CAS BI 203 Study Guide - Quiz Guide: Adenylyl Cyclase, Cholera Toxin, Cholera

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4 Jul 2018

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Part 1

1) Cholera is found in feces-contaminated water or food sources. It is mostly spread via

poor sanitation and hygiene. So, the MSPP recommendations for cholera help maintain

good hygiene, and help prevent the contamination of water and food sources.

2) Perhaps the toxin binds only to cells with the right type of receptor- and in this case, that

would be intestinal epithelial cells.

a) Toxins are specific molecules that bind to receptors and either inhibit the start of a

process, or invoke the start of a messed up process

3) a) The cholera toxin binds to a specific receptor, G protein binds and allows for the

endocytosis of the toxin.

a) Once inside the cell, the toxin separates into the A1 and A2 domains, in which A1

acts as an enzyme

b) A1 activates G protein, in which it is hydrolyzed to lock in the GTP conformation,

allowing for an excess production of cAMP, which triggers the CFTR to release

of ions out of the cell, resulting in diarrhea.

b) GTP hydrolysis by G-alpha usually allows for the termination of the cAMP signal,

allowing for an eventual stop in release of ions via CFTR channel.

c) ??

4) Cholera toxin activates the pathway, resulting in a very low concentration of ions inside the

cell, and a very high concentration of ions outside the cell, resulting in diarrhea.

Part II

5) Same as the cholera toxin pathway. She’s dehydrated because her cells are in a hypertonic

solution. Water in cell leaves to area of high solute conc, resulting in cell shrinkage.

6) Perhaps you could produce a drug that inhibits proper folding of the CFTR protein

Prevents the activation of A1, prevents the locking of GTP

Part III

7) Shriveled skin- cells are in hypertonic solution, water from blood goes to intestinal epithelial

cells, and water from skin goes to blood stream.

8) allows for increase in water inside cell, isotonic solution should be administered. Also re-

establishes right blood volume to increase blood pressure to normal levels.

9) want to get ion concentrations back in equilibrium

10) Glucose based solution works better because with an electrolyte solution, you’re just

increasing the number of Cl- ions. Need glucose to initiate ion transport in intestines

11) intestinal epithelial cells are affected, so IV allows for other cells to be affected.

Part IV

12) Antibiotics were not the first line of treatment for Bedeline because it’s the toxin that’s

already in the cell, and the actual bacteria plays no role in the manifestation of the infection.

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Document Summary

Part 1: cholera is found in feces-contaminated water or food sources. It is mostly spread via poor sanitation and hygiene. Part ii: same as the cholera toxin pathway. She"s dehydrated because her cells are in a hypertonic solution. Water in cell leaves to area of high solute conc, resulting in cell shrinkage: perhaps you could produce a drug that inhibits proper folding of the cftr protein. Prevents the activation of a1, prevents the locking of gtp. Part iii: shriveled skin- cells are in hypertonic solution, water from blood goes to intestinal epithelial cells, and water from skin goes to blood stream, allows for increase in water inside cell, isotonic solution should be administered. Need glucose to initiate ion transport in intestines: intestinal epithelial cells are affected, so iv allows for other cells to be affected. Ligand (steroid hormones) bind to external receptor (attached to g protein).

Related Questions

1. Which cellular processes occur as a consequence of differential control of gene expression in eukaryotic cells?

a) Cell Differentiation

b) Differential Translation

c) Differential Polymerization

d) Differential DNA Replication

e) Differential tRNA Degradation

2) Multicellular organisms are comprised of a variety of cells with different morphologies and different functions. Which is the underlying mechanism that leads to the generation of diverse cell in one organism?

a) The expression of all genes in all cell types.

b) The duplication of the genome in certain cell types.

c) The elimination of specific group of genes from different cell types.

d) The differential expression of particular sets of genes required for a particular cellular phenotype

e) All of the above

3) Which of these statements defines paracrine cell signaling?

a)		A messenger molecule released into the blood stream to bind to a receptor on a cell far away from the release site.
b)		A messenger molecule released by a cell into the extracellular space that binds to receptors on the surface of the same cell.
c)		A messenger molecules released by a cell into the extracellular space that travels short distances to bind to a receptor in a nearby cell.
d)		A messenger molecule release by a tissue into the lumen of an organ that diffuse to bind to receptors far away from the release site.
e)		All of the above.

4) Which effect has the binding of the ligand to a G-protein coupled receptor on intracellular G-protein?

a)		ATP is hydrolyzed, activating phosphorylation
b)		GTP is exchanged for GDP on the G protein, inactivating the G protein
c)		GDP is exchanged for GTP on the G protein, activating the G protein
d)		GMP is released from the G-protein, inactivating the receptor
e)		None of the above

coffeehippopotamus191

1) What clinical manifestation do Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis share? A) nosocomial infections B) protein A antiphagocytic factor C) hyaluronidase enzyme D) enterotoxins E) staphylokinase 2) Which of the following has been historically classified as Gram-negative bacteria but is genetically more similar to low G + C Gram-positive bacteria? A) mycoplasmas B) Mycobacterium C) Clostridium D) Propionibacterium E) Nocardia 3) What is one virulence factor that differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other species of staphylococci? A) It has a capsule. B) It can produce coagulase. C) It produces catalase. D) It can live on the surface of the skin and in cutaneous oil glands. E) It produces lipase. 4) Over 90% of Staphylococcus aureus isolates are penicillin-resistant. Why? A) They have loosely organized polysaccharide slime layers. B) They produce coagulase. C) Cell division occurs in successively different planes, and the daughter cells remain attached to one another. D) They produce Î²-lactamase. E) They produce staphylokinase, which dissolves fibrin threads in blood clots. 5) A woman comes to the emergency department with fever and vomiting. She soon develops a red rash all over her body, and her blood pressure begins to drop. What is one possible diagnosis? A) erysipelas C) scarlet fever B) endocarditis D) toxic shock syndrome E) staphylococcal food poisoning 6) Bacteria collected from a severely inflamed wound are sent to the lab for analysis. The results come back as follows: Gram-positive cocci in irregular clusters, kinase and coagulase positive, and able to grow in the presence of most antibiotics except vancomycin. The bacteria in the wound are most likely _______ A) Enterococcus. C) Staphylococcus aureus. B) Staphylococcus epidermidis. D) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). E) Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococcus). 7) Which of the following statements about "flesh-eating" streptococci is FALSE? A) It is caused by a group A streptococcus. B) It is also known as necrotizing fasciitis because it travels along the fascia. C) It causes death in over 50% of cases. D) It is considered a common complication of pyoderma. E) It involves toxemia. 8) Streptococcus agalactiae is associated with which of the following diseases? A) neonatal bacteremia B) neonatal meningitis C) neonatal pneumonia D) both neonatal bacteremia and neonatal meningitis E) neonatal bacteremia, neonatal meningitis, and neonatal pneumonia 9) What differentiates virulent strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae from nonvirulent strains? A) the species-specific teichoic acid present in its cell wall B) the type of Lancefield antigen it produces C) the presence of a polysaccharide capsule that protects it from digestion after endocytosis D) the type of toxins it produces E) the extent of the hemolytic zone it produces when it is grown on blood agar 10) Otitis media may lead to dangerous meningitis in children due to infection with _____ A) Streptococcus agalactiae. B) Streptococcus pneumoniae. C) Streptococcus mutans. D) Enterococcus. E) Mycoplasma pneumoniae. 11) Which of the following streptococci is associated with dental caries? A) viridans streptococci B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Streptococcus equisimilis E) Streptococcus arginosus 12) Anthrax, which means "charcoal" in Greek, derives its name from _____ A) the airborne endospores it produces. B) the staining properties of the bacillus under the microscope. C) the black eschars it produces on human skin. D) its ability to invade the bloodstream and produce toxemia. E) the high mortality it causes in infected individuals. 13) Which of the following bacteria produce one of the most deadly bacterial toxins known? A) Clostridium perfringens C) Clostridium tetani B) Clostridium difficile D) Clostridium botulinum E) Corynebacterium species 14) Which of the following bacteria can cause life-threatening pseudomembranous colitis? A) Clostridium difficile B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) Enterococcus species E) Clostridium botulinum 15) How does the toxin from Clostridium tetani produce its action? A) It fuses irreversibly to neuronal cytoplasmic membranes, blocking release of acetylcholine at synaptic clefts. B) The smaller polypeptide of its toxin can block the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters by inhibitory neurons in the central nervous system, causing simultaneous contraction of both muscles in an antagonistic pair. C) It is a pyrogenic toxin, which triggers a diffused rash and, later, sloughing of skin. D) It destroys tissues, including muscle and fat. E) It produces antibodies that attack the neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscle and prevent them from relaxing. 16) Listeria virulence is directly related to its ability to ______ A) produce powerful toxins. B) form very resistant endospores. C) live within cells and thus avoid exposure to the immune system of its host. D) easily become a pathogen in humans. E) resist most antimicrobial agents. 17) The pus from an abscess in a patient's jaw contains microbes that form yellowish grainy masses and appear filamentous under the microscope. Neither antifungal medication nor a normal course of antibiotics has been effective in treating the infection. The abscess is likely the result of infection with A) Actinomyces. B) Mycobacterium. C) Nocardia. D) Propionibacterium. E) Streptococcus. 18) What is the most common disease caused by Propionibacterium? A) acne B) food poisoning C) pneumonitis D) folliculitis 19) Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause of ______ A) acne. C) pharyngitis B) furuncles. D) primary atypical pneumonia. E) otitis media. 20) The soil bacterium Nocardia asteroides can establish opportunistic infections of the _____ A) skin C) central nervous system B) lungs D) cardiovascular system. E) skin, lungs, and central nervous system

bronzegoldfish853

The vesicles that transport materials from donor membranes to acceptor membranes include:

	1.	COP-II coated vesicles
	2.	COP-III coated vesicles
	3.	COP-I coated vesicles
	4.	Clathrin coated vesicles

2.5 points

QUESTION 11

During skeletal muscle contraction, the roles of ATP include:

	1.	ATP is not required for forming the crossbridges between myosin and actin filaments.
	2.	ATP is utilized as a structural linker to mediate the interaction between myosin and actin filaments
	3.	Hydrolysis of ATP provides energy for myosin head to move along actin filaments and the binding of ATP to myosin head allows the detachment of myosin fromactin filaments.
	4.	ATP binds to actin filaments to drive the power stroke of myosin head.

2.5 points

QUESTION 12

One of the functions of smooth endoplasmic reticulum is

	1.	Synthesizing steroid hormone in the endocrine cells of the gonad and adrenal cortex
	2.	Serves as the starting point of the biosynthetic pathway
	3.	Synthesizing secretory proteins
	4.	Degrading cell debris

2.5 points

QUESTION 13

The function of COP-II coated vesicles is mainly:

	1.	Transporting materials from endosomes to Golgi complex
	2.	Moving materials from the ER to the ERGIC and Golgi complex.
	3.	Transporting materials from Golgi complex back to endoplasmic reticulum.
	4.	Involved in receptor-mediated endocytosis.

2.5 points

QUESTION 14

Which of the following processes is completed in rough endoplasmic reticulum?

	1.	Chaperones help misfolded proteins fold correctly.
	2.	Proteins that target to nucleus are synthesized in rough endoplasmic reticulum.
	3.	O-linked glycosylation occurs in rough endoplasmic reticulum.
	4.	Misfolded proteins are destructed in rough endoplamic reticulum.

2.5 points

QUESTION 15

Kinesin is the motor protein that coorporates with microtubules. It has the following functions:

	1.	It uses GTP as energy source.
	2.	It can hydrolyze ATP and use the energy to drive cargo along microtubules from minus end to plus end.
	3.	It has a globular head that can act as GTPase
	4.	The tail of kinesin is more diverse and binds to cargo

2.5 points

QUESTION 16

For correct segregation and trafficking, lysosomal proteins are tagged in the cis-Golgi with phosphorylated mannose residues, and then the tagged lysosomal enzymes are recruited to clathrin coated vesicles by mannose 6-phosphate receptors.

True

False

2.5 points

QUESTION 17

The process that specialized cells, such macrophages, engulf relatively large particles is:

	1.	Called pinocytosis
	2.	Called phagocytosis
	3.	Mediated by COP-II coated vesicles
	4.	Called autophagy

2.5 points

QUESTION 18

Proteins synthesized on rough endoplasmic reticulum and smooth endoplasmic reticulum are imported co-translationally to their destinations

True

False

2.5 points

QUESTION 19

Treatment of cells with a drug that promotes microtubule disassembly disperses Golgi complex into separate stacks of membrane compartments, suggesting that:

	1.	Golgi complex is made of microtubules.
	2.	Microtubules are important for the organization of Golgi complex.
	3.	Microtubules are transported into Golgi complex
	4.	Golgi complex is composed of tubulin proteins

2.5 points

QUESTION 20

Which of the following is correct about signal sequence of a secretory protein?

	1.	It is an âaddress codesâ for protein trafficking pathways
	2.	It is usually located at the C-terminus.
	3.	It targets the ribosome and the protein that is being synthesized to endoplasmic reticulum.
	4.	It is removed in Golgi complex.

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CAS BI 203 Study Guide - Quiz Guide: Adenylyl Cyclase, Cholera Toxin, Cholera

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