system (E) An increase in preload 4. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT? (A) Oxygen is transported in the blood mainly bound to hemoglobin (B) The CO 2content of the systemic arterial blood is lower than in venous blood (C) Oxygen delivery in the peripheral tissue occurs due to the low PO 2in the tissue resulting in oxygen unloading from the hemoglobin (D) There is more oxygen dissolved in plasma than carbon dioxide (E) The amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin decreases as body temperature increases 3 Select the ONE that is BEST in each case and blacken the appropriate space on the Scantron sheet. 5. An increase in heat can be produced by inactivation of: (A) ventromedial hypothalamus (B) posterior hypothalamic neurons (C) the supraoptic nucleus neurons (D preoptic hypothalamic neurons (E) both B and D are correct 6. In the recent CIS championship basketball game, a flagrant foul (intent to injury) was called against a Brock player. As the UWO player lay on the court without movement, the trainer wanted to assess if there was any spinal cord damage. If the player was unable to move his thumb and fingers in his right hand, he likely sustained damage to the: (A) right lateral corticospinal tract of the cervical spinal cord (B) left ventral corticospinal tract of cervical spinal cord (C) left lateral half of the cervical spinal cord (D) left dorsal column system (E) right ventrobasal complex of the thalamus 7. A patient that becomes anorexic as a result of not eating may have (A) an increased amount of leptin exerting an effect on the lateral hypothalamus orexin neurons (B) overactive posterior hypothalamic neurons that control sympathetic activity (C) damage to the lateral hypothalamic orexin neurons (D) a tumour that affects the suprachiasmatic nucleus (E) both A and C are correct 8. Flight or fight behaviour and its associated autonomic changes is (are) most likely associated with changes in the (Ap)re-centglrus (B) limbic system (C) ventrobasal complex of the thalamus (D) posterior hypothalamus (E) both B and D are correct 4 Select the ONE that is BEST in each case and blacken the appropriate space on the Scantron sheet. 9. Which of the following is true about atrial natiuretic factor? (A) it is part of the renin-angiotensin system (B) it promotes sodium reabsorption (C) it is released in response to a fall in extracellular fluid volume (D) it is produced in the cardiac ventricles (E) it indirectly increases water excretion 10. Memories and emotions associated with smell involve the following part (s): (A) frontal lobe cerebral cortex (B) substantia nigra (C) the limbic system (D) ventrobasal complex of the thalamus (E) both A and C are correct 11. Which one of the following is not biologically active (A) antidiurehtcrmo(neasopressin) (B) atrial natiuretic factor (C) angiotensin II (D) aldosterone (E) angiotensinogen 12. In the ascending limb of Henle’s loop, the interstitial fluid osmolality in a given region of the medulla is 900 milliosmoles. Given this information, what would be the osmolality of the luminal (tubular) filtrate within the nephron in that same region? (A) 90m0illiosmoles m(ilioaeroles (C) less than 900 milliosmoles (D) the same osmolality as found in the luminal filtrate in that same region (E) none of the above 5 Select the ONE that is BEST in each case and blacken the appropriate space on the Scantron sheet. 13. How does glucose cross the cell membrane? (A) active transport (B) endocytosis (C) it diffuses directly through the plasma membrane (D) it diffuses through protein-lined pores in the cell membrane (E) facilitated diffusion (secondary active transport)via a membrane-bound carrier 14. The primary visual cortex is located in which lobe? (A) parietal lobe (B) frontal lobe (C) occipital lobe (D) temporal lobe (E) cerebellum 15. What is the osmolality of a solution containing 50 mM KCl, 50 mM Glucose (C H6O 12 6 and 50 mM CaCl ? 2 (A) 0 mosm (B) 150 mosm (C) 200 mosm (D) 300 mosm (E) 6250 mosm 16. Which of the following glial cells are most closely involved in the myelination of neurons within the centralnervous system (A) astrocytes (B) microglia (C) oligodendrocytes (D) schwann Cells (E) ependymal Cells 6 Select the ONE that is BEST in each case and blacken the appropriate space on the Scantron sheet. 17. The ampulla is found in the: (A) saccule (B) cochlea (C) semi-circular canals (D) retina (E) utricle 18. Testosterone is thought to increase the severity of some prostate cancers. For these patients, Flutamide is often prescibed to bind to testosterone receors. The relationship between this drug and testosteronecan be described as: (A) synergistic (B) up-regulation (C) antagonistic (D) permissive (E) down-regulation 19. Which of the following hormones enters its target cells before exerting its biological effect? (A) catecholamines (B) dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) (C) prolactin (D) epinephrine (E) ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) 20. A person with an under-functioning pituitary gland will experience functional decline of many systems. All of the following are likely to occur EXCEPT (A) dwarfism if it occurs in childhood (B) impaired testosterone secretion in a male (C) deficiency of aldosterone (D) cessation of menstrual cycles in a female (E) decrease in the size of the thyroid gland 7 Select the ONE that is BEST in each case and blacken the appropriate space on the Scantron sheet. 21. Hormones from the pituitary gland (A) travel via axons to the hypothalamus (B) inhibit the release of oxytocin and vasopressin (C) are carried throughout the body via the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal blood vessels (D) can act to inhibit the release of hormones from the hypothalamus (E) can be released upon positive feedback stimulation from the adrenal gland 22. Which one of the following hormones is regulated directly by a hormone from the anterior pituitary gland? (A) glucagon (B) insulin (C) cortisol (D) secretin (E) oxytocin 23. The “iodide trap” refers to (A) the mechanism whereby T3 and T4 are released from thyroglobulin and pumped into the circulation (B) the process whereby T3 and T4 circulate throughout the body bound to plasma proteins (C) the mechanism whereby plants extract iodide from the soil (D) the active transport mechanism that concentrates iodide in the thyroid gland (E) the mechanism whereby ingested iodide is absorbed by the small intestine 24. Which of the following would likely be present in a person with excessive circulating levels of cortisol? (A) strong bones (B) hypotension (C) immunosuppression (D) well-developed musculature (E) hypoglycemia 8 Select the ONE that is BEST in each case and blacken the appropriate space on the Scantron sheet. 25. Spermatogenesis (A) ceases at approximately age fifty (B) occurs outside of the seminiferous tubules (C) involves the mitosis of sperm (D) requires meiosis to begin in the fetal testes (E) requires testosterone synthesized by Leydig cells 26. To produce fully functional sperm, the following must occur: (A) testes maintain a temperature of 37ºC (B) primary spermatocytes undergo mitosis (C) adrenal cortex synthesize androgens (D) synthesis of acrosomal enzymes (E) Sertoli cells have LH (luteinizing hormone) receptors 27. Secretion of which one of the following hormones would increase after the loss of Sertoli cell function? (A) FSH (follicle stimulating hormone) (B) inhibin (C) LH (luteinizing hormone) (D) testosterone (E) GnRH (gonadotropin releasing hormone) 28. LH (luteinizing hormone) does not stimulate the release of androgens from the adrenal cortex because (A) the adrenal gland is not capable of synthesizing steroid hormones (B) the adrenal gland does not have receptors for LH (C) CRH (corticotropin releasing hormone) from the hypothalamus stimulates ACTH secretion from the pituitary gland (D) the adrenal gland converts LH to a paracrine agent (E) ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) blocks the effects of LH on most tissues 29. Approximately four days after the follicular phase has begun, (A) estrogen secretion by the granulosa cells increases (B) some primary follicles complete the first stage of meiosis (C) the LH (luteinizing hormone) surge occurs (D) ovulation occurs (E) the endometrium of the uterus proliferates 9 Select the ONE that is BEST in each case and blacken the appropriate space on the Scantron sheet. 30. Estrogen (A) inhibits the development of breasts during pregnancy (B) is at its highest levels during the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle (C) is synthesized by the placenta during pregnancy (D) decreases the contractility of the uterus during pregnancy (E) stimulates the discharge of blood from the uterus during the menstrual cycle 31. A healthy 26 year old woman wishes to become pregnant. Her fertility is maximal (A) during the early follicular phase of the ovarian cycle (B) just after the regression of the corpus luteum (C) during the late luteal phase of the ovarian cycle (D) just after the primary ooctye has completed meiosis I (E) when progesterone is at its highest level 32. Pregnancy tests depend on the detection of one hormone in the urine. This hormone is (A) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) (B) FSH (follicle stimulating hormone) (C) progesterone (D) estradiol (E) LH (luteinizing hormone) 33. Saliva (A) contains amylase to begin protein digestion (B) contains mucus (C) is acidic (D) secretion is regulated by the endocrine system (E) assists the mouth with absorption of food 34. Along most of its length, the digestive tract (A) contains a submucosal layer that is in contact with the luminal contents (B) contains a serosal layer consisting of endocrine cells (C) contains a skeletal muscle layer involved in peristalsis (D) shows segmentation movements that keep luminal contents moving along the tract (E) contains enteric nerves that can be regulated by either sympathetic or parasympathetic systems 10 Select the ONE that is BEST in each case and blacken the appropriate space on the Scantron sheet. 35. The final digestion of complex carbohydrates to monosaccharides is performed by (A) salivary amylase (B) pancreatic amylase (C) brush border enzymes (D) bile salts (E) pepsin 36. Micelles (A) are a type of prostaglandin (B) are formed by cholecystokinins (C) contain bile salts (D) are absorbed by lacteals (E) contain secretin 37. Proteins are converted to their absorbable units with the aid of all secretions EXCEPT (A) hydrochloric acid (B) pepsin (C) intrinsic factor (D) pancreatic proteases (E) brush border enzymes 38. In the fed or absorptive state (A) triglyceride synthesis is inhibited (B) anabolism is the predominant form of metabolism (C) ketone bodies are produced by the brain (D) excess dietary amino acids are stored as protein (E) glycogen is catabolized to glucose and secreted by the liver 11 Select the ONE that is BEST in each case and blacken the appropriate space on the Scantron sheet. 39. Given the following data from a blood vessel: Pressure at point 1 = 125 mmHg Pressure at point 2 = 75 mmHg Blood flow in the vessel = 225 ml/min The resistance in this vessel is: (A) 0.11 (B) 0.22 (C) 2.25 (D) 4.5 (E) 9 40. Which of the following will cause a decrease in blood flow? (A) A decrease in the blood pressure gradient (B) A decrease in the radius of the blood vessel through which the blood is flowing (C) A decrease in the viscosity (thickness) of the blood (D) An increase in cardiac output (E) both A and B are correct 41. Which of the following statements about the conducting system in the heart is correct? (A) Purkinje fibers conduct the action potential at the fastest rate compared to all other regions of the heart. (B) After traveling through the atria, the action potential is conducted to the AV node (C) The bundle of His conducts the action potential between the atria and the AV node. (D) The conduction of the action potential in the bundle of His is slower than the conduction of the action potential in the SA node (E) Both A and B are correct 42. Most of the blood (70%) enters the ventricles during which of the following events? (A) Directly after the atria contracts (B) During the QRS complex (C) During the isovolumetric relaxation phase (D) Between the T wave and the following P wave (E) Directly after the o
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