ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY EXAM II
Date: November 5, 2010
Directions: Place the correct answers for the following 70 questions on the bubble sheet. A sheet is also
included at the end for you to write your answers for your own reference. Good luck!
1. Epinephrine is released from
A) preganglionic sympathetic neurons.
B) preganglionic parasympathetic neurons.
C) the adrenal gland.
D) postganglionic sympathetic neurons.
E) postganglionic parasympathetic neurons.
2. All of the following hormones act directly at intracellular receptors EXCEPT
E) growth hormone.
3. Which effect reduces the cytosolic calcium concentration?
A) increased inositol triphosphate production.
B) increased diacylglycerol production.
C) protein kinase C inhibition.
D) phospolipase C activation.
E) alpha -1drenoceptor activation.
4. A hormone that increases milk production is released from the
B) anterior pituitary lobe.
C) posterior pituitary lobe.
D) adrenal medulla.
E) adrenal cortex.
5. Which statement is FALSE regarding G-proteins?
A) G-protein activation can lead to an increase in second messenger concentration.
B) G-protein activation can lead to a decrease in second messenger concentration.
C) G-proteins are in their active state when they are bound to GDP.
D) G-proteins are located inside the cell.
E) G-proteins are activated by a hormone binding to a cell surface receptor.
6. Which of the following is NOT normally associated with Type II diabetes?
C) excessive thirst
D) reduction in insulin production by the pancreas
E) insulin receptor insensitivity
1 7. A tumor that produces excessive secretion of a hormone from the ____________ would cause Cushing's
A) zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex.
B) zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex.
C) zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex.
D) chromaffin cells located in the adrenal medulla.
A) produces primarily anabolic effects.
B) inhibits glucose output from the liver.
C) increases the breakdown of fats into fatty acids.
D) inhibits the breakdown of proteins into amino acids.
E) inhibits gluconeogenesis.
9. Which hormone is matched INCORRECTLY with its site of synthesis?
A) insulin: beta cells
B) glucagon: alpha cells
C) growth hormone: posterior pituitary gland
D) corticotropin: anterior pituitary gland
E) aldosterone: adrenal cortex
10. Diabetes insipidus is
A) characterized by decreased urine production.
B) caused by decreased insulin production.
C) caused by reduced numbers of insulin receptors.
D) caused by reduced vasopressin activity.
E) characterized by excess glucose in the urine.
11. Which disease is correctly matched to one of its causes?
A) acromegaly: overproduction of growth hormone before puberty
B) acromegaly: underproduction of insulin-like growth factor before puberty
C) Pituitary dwarfism: underproduction of insulin-like growth factor before puberty
D) Addison’s disease: overproduction of glucocorticoids.
E) adrenogential syndrome: underproduction of androgens in males
A) is more potent than tri-iodothyronine.
B) is secreted from the thyroid gland in greater quantities than tri-iodothyronine.
C) activates receptors located on the surface of cell membranes.
D) inhibits sympathetic activity.
E) requires cholesterol for its synthesis.
13. Pheochromocytoma will directly lead to all of the following effects EXCEPT an
A) increased concentration of epinephrine in the blood.
B) increased concentration of norepinephrine in the blood.
C) increased activation of beta 1adrenoceptors.
D) increased activation of muscarinic receptors.
E) increased activation of alpha 1adrenoceptors.
2 14. Activation of _________ is linked directly to a suppression of PKA activity.
A) alpha -1drenoceptors
B) alpha -2drenoceptors
C) beta -adrenoceptors
D) beta 2adrenoceptors
E) muscarinic r1ceptors
15. Which metabolic effect of growth hormone is described as an “anti-insulin” effect?
A) increased protein synthesis in skeletal muscle cells
B) increased fat degradation
C) increased amino acid uptake by skeletal muscle cells
D) decreased protein degradation in skeletal muscle cells
E) increased activation of osteoblasts
16. Insulin is released from the pancreas in response to all of the following stimuli EXCEPT
A) an elevation in blood glucose concentration.
B) parasympathetic activation.
C) an elevation in blood glucocorticoid concentration.
D) an elevation in blood amino acid concentration.
17. Synthesis and maturation of erythrocytes is enhanced by all of the following EXCEPT
D) Vitamin B . 12
E) intrinsic factor.
18. A hormone that is synthesized in the hypothalamus and released from the posterior lobe of the pituitary
A) growth hormone.
C) thyrotropin (thyroid stimulating hormone).
19. A portal system transports hormones from the
A) hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary gland.
B) hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary gland.
C) hypothalamus to the adrenal cortex.
D) posterior pituitary gland to the hypothalamus.
E) anterior pituitary gland to the hypothalamus.
20. The following pairs consist of an enzyme and a substance formed by the catalytic action of the enzyme.
Which pair is matched INCORRECTLY?
A) phospholipase A : arachidonic acid
B) lipoxygenase: leukotrienes
C) phospholipase C: diacylglycerol
D) protein kinase C: inositol triphosphate
E) phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase (PNMT): epinephrine
3 21. A patient with hypothyroidism
A) could suffer from Grave’s disease.
B) would likely display intolerance to cold temperatures.
C) would likely display an increased metabolic rate.
D) would likely display an increase in red blood cell count.
E) would likely display exaggerated sympathetic effects.
22. Glucose uptake by the ____________ transporter located on _______ is dependent on insulin.
A) GLUT-1; skeletal muscle cells
B) GLUT-2; fat cells
C) GLUT-2; skeletal muscle cells
D) GLUT-4; skeletal muscle cells
E) GLUT-4; neurons
23. A cell that displays automaticity because of its inability to maintain a stable resting membrane
A) located in skeletal muscle tissue.
B) located in the hypothalamus.
C) a contractile cell in the wall of the atria.
D) a contractile cell in the wall of the ventricle.
E) located in the sinoatrial node.
24. Regurgitation, or the backward flow of blood, occurs between the left atria and left ventricle. Which
heart valve is involved in this problem?
A) aortic valve
B) pulmonic valve
C) mitral valve
D) tricuspid valve
E) Walker’s valve
25. Which mechanism would shorten the refractory period of the action potential in a contractile cell?
A) blockade of T-type calcium channels
B) blockade of L-type calcium channels
C) blockade of voltage-gated K channels
D) none of the above
E) all of the above
26. Which vessel transports predominantly deoxygenated blood?
A) ascending aorta
B) descending aorta
C) pulmonary artery
D) pulmonary vein
E) right coronary artery
27. Which protein does not play a significant role in the physiology of cells located in the SA node?
A) voltage-gated sodium channels
B) L-type calcium channels
C) T-type calcium channels
D) voltage-gated potassium channels
E) passive or “leak” sodium channels
4 28. Which statement is TRUE regarding the “T wave” of the EKG?
A) Ventricular depolarization is responsible for the T wave.
B) The atria are contracting and the ventricles are relaxing at the T wave.
C) The atria are relaxing and the ventricles are contracting at the T wave.
D) Both the atria and ventricles are contracting at the T wave.
E) Both the atria and ventricles are relaxing at the T wave.
29. A patient with enlarged ventricles (cardiac hypertrophy) would display a(n) __________ on the EKG.
A) enlarged P wave.
B) enlarged QRS complex.
C) enlarged T wave.
D) shorter PR interval.
E) longer PR interval.
30. A block in the cardiac conduction pathway at the AV node presents as a ____________ on the EKG.
A) shorter than normal PR interval
B) longer than normal PR interval
C) shorter than normal QT interval
D) longer than normal QT interval
E) larger T wave
31. The action potential of which cell displays the longest refractory period?
B) skeletal muscle cell
C) pacemaker cell
D) contractile cell
E) smooth muscle cell
32. Which factor opposes platelet aggregation?
A) TXA 2
E) calcium ions
33. Which clotting factor is the substrate for the enzyme thrombin and precursor for fibrin synthesis?
34. An increased risk of bleeding in patients would be associated with each condition EXCEPT
A) vitamin K deficiency.
B) von Willebrand factor deficiency.
C) inadequate thrombin synthesis.
D) overproduction of TXA synthetase.
E) inadequate synthesis of GPIIB/IIIA receptors.
5 35. Which substance is matched INCORRECTLY with one of its functions?
A) plasmin: fibrin hydrolysis
B) urokinase: inhibition of TPA
C) cyclic AMP/ protein kinase A: inhibition of platelet aggregation
D) serotonin: smooth muscle contraction
E) ADP: platelet recruitment
36. The mechanism of action that best explains the anti-platelet effect of aspirin is
A) irreversible inhibition of COX-1.
B) reversible inhibition of COX-1.
C) irreversible inhibition of COX-2.
D) reversible inhibition of COX-2.
E) inhibition of phospolipase A .
37. Heparin acts directly on __________ to _________ thrombin activity.
A) thrombomodulin; reduce
B) thrombomodulin; increase
C) anti-thrombin III; reduce
D) anti-thrombin III; increase
E) plasmin; reduce
38. The overall process of platelet aggregation is favored when the local concentration of
A) TXA and2PGI are e2ual.
B) TXA is 2reater than PGI . 2
C) TXA is 2ess than PGI . 2
39. Platelets are initially linked to damaged blood vessels when _________ binds to __________
A) fibrinogen; GPIIb/IIIa
B) fibrinogen; GPIb
C) von Willebrand factor; GPIIb/IIIa
D) von Willebrand factor; GPIb
E) prothrombin; GPIb
40. A cell depends on both the influx of calcium from the extracellular compartment and the release of
calcium from intracellular organelles to contract. The ce