01:377:324 Study Guide - Final Guide: Exercise Prescription, Aerobic Exercise, Insulin Resistance

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purpleant173

29 May 2019

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Type 2 diabetes is the most common form of diabetes. Patients with this condition have an insulin resistance where their body does not use insulin appropriately. Initially, the pancreas generates more insulin to account for this, however, throughout time, it is unable to sustain proper blood glucose levels. Patients with type 2 diabetes should utilize exercise in their treatment plans because it aids in regulating blood glucose. If you exercise with type 2 diabetes, these levels should be in the correct range. This is essential to prevent any long-term issues, such a heart disease (leontis). Goal: the exercise prescription goal with a patient with type 2 diabetes is to regulate blood glucose levels. The patients should exercise for a minimum of 30 minutes most days out of the week. Exercise should be accompanied with a healthy diet. I will suggest that those with type 2 diabetes exercise daily, if possible, for 30 minutes.

Related Questions

10. The organs associated with the Alimentary Canal share which similarity/similarities? They all belong to the lymphatic system They all belong to the gastrointestinal system Food does not pass directly through them during the process of digestion Food does pass directly through them during the process of digestion Both B and D \

11. Of the five basic functions of the digestive system, which one occurs first? Excretion Absorption Ingestion Peristalsis Digestion

12. The elimination of indigestible material from the body is called _______________. Peristalsis Absorption Defecation Ingestion

13. The pancreas helps to regulate metabolism and blood sugar levels through the release of insulin. Insulin tells the liver to stop sugar production to keep levels regulated within the blood stream. If a personâs pancreas does not function properly, they have a condition called diabetes, a metabolic disease that often requires monitoring of oneâs diet. People with Type 1 Diabetes have a pancreas with damaged islet cells, meaning no insulin is produced. People with Type 2 Diabetes have a pancreas that produces insulin properly, but their cells are resistant to this insulin due to various factors that often include but are not limited to obesity, lack of exercise, or poor diet choices. Certain foods, specifically starches and sugars, affect diabetics in different ways. Type 1 diabetics must limit their consumption of sugars in order to keep their blood sugar levels stable. Type 1 diabetics often achieve regulation of blood sugars through injections of insulin. Type 2 diabetics must still pay attention to their diets, but not all of them are dependent on manual injections of insulin. Because Type 2 Diabetes is often brought on through a poor diet, Type 2 diabetics are advised to monitor their food choices to prevent weight gain and achieve a more balanced diet overall. Approximately 90% of Americans with diabetes have Type 2. Which are contributing factors to developing Type 1 Diabetes? Poor liver function Poor pancreatic function Sedentary lifestyle All of the above

14. There are five activities that occur within the gastrointestinal system: â¢ Ingestion â the taking in of food or drink â¢ Peristalsis â the movement of food along the digestive tract â¢ Digestion â the breakdown of food and drink by both mechanical and chemical mechanisms â¢ Absorption â the passage of food into the cardiovascular and lymphatic systems â¢ Defecation â the elimination of substances the body canât use Many digestive disorders and diseases can be tied to an activity within the gastrointestinal system. For example, inflammation of the digestive tract, commonly known as inflammatory bowel disease, is an example of a gastrointestinal activity breakdown. An inflamed digestive tract means digestion is painful and hindered in some way, affecting the rest of the gastrointestinal activities coming after it. An inability to break down lactose, or âlactose intolerance,â is another example of a breakdown that can occur within the gastrointestinal system. Another example of a breakdown in gastrointestinal activities is an eating disorder, where food is either withheld or ingested at a fast rate. Some disorders include the elimination of food through vomit, in essence reversing some of the activities of the gastrointestinal system. A final example of a breakdown in gastrointestinal activities is constipation, which can often lead to further problems such as bowel impaction if not corrected immediately. A balanced diet is recommended to keep the gastrointestinal system functioning properly, and many over the counter medications can help to correct some breakdowns if caught early enough. Foodborne illness, or food poisoning, happens when spoiled or contaminated food is consumed. A common symptom of food poisoning is vomiting. Though microbes can move from the stomach and into the intestines after vomiting occurs, the food itself gets thrown up, stopping its travel through the gastrointestinal system. During which activity is the food thrown up? Peristalsis Absorption Ingestion Digestion

15. The skin is a vital organ that covers the entire outside of the body, forming a protective barrier against pathogens and injuries from the environment. The skin is the body's largest organ; covering the entire outside of the body, it is about 2 mm thick and weighs approximately six pounds. It shields the body against heat, light, injury, and infection. The skin also helps regulate body temperature, gathers sensory information from the environment, stores water, fat, and vitamin D, and plays a role in the immune system protecting us from disease. The color, thickness and texture of skin vary over the body. There are two general types of skin; thin and hairy, which is more prevalent on the body, and thick and hairless, which is found on parts of the body that are used heavily and endure a large amount of friction, like the palms of the hands or the soles of the feet. Basically, the skin is comprised of two layers that cover a third fatty layer. These three layers differ in function, thickness, and strength. The outer layer is called the epidermis; it is a tough protective layer that contains the melanin-producing melanocytes. The second layer (located under the epidermis) is called the dermis; it contains nerve endings, sweat glands, oil glands, and hair follicles. Under these two skin layers is a fatty layer of subcutaneous tissue, known as the subcutis or hypodermis. The skin contains many specialized cells and structures: â¢ Basket Cells: Basket cells surround the base of hair follicles and can sense pressure. They are evaluated when assessing overall nerve health and condition. â¢ Blood Vessels: Blood vessels carry nutrients and oxygen-rich blood to the cells that make up the layers of skin and carry away waste products. â¢ Hair Erector Muscle (Arrector Pili Muscle): The arrector pili muscle is a tiny muscle connected to each hair follicle and the skin. When it contracts it causes the hair to stand erect, and a "goosebump" forms on the skin. â¢ Hair Follicle: The hair follicle is a tube-shaped sheath that surrounds the part of the hair that is under the skin and nourishes the hair. It is located in the epidermis and the dermis. â¢ Hair Shaft: The hair shaft is the part of the hair that is above the skin. â¢ Langerhans Cells: These cells attach themselves to antigens that invade damaged skin and alert the immune system to their presence. â¢ Melanocyte: A melanocyte is a cell that produces melanin, and is located in the basal layer of the epidermis. â¢ Merkel Cells: Merkel cells are tactile cells of neuroectodermal origin located in the basal layer of the epidermis. â¢ Pacinian Corpuscle: A pacinian corpuscle is a nerve receptor located in the subcutaneous fatty tissue that responds to pressure and vibration. â¢ Sebaceous Gland: Sebaceous glands are small, sack-shaped glands which release an oily substance onto the hair follicle that coats and protects the hair shaft from becoming brittle. These glands are located in the dermis. â¢ Sensory Nerves: The epidermis is innervated with sensory nerves. These nerves sense and transmit heat, pain, and other noxious sensations. When they are not functioning properly sensations such as numbness, pins-and-needles, pain, tingling, or burning may be felt. When evaluating a skin biopsy, total number, contiguity, diameter, branching, swelling, and overall health of the sensory nerves are assessed. â¢ Stratum Corneum: The stratum corneum is outermost layer of the epidermis, and is comprised of dead skin cells. It protects the living cells beneath it by providing a tough barrier between the environment and the lower layers of the skin. The stratum corneum is useful for diagnosis because in some conditions it will become thinner than normal. â¢ Sweat Gland (Sudoriferous Gland): These glands are located in the epidermis and produce moisture (sweat) that is secreted through tiny ducts onto the surface of the skin (stratum corneum). When sweat evaporates, skin temperature is lowered. If you use a product to moisturize your hair, which part of the integumentary system are you targeting? Hair follicle Hair shaft Blood vessels Melanocyte

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Q37 Research indicates more than 90 % of the deaths occur in older adult 65 and older due to lack of appropriate immunizations on which annual vaccination should the nurse first instruct the patient?

A Pneumonia

B Varicella

C TDAP

D influenza

Q38 which strategies of care would be least likely to enhance the physical function of older adult choose? Choose 2 answers

A weight control

B hearing and vision screening

C smoking cessation

D illness management

E forcing them to attend all activities

Q39 what are common risk factors that contribute to functional decline in the older adult population?

A physical inactivity

B tobacco use

C low sodium dietary intake

D having small families

Q40 what principle is least related to promoting health and preventing certain disabilities in older adults?

A continue activities of daily life (ADLs)

B Maintain as active a lifestyle as possible and desired

C Monitor illnesses through annual health screening ( AHS)

D keep up on assistive and information technology and other tools

Q41 Which focusing on the psychosocial needs of older adults, authorVirginia satir recommends that Healthcare providers get back to the basic communication. whatare the five basic principles satir describes?

A invite

B follow through

C respect personal space

D maximize understanding

E Arrange environment

F maximize attention levels

G trust

H maximize communication

Q42 how do electronic health records facilitate better care coordination? Choose 2 answers

A saving time typing rather than writing

B increasing the accuracy of diagnosis and health outcomes

C preventing an increase in the number of medical errors

D improving communication among health providers

Q43 Rick a 91 year old male, hasa history of chronic otitis media and is experiencing mild hearing loss in hisright ear,what type of assistive technology would Rick use to improve communicative function?

A icon communication board

B behind the ear ( BTE) hearing aid

C Augmentive and alternative communication ( AAC)

D completely in the canal ( CIC) hearing aid

Q 44 An elderly patient has suffered a stroke and is currently in the process of transitioning out of the hospital and into an assisted living facility. The patient's primary diffulty after the stroke is dealing with dysarthria, whichhas limited the patient's ability to speak. whatcommunication technology would appropriately promote an optimal transition of care for the patient?

A an over the ear (OTE) hearing aid

B an augmentation and alternative communication ( AAC) device

C an assistive listening device ( ALD)

D an analog technology to amplify sound

Q45 what must the nurse inform the patient and family or caregivers about assistive devices? Choose 2 answers

A may lessen the importance of ongoing communication with healthcare providers.

B they may result in complete recovery from chronic illness

C they may limit complications of an illness or disability.

D they may enable independent performance and reduce risk of injury.

Q46 An 81 year old Patient has multiple chronic conditions including uncontrolled hypertension and peripheral artery disease and agrees to try assertive devices for monitoring blood pressure and improving circulation provided by a home health agency. Choose 2 answers

A allowing the patient enough time and opportunity for repetition

B only presenting the most relevant content to the patient.

C refraining from suggesting mnemonic devices to Aid the patients use of Technology

D having an outside educator provide several hours of detailed device instructions

Q47 A goal of the National Health Initiative healthy people 2010 is to increase the quality and extend the years of healthy life. What are two ways that this initiative can achieve its goal? Choose 2 answers

A by pressuring older adults who are lonely to move to nursing homes at younger ages

B By encouraging people to have more children so that the children can help their parents as they grow older

C by helping people overcome views of denial and foreboding as old age approaches

D by trying to spread the view that aging is natural and need not include illness and disease

Q48 match each government program with its description. Answer options may be used more than once or not at all

A provide health insurance for low-income families

B bases basic benefits on a workers average indexed monthly earnings in covered employment

C offers a payment system for long-term care ( LTC) foreligible older Americans and persons with disabilities

D is the health insurance program for those 65 or other people with disabilities

Q49 a senior is being cared for by her daughter. The daughter works a full-time job and is only able to care for her mother before she goes to work. On her lunch break, andafter she gets off work. thesenior expresses to a nurse that she gets lonely during the day and sometimes cannot perform tasks by herself.which community resource should the nurse recommend looking into?

A a local Health Clinic

B Day Care Services for Seniors

C a medication assistance program

D Meals on Wheels.

Q50 the Independence at home demonstration was created by the Affordable Care Act. Which statement is true regarding Primary Care teams participating in this initiative?

A the teams are led by a licensed administrator

B the teams must serve at least 500 Medicare beneficiaries.

C the teams be led by a physician.

D the teams can be lead by a nurse practitioner.

Q51 which important facts about Medicare should nurses know? Choose 2 answers

A Medicare requires income assessment in order to qualify for coverage

B Medicare cover assisted living services for Americans in extreme poverty.

C Medicare recipients range from those simply needing Wellness services to those who are profoundly Frail.

D Medicare covers certain disabled Americans who have not reached age eligibility.

Q52 what is a common preventable error that can occur during the transition of care for older adults?

A unhelpful Hospital staff B inaccurate medication reconciliation.

C disorganized dosing schedule

D lost nursing equipment.

Q53 how is communication further facilitated? Choose 2 answers

A through communication to between and among the patients family caregivers and health care providers

B through active engagement of patients and family caregivers with a focus on meeting the patients goals

C through reliance on use of text messages that are less disruptive to the patient and family.

D through Healthcare Providers conversing with the patient and allowing the patient speak with the family.

Q54 what are appropriate evaluation measures related to successful transitions of care? Choose 2 answers

A emotional and social domains of quality of life.

B all clinical indicators related to Chronic conditions.

C functional status

D exclusion of nursing sensitive measures.

Q55 a critical competency in geriatric nursing is the ability to assess family knowledge of the skills necessary in the care of older adults. What Broad caregiver competencies are included in this assessment?

A knowing the science behind the scenes of geriatrics

B allowing the active participation of the patient in all aspects of care.

C balancing the patient autonomy with safety

D knowing how to safely start an IV.

Q56 what Communications techniques promote safe transition of care in patients with aphasia?

A respond in the affirmative when a question is asked

B speak softer so as to never have a harsh tone

C give the patient time to speak

D use non-verbal gestures to communicate.

Q57 what roles of the nurse protect the patient from harm in a care transition?

A symptom manager,educator, collaborator, carecoordinator.

B medication manager screener educator listener

C liasson with Hospital decision maker collaborator coordinator

D decision maker Symptom Manager care coordinator.

Q58 which statements are true regarding health-related quality of life? Choose 2 answers

A cannot be measured in persons with chronic illness

B is measured by and object Observer, basedon the number of times an individual emits both verbal signs of happiness and well-being

C is measured by individuals perceived healthy days per month.

D can be measured by an instrument developed by the center of Disease Control (CDC)

Q59 several options are available as a care approaches to chronic illness care. Which method best describes palliative care?

A care that is only delivered by family or other personal caregivers

B end-of-life care that suspends active treatment

C a combination of active treatment and comfort measures

D a continued focus on here rather than comfort and quality of life.

Q60 A nurse caring for people at the end of their lives knows that Dysnea is relatively common and interferes with patients'comfort and rest. What is the evidence based intervention for shortness of breath?

A liquid morphine at starting dose of 10 mg every 4 hours and titrating dose upward until dyspnea is relieved.

B administer O2 at least 5 liters per minute

C 5 mg of liquid morphine every 4 hours,along with lorazepam 0.5-2.0 mg every 4-6 hours PRN for anxiety and restlessness.

D elevate the head of the bed no more than 20 degrees.

Q61 what do dying persons typically experience grief over?

A loss of bodily function and independence that occurs as illness becomes more prevalent

B loss ability to give and receive love

C loss of basic beliefs,values and faith.

D the feeling that nobody cares that the person is dying.

Q62 which of the following is often the biggest barrier to overcome in crucial conversations to death and dying?

A mistrust of healthcare providers

B lack of energy

C societal attitudes about death

D cost of care

Q63 The End of life Nursing Education consortium (ELNEC) is a resource targeted to nurse providing end of life care that supports evidence based care of dying patients and their families,as well as self care that lessens stress and anxiety and sustains nurse in providing excellent end of life care. Which of the following are self care principles? Choose 2 answers

A maintaining professional boundaries and relationships with patients and families, by tightly controlling feelings and empathy

B. Making good use of the expertise and support of the interprofessional care team

C. Diminishing attention on maintaining an active personal life since end-of-life care is a callings of sorts

D. Developing expertise in symptom management, which not only helps patients and their families, but increases satisfaction and lessens anxiety among professional caregivers

Q64. In addition to a living will, advanced directives may also include a durable power of attorney that encompasses health care related decision making. Which two of the following are accurate so statements regarding the legal instrument known as the durable power of attorney?

A. The alternative decision maker must be a close relative of a dying persons in order to understand his or her wishes.

B. It allows for an alternative decision maker in the event that the dying persons is incapacitated and no longer able to make health care decision

C. The living will remains a useful tool in providing direction to the alternate decision maker.

D. A durable power of attorney for health care decision also enables the alternative decision maker to also handle finances and other legal matters.

01:377:324 Study Guide - Final Guide: Exercise Prescription, Aerobic Exercise, Insulin Resistance

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