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Midterm Review Practice Questions

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Natasha Koziol

BU 354 MIDTERM REVIEW - FALL 2011 MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) 
The prevailing atmosphere or ''internal weather" that exists in an organization and its impact on employees is 
_______ A) 
the need for performance appraisals. B) 
the need for a corporate culture. C) 
a myth about organizations. D) 
the importance of having a mission statement. E) 
organizational climate. 2) 
Baby boomers: 
_______ A) 
were born between 1946 and 1965. B) 
resulted in a focus on recruitment and selection in organizations in the past. C) 
have had very high fertility rates. D) 
are currently causing a great deal of competition for advancement. E) 
will be increasing rapidly in numbers over the next few decades. 3) 
The characteristics of the work force are known as: 
_______ A) 
organizational climate. B) 
demographics. C) 
population trends. D) 
unionization. E) 
diversity. 4) 
You are the HR generalist of a national railway. Which employment legislation would you refer to when it comes to employee relations issues within the organization? 
_______ A) 
territorial B) 
federal C) 
provincial D) 
provincial/territorial E) 
none of the above 5) 
Rita is the HR Director of a manufacturing company. She recently undertook research to identify competitor compensation and incentive plans, information about pending legislative changes and availability of talent in the labour market for the upcoming strategic planning meeting. Rita was conducting: 
_______ A) 
an external opportunities/threats study. B) 
an envrionmental study. C) 
an external market survey. D) 
an employee engagement survey. E) 
environmental scanning. 6) 
Economic downturns are generally associated with: 
_______ A) 
an overwhelming number of job applicants for vacancies. B) 
skills shortages. C) 
lower unemployment rates. D) 
high turnover. E) 
more competition for qualified employees. 7) 
HR department staff members are traditionally involved in key operational responsibilities. Which of the following is an operational responsibility? 
_______ A) 
setting goals and objectives B) 
collecting metrics C) 
analyzing metrics D) 
interpreting human right laws E) 
interpreting health and safety legislation 8) 
In the early 1900s, personnel administration, as it was then called: 
_______ A) 
was closely tied to union-management relations. B) 
focussed on trying to improve the human element in organizations. C) 
served a key advisory role in organizations. D) 
played a very subservient role in organizations. E) 
was highly influenced by laws and regulations. 9) 
The broad objectives of HR associations across the country include: 
_______ A) 
assisting in the provision of training in the field of HR. B) 
skills updating. C) 
providing opportunities for information exchange. D) 
serving as a voice for HR practitioners. E) 
all of the above. 10) 
Joe Brown was hired by a manufacturing firm as a supervisor. During his first few weeks as a supervisor he realised that employees who report to him expect a lot of direction from him and expect all of the decision making to be done by him. Joe Brown decided to train his employees to take on additional responsibilities and make decisions within a specific scope. Joe Brown is: 
______ A) 
outsourcing his staff. B) 
empowering his staff. C) 
reducing his staff. D) 
embracing his staff. E) 
none of the above. 11) 
The third phase of personnel management was concerned largely with: 
______ A) 
benefits administration. B) 
corporate contribution and proactive management. C) 
corporate contribution. D) 
payroll. E) 
health and safety legislation compliance. 12) 
The ratio of an organization's outputs such as goods and its inputs such as capital is which of the following: 
______ A) 
workforce diversity. B) 
productivity. C) 
outsourcing. D) 
an internal environmental influence. E) 
the labour market. 13) 
Questions concerning ________ are at the core of a growing controversy brought about by the new information technologies. 
______ A) 
job satisfaction B) 
privacy and social responsibility C) 
employee stress levels D) 
data control, accuracy, right to privacy and ethics E) 
speed, accuracy, and efficiency 14) 
Being completely familiar with employment legislation, HR policies and procedures, collective agreements, and the outcome of recent arbitration hearings and court decisions is most closely related with which of the following HR activities? 
______ A) 
serving as a consultant B) 
offering advice C) 
serving as a change agent D) 
formulating policies and procedures E) 
providing services 15) 
Saleem is a new immigrant with a master's degree in management. Despite his qualifications, Saleem has worked as a clerk in the shipping department of a company for the last year. This is an example of: 
______ A) 
a BFOR. B) 
indirect discrimination. C) 
underutilization. D) 
underemployment. E) 
occupational segregation. 16) 
The PAQ rates jobs on the following dimension: 
______ A) 
safety risks. B) 
mental processes and job context. C) 
job context. D) 
incumbent performance. E) 
processing information and incumbent performance. 17) 
A hiring freeze is all of the following except: 
______ A) 
a solution when demand exceeds supply. B) 
a common response to an employee surplus. C) 
no outsiders are hired. D) 
when openings are filled by reassigning current employees. E) 
a strategy that most employers use initially to balance demand and supply. 18) 
Information typically found in a job posting includes all of the following EXCEPT: 
______ A) 
the name of the previous incumbent. B) 
qualifications required. C) 
posting date. D) 
pay range. E) 
job title. 19) 
Renu is the human resources professional at a telecommunications company who is tasked with ensuring that the firm's selection process adheres with the firm's employment equity plan mandated by legislation. Which of the following must she ensure? 
______ A) 
The process does not have an adverse effect on women or members of certain religious groups. B) 
Written authorization is obtained for reference checking. C) 
No employees with unsuitable backgrounds are hired. D) 
The process does not have an adverse effect on women, persons with disabilities, aboriginal's persons or visible minorities. E) 
The process does not have an adverse effect on women or persons with disabilities. 20) 
Audiovisual training techniques are useful in the following situations EXCEPT: 
______ A) 
when trainees must be exposed to events that are not easily demonstrated in live lectures. B) 
when it is too costly to move trainers from place to place. C) 
when a training method less expensive than conventional lectures is needed. D) 
when training is going to be used organization-wide. E) 
when stop-action, instant-replay, or fast- or slow-motion capabilities are needed. 21) 
The legal aspects of training may require showing that the admissions procedures are: 
______ A) 
invalid. B) 
external. C) 
reliable. D) 
valid. E) 
reviewed regularly. 22) 
Cultural sensitivity training includes: 
______ A) 
on-the-job training. B) 
sensitizing employees to the views of different cultural groups toward work. C) 
audiovisual techniques. D) 
language training. E) 
T-groups. 23) 
Web-based training costs about ________ less than traditional classroom-based training. 
______ A) 
80% 24) 
Recent research indicates that implementing a comprehensive onboarding program in a corporation carries the following additional direct benefit: 
______ A) 
improving employee perceptions of management's leadership abilities. B) 
increasing work-life balance for employees. C) 
improving management's leadership ability. D) 
improving employee perceptions of management's leadership abilities and reducing employee turnover. E) 
increasing customer loyalty. 25) 
Integration at senior levels in the organization requires an ongoing process that can continue for months as the new executive learns about: 
______ A) 
senior management. B) 
performance appraisals. C) 
how decisions are made and who holds what type of power. D) 
the organizational structure. E) 
socialization. 26) 
A structured process by which individuals become skilled workers through a combination of classroom instruction and on-the-job training is referred to as: 
______ A) 
vestibule training. B) 
computerized training. C) 
job instruction training. D) 
special assignment training. E) 
apprenticeship training. 27) 
Before getting in front of a camera for videoconferencing, the instructor should: 
______ A) 
practice vestibule training. B) 
participate in computerized training. C) 
visit other cities where learners will be located. D) 
arrive just before going on camera. E) 
prepare a training manual for learners. 28) 
When an employer fails to train adequately this is referred to as: 
______ A) 
on-the-job training. B) 
negligent training. C) 
affirmative action. D) 
simulated training. E) 
job instruction training. 29) 
The technique used when verifying whether there is a significant performance deficiency, and determining if that deficiency should be rectified through training or by some other means (such as changing the machinery or transferring the employee), is called: 
______ A) 
motivation analysis. B) 
task analysis. C) 
performance analysis. D) 
employee analysis. E) 
training analysis. 30) 
The state which results from the discrepancy between what the new employee expected from his or her new job and the realities of it is: 
______ A) 
socialization. B) 
job instruction training. C) 
mentoring. D) 
reality shock. E) 
affirmative action. 31) 
Training is part of an organization's: 
______ A) 
tactical plan. B) 
business plan. C) 
strategic plan. D) 
business need. E) 
immediate plan. 32) 
One approach to the evaluation of orientation programs is: 
______ A) 
regression analysis. B) 
cost-benefit analysis. C) 
case studies. D) 
Markov analysis. E) 
quality circles. 33) 
Training is essentially a (n): 
______ A) 
memorizing process. B) 
testing process. C) 
learning process. D) 
assessment process. E) 
technical process. 34) 
The heart of the task analysis record form is the column in which: 
______ A) 
the task is listed. B) 
the standards of performance for each task and subtask are listed. C) 
the competencies and specific skills or knowledge required for each of the tasks and subtasks are listed. D) 
there is an indication of whether the task is learned best on- or off-the-job. E) 
the job's main tasks and subtasks are listed. 35) 
An important key to successful executive integration is: 
______ A) 
the realization that executives rarely experience reality shock. B) 
to let executives integrate on their own initiative. C) 
stressing the importance of listening as well as demonstrating competency. D) 
stressing the importance of listening as well as demonstrating competency and identifying position specifications. E) 
norms of the organization must be understood before the first day of work. 36) 
A selection ratio is: 
______ A) 
the ratio of the total number of applicants hired to the total number of applicants. B) 
the ratio of the number of offers extended to the total number of applicants. C) 
the ratio of the total number of applicants to the number of applicants hired. D) 
the ratio of the number of interviews successfully completed to the total number of applicants. E) 
the cost per hire. 37) 
Examples of strategies used in a typical assessment centre include all of the following EXCEPT: 
______ A) 
on-the-job training. B) 
individual presentations. C) 
a leaderless group discussion. D) 
objective tests. E) 
an in-basket exercise. 38) 
Micro-assessment focuses on: 
______ A) 
group performance. B) 
individual performance. C) 
verbal questions. D) 
computer-based questions. E) 
paper-based questions. 39) 
Each of the following statements about the legal issues involved in obtaining and providing reference information is true EXCEPT: 
______ A) 
The defence of "qualified privilege" protects reference givers, regardless of the circumstances. B) 
Many companies are adopting a "no reference" policy. C) 
As long as reference information is honest, fair, and candid, reference givers are legally protected. D) 
Failure to check references can lead to negligent or wrongful hiring suits. E) 
Even if negative information is given, if it is imparted in a fair and honest manner, the reference giver is legally protected. 40) 
The selection decision-making technique which involves identifying the most valid predictors and weighting them through statistical methods such as multiple regression is called: 
______ A) 
statistical strategy. B) 
clinical strategy. C) 
benchmark approach. D) 
multiple-evaluation approach. E) 
multiple-hurdle strategy. 41) 
Behavioural questions describe: 
______ A) 
preset candidate reactions. B) 
hypothetical situations. C) 
various situations experienced in the past. D) 
candidate personality E) 
future behaviour. 42) 
Personality tests can measure basic aspects of an applicant's personality, which include all of the following EXCEPT: 
______ A) 
motivation. B) 
stability. C) 
dexterity. D) 
neurotic tendency. E) 
introversion. 43) 
Which interview format involves a series of preset questions asked of all candidates and a series of preset candidate-specific questions? 
______ A) 
situational B) 
behavioural C) 
structured D) 
nondirective E) 
mixed 44) 
Nonverbal behaviours often account for more than ________ percent of the applicant's rating. 
______ A) 
70 45) 
The two- to three-day strategy used to assess candidates' management potential is known as: 
______ A) 
a managerial aptitude test. B) 
an in-basket exercise. C) 
a management assessment centre. D) 
a leaderless group discussion. E) 
a supervisory interest inventory. 46) 
All of the following are reasons that employers may include a medical examination as a step in the selection process EXCEPT: 
______ A) 
to provide documentation to justify not hiring a qualified individual with a physical disability that would prevent him or her from performing the essential job duties. B) 
to reduce absenteeism and accidents. C) 
to establish a baseline for future insurance or compensation claims. D) 
to determine that the applicant qualifies for the physical requirements of the position. E) 
There are no exceptions listed above. 47) 
While ________ interviews ask interviewees to describe how they would react in a given situation, ________ interviews ask candidates to describe how they did react in that situation in the past. 
______ A) 
structured; situational B) 
situational; behavioural C) 
behavioural,;situational D) 
nondirective; behavioural E) 
stress; situational 48) 
Tests that measure an individual's potential to perform a job, provided he or she is given proper training, are known as: 
______ A) 
intelligence tests. B) 
interest inventories. C) 
aptitude tests. D) 
achievement tests. E) 
personality tests. 49) 
Which is true of the interview question: "How would you handle an angry customer?" 
______ A) 
It tests knowledge and experience. B) 
It tests intellectual capacity. C) 
It is an example of behavioural interviewing. D) 
It is a situational question which tests knowledge and experience. E) 
It is a situational question. 50) 
Interest inventories are tests that: 
______ A) 
compare a candidate's interests with those of people in various occupations. B) 
measure basic elements of personality. C) 
measure job performance directly. D) 
measure knowledge and/or proficiency. E) 
apply to extroversion and emotional stability. 51) 
The interview format that may seem quite mechanical to all concerned is known as: 
______ A) 
mixed. B) 
nondirective. C) 
stress-producing. D) 
structured. E) 
unstructured. 52) 
Employers may use a recruiting yield pyramid for each recruitment method to determine the: 
______ A) 
amount of lead time needed to hire the required number of new employees. B) 
number of applicants that must be attracted to hire the required number of new employees. C) 
projected turnover rate. D) 
number of applicants failing the recruiting and selecting process. E) 
number of applicants rejected. 53) 
Identifying which job requirements should be filled internally and which externally is most closely associated with: 
______ A) 
building a pool of candidates. B) 
a human resources requisition form. C) 
HR planning. D) 
determining the job requirements. E) 
choosing the appropriate recruitment method(s). 54) 
Nepotism is a problem most closely associated with: 
______ A) 
employee referrals. B) 
educational institutions. C) 
write-ins. D) 
human resource centres. E) 
walk-ins. 55) 
When job openings arise unexpectedly these openings are identified by: 
______ A) 
manager request. B) 
choosing the appropriate recruitment source(s) and method(s). C) 
building a pool of candidates. D) 
human resources planning. E) 
determining the job requirements. 56) 
Summer internship programs: 
______ A) 
produce win-win results, but students benefit more. B) 
are expensive to assess students. C) 
have one objective only: to allow students to obtain business experience. D) 
hire college and/or university students to complete summer projects before they graduate. E) 
frequently offer permanent positions following graduation if interns have excellent performance. 57) 
Popularity of Internet job boards among job seekers is high due to: 
______ A) 
the technological requirements of the Internet. B) 
the types of job postings available. C) 
the number of job postings available on one site. D) 
they are not popular. E) 
the features of the job boards. 58) 
External recruitment often results in: 
______ A) 
higher costs due to extensive training. B) 
rivalry and competition among employees. C) 
the generation of a homogeneous pool of applicants. D) 
problems in meeting employment equity goals. E) 
cost savings due to less extensive training. 59) 
Corporate Web sites can help the company create a pool of candidates who have: 
______ A) 
replied to a specific ad in print. B) 
already worked with the company. C) 
already filled out an application form. D) 
already been prescreened. E) 
already expressed interest in the organization. 60) 
Online recruitment: 
______ A) 
does increase hiring speed, and therefore reduces the costs of vacant positions. B) 
reduces hiring speed but does reduce the costs of vacant positions. C) 
reduces the use of the Intranet and Internet technology. D) 
increases hiring speed, and therefore increases the costs of vacant positions. E) 
reduces hiring speed because of technological complexities. 61) 
Job fair events would not allow: 
______ A) 
computer technology can be used; some job fairs are held on-line. B) 
in-depth assessment of candidates. C) 
recruiters to share information about the organization. D) 
recruiters to share job opportunities in an informal, relaxed setting. E) 
top prospects to be invited to visit the firm at a later date. 62) 
Firms use application service providers to power their career Web site
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