ECON 110 Chapter Notes - Chapter 19: Canadian Dollar, Apperception, Nominal Interest Rate

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Chapter 19 what macroeconomic is all about. Macroeconomics: the study of the determination of economic aggregates, such as total output, total employment, the price level, and the rate of economic growth. A full understanding of macroeconomics requires understanding the nature of short-run fluctuations as well as the nature of long-run economic growth. One of the most important ideas in economics that the production of output generates income. Nominal national income: total national income measured in current dollars. Real national income: national income measured in constant (base-period) dollars. Business cycle: fluctuations of national income around its trend vale that follow a more or less wavelike pattern. Potential output (y*): the real gdp that the economy would produce if its productive resources were employed at their normal levels of utilization. Output gap: actual national income minus potential national income, y y*. Potential output is the level of output produced when factors of production are employed at their normal intensity of use.

Related Questions

1. An economic system is

a. a set of institutional arrangements used to allocate scarce resources.

b. the movement of capital between countries.

c. how wealth is distributed and created in a country.

d. the natural resource available.

e. none of the above.

2. Contemporary economic change in Eastern Europe was preceded by

a. declining economic performance.

b. political change.

c. the withdrawal of Soviet backing.

d. all of the above.

3. Prior to the onset of economic reform in the late 1980s, the Soviet Union and most Eastern European countries allocated resources primarily by means of

a. Markets.

b. national economic plans.

c. neither a nor b.

d. both a and b.

4. Prices in the planned socialist systems were generally set by

a. supply and demand forces in the market.

b. the state.

c. external forces through international trade.

d. none of the above.

5. A major political change in the former planned socialist economies has been

a. the end of the political domination of Communist regimes.

b. the strengthening of the Communist regimes in combination with economic decentralization.

c. the full implementation of Western-style democracy.

d. all of the above.

6. The modern approach to defining economic systems

a. is based on the âismsâ of capitalism and socialism.

b. emphasizes resource allocation arrangements over incentive systems.

c. defines economic systems according to a number of characteristics.

d. states that defining economic systems is impossible.

e. none of the above.

7. The major attributes of an economic system are

a. its population and capital resources.

b. its level of GDP.

c. its level of GDP per capita.

d. its economic policies.

e. none of the above.

8. One very important characteristic of organizations in the comparing of economic systems is

a. the nature of economies of scale.

b. whether they exhibit capitalism or socialism.

c. the use of computers in the organization.

d. the level of centralization or decentralization of decisions.

e. none of the above.

9. A planned economy is one in which

a. subunits are coordinated by directives formulated by a superior agency.

b. subunits are not induced by appropriate incentives to carry out plan directives.

c. market allocation is combined with planned allocation.

d. a ministerial system prevails.

e. none of the above.

10. Ownership rights may affect economic outcomes because

a. public and private owners may have different time preferences.

b. public ownership may mean more attention to social rates of return.

c. the distribution of income is affected by ownership arrangements.

d. answers a and b are correct. e. answers a, b, and c are correct.

11. Which of the following would not be classified as an economic-environmental factor?

a. Natural resource endowments

b. The size of the economy

c. The nature of decision-making arrangements

d. The economyâs per capita income

e. The economyâs labor force

12. If one finds that the planned socialist economies all have higher growth rates than capitalist countries, this shows that

a. planned socialism necessarily produces higher growth than capitalism.

b. planned socialism may produce higher growth than capitalism, ceteris paribus.

c. capitalism may produce higher growth than planned socialism, ceteris paribus.

d. capitalism necessarily produces higher growth than planned socialism.

e. both b and c are correct.

13. National priorities tend to be

a. the same for countries that have similar economic systems.

b. the same for all countries.

c. different for different countries.

d. completely unknown.

e. none of the above.

14. Economic growth measures

a. the increase in nominal income.

b. the increase in the volume of output on either a total or a per capita basis.

c. the growth of efficiency.

d. the growth of productivity.

e. none of the above.

15. A measure of economic instability is

a. the unemployment rate.

b. the inflation rate.

c. the business cycle.

d. the Lorenz curve.

e. all except d are correct.

16. In the real world, most economic systems are in fact

a. centralized systems.

b. mixed systems.

c. market systems.

d. planned systems.

17. Although economic reform is difficult to characterize with precision, reform in planned socialist systems has typically been thought of as

a. revolutionary or abrupt in character.

b. occurring gradually over time.

c. successful in most cases.

d. none of the above.

18. In the United States, social security transfers as a percentage of the gross national product have

a. increased.

b. decreased.

c. remained the same.

d. fluctuated but with a significant downward trend.

19. In the industrialized capitalist systems, taxes as a percentage of the gross national product have

a. increased.

b. decreased slightly.

c. decreased greatly.

d. remained the same.

20. In contemporary capitalist economic reforms, privatization means

a. expansion of private ownership of the means of production.

b. improvement of planning methods.

c. implementation of worker management.

d. none of the above.

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Q1. In the short run, an increase in the discount rate usually

a. causes the equilibrium level of real GDP and the price level to fall.

b. leads banks to hold fewer excess reserves.

c. leads to an increase in the price of existing bonds.

d. results in decreases in other interest rates.

Q2. Both Keynesians and monetarists agree that monetary policy works by shifting aggregate supply.

a. true

b. false

Q3. The effect of expansionary monetary policy is to

a. increase real output and decrease the price level.

b. decrease real output and increase the price level.

c. increase real output and increase the price level.

d. decrease real output and decrease the price level.

Q4. The price of bonds and the interest rate are

a. unrelated.

b. inversely related.

c. related, but we are not sure how.

d. positively related.

Q5. If the Fed increases the reserve requirement,

a. banks will issue more loans.

b. consumers will save more.

c. banks will issue fewer loans.

d. consumers will save less.

Q6. A central bank that engages in inflation targeting is following a monetary rule.

a. true

b. false

Q7. The Federal Reserve increased the money supply significantly during the Great Depression, but prices continued to fall anyway.

a. true

b. false

Q8. Keynesian theory argues that

a. decreases in the money supply lead to increases in the interest rate which increases investment which increases the level of real GDP.

b. increases in the money supply lead to decreases in the interest rate which increases investment which increases the level of real GDP.

c. increases in the money supply lead to decreases in the interest rate which decreases investment which decreases the level of real GDP.

d. increases in the money supply cause consumers to spend more which reduces the unemployment rate and therefore increases real GDP.

Q9. The effect of contractionary monetary policy is to

a. decrease real output and increase the price level.

b. increase real output and decrease the price level.

c. increase real output and increase the price level.

d. decrease real output and decrease the price level.

Q10. Keynesian economists believe that monetary policy works through its effect on

a. long-run aggregate supply.

b. the interest rate.

c. consumer confidence.

d. the federal budget deficit.

Q11. An expansionary monetary policy results in lower interest rates, which in turn

a. lead to higher rates of taxation.

b. cause firms to invest more.

c. lead to lower bond prices.

d. cause consumers to save more.

Q12. Contractionary monetary policy is used to combat recessions.

a. true

b. false

Q13. Economic growth can also be defined as the cumulative contribution of the rate of growth of capital, the rate of growth of labor, and the rates of growth of capital and labor productivity.

a. true

b. false

Q14. Small differences in the annual growth rate of a country add up to large differences over time because of compounding.

a. true

b. false

Q15. Economic growth occurs when

a. there is an increase in the inflation rate.

b. there is an increase in the amount of capital.

c. there is an increase in the unemployment rate.

d. the production possibilities curve becomes flatter.

Q16. Which one of the following is TRUE?

a. Small changes in the annual growth rate amount to a measurable difference in the long-term growth trend of a country.

b. For every country that experiences an increase in its growth rate, there must be another experiencing a decline.

c. A well-defined system of property rights benefits only the wealthy, and consequently it produces income inequality that will stifle economic growth.

d. Restricting imports will enhance a country's economic growth.

Q17. Economic growth is reflected in

growth in total output.

b. an increase in tax revenue.

c. increases in the level of employment.

d. increase in per capita real GDP.

Q18. Economic growth is reflected in the production possibilities curve becoming flatter.

a. true

b. false

Q19. Research has shown that the growth of developing countries is most strongly enhanced by

a. providing a good secondary education.

b. increasing the money supply.

c. providing incentives to have large families.

d. providing colleges and universities.

Q20. Which of the following is the most important factor affecting economic growth?

a. the rate of interest

b. the exchange rate

c. the price level

d. the rate of saving

Q21. Secondary schooling makes measurable contributions to economic growth in developing countries.

a. true

b. false

Q22. Poorly defined property rights inhibit economic growth.

a. true

b. false

Q23. Which one of the following helps preserve incentives to develop new technologies?

a. tariffs

b. income taxes

c. patents

d. quantity restrictions on imports

Q24. Studies indicate that

a. there is no relationship between economic growth and saving.

b. there is a negative relationship between economic growth and saving.

c. there is a positive relationship between economic growth and saving.

d. saving does not contribute to capital formation.

Q25. The European Union is

a. an organization established to resolve trade disputes among member nations.

b. a group of countries that impose tariffs on one another's agricultural goods.

c. a restricted trade zone.

d. a common market.

Q26. Which one of the following is FALSE?

a. Trade of goods facilitates the exchange of intellectual property as well.

b. The end result of trade is that richer countries take advantage of poorer ones.

c. A country enjoys an absolute advantage if it can produce a good with fewer resources than any other country can.

d. Countries that engage in trade will end up specializing according to their own comparative advantage.

Q27. If there are two goods and two countries, then one country can have

a. an absolute advantage in both goods but a comparative advantage in only one good.

b. an absolute advantage in both goods and a comparative advantage in both goods.

c. an absolute advantage in neither good and a comparative advantage in both goods.

d. an absolute advantage in one good, an absolute disadvantage in the other good, and a comparative advantage in neither.

Q28. An infant industry is one in which

a. the firms are too new and too small to compete internationally.

b. no country has a comparative advantage.

c. no country has an absolute advantage.

d. the products are only consumed domestically.

Q29. The European Union is an example of a common market.

a. true

b. false

Q30. An import quota will make the supply curve for the imported good

a. unitary elastic.

b. negatively sloped.

c. perfectly elastic.

d. perfectly inelastic.

Q31. If the infant-industry argument is used to protect an industry that has already matured then

a. consumers lose because they pay a price for a product which is below the world price.

b. consumers lose because they pay a price for a product which is above the world price.

c. no one loses.

d. stockholders lose because the firm cannot compete with other firms.

Q32. Protection should be withdrawn from an infant-industry when the companies in the industry

a. reach a sufficient size to compete with foreign firms.

b. become profitable.

c. are listed on the domestic stock exchange.

d. double their sales revenues.

Q33. Which of the following is a true statement?

a. Exporters benefit from trade and importers do not.

b. Free trade harms domestic producers of goods that face import competition.

c. Consumers benefit from trade and producers do not.

d. Everyone benefits from free trade in the short run.

Q34. In the United States today, imports are over

a. 22 percent of GDP.

b. 26 percent of GDP.

c. 14 percent of GDP.

d. 18 percent of GDP.

Q35. Table 16.6

Product Country X Country Y

Gallons of Ice Cream 2,000 1,000

Yards of Textiles 6,000 2,000

Table 16.6 shows the combinations of quantities of two goods, gallons of ice cream and yards of textiles, that can be produced with all of the resources available in two countries, X and Y.

Refer to Table 16.6. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. Country X has a lower opportunity cost of producing ice cream than does Country Y.

b. Country Y has a comparative advantage in producing textiles.

c. Country X has a comparative advantage in producing ice cream.

d. In Country X, the opportunity cost of producing a gallon of ice cream is three yards of textiles.

Q36. Table 16.1

Alpha's Production Possibilities

A B C D E

Cookies 4 3 2 1 0

Coffee 0 5 10 15 20

Beta's Production Possibilities

A B C D E

Cookies 8 6 4 2 0

Coffee 0 6 12 18 24

Table 16.1 shows the quantities of cookies and coffee that can be produced with the full amount of resources available in each of two countries, Alpha and Beta.

Refer to Table 16.1. The table shows the production possibilities of cookies and coffee in Alpha and Beta measured in tons. In Alpha the domestic cost of 1 ton of cookies

a. is 5 tons of coffee.

b. changes with the level of coffee production.

c. changes with the level of cookie production.

d. averages 4 tons of coffee.

Q37. Table 16.1

Alpha's Production Possibilities

A B C D E

Cookies 4 3 2 1 0

Coffee 0 5 10 15 20

Beta's Production Possibilities

A B C D E

Cookies 8 6 4 2 0

Coffee 0 6 12 18 24

Table 16.1 shows the quantities of cookies and coffee that can be produced with the full amount of resources available in each of two countries, Alpha and Beta.

Refer to Table 16.1. If these two countries, Alpha and Beta, specialize based on comparative advantage

a. Beta will specialize in producing both items.

b. Alpha will specialize in cookies, and Beta will specialize in coffee production.

c. Alpha will specialize in coffee, and Beta will specialize in cookies.

d. Alpha will specialize in producing both items.

Q38. A country is made richer by its exports and poorer by its imports.

a. true

b. false

Q39. The demand for Japanese yen will increase when

a. Japan becomes more productive relative to the United States.

b. Americans change preferences in favor of domestically produced goods.

c. America is perceived as more stable politically and economically than Japan.

d. real interest rates in Japan fall.

Q40. If labor productivity improves in India relative to other countries,

a. the demand for the Indian rupee will decrease, leading to its appreciation.

b. the demand for the Indian rupee will decrease, leading to its depreciation.

c. the demand for the Indian rupee will increase, leading to its depreciation.

d. the demand for the Indian rupee will increase, leading to its appreciation.

Q41. Assume that there is an increased demand in the United States for Australian wines. If all other factors are held constant, this will result in

a. an appreciation of the Australian dollar.

b. a movement along the demand curve for Australian wine.

c. a decrease in the supply of U.S. dollars in the foreign exchange market.

d. an appreciation of the U.S. dollar.

Q42. Capital account transactions occur

a. when a U.S. citizen purchases stock in a U.S. corporation.

b. because of foreign investments.

c. when you move money from one U.S. bank to another U.S. bank.

d. when a U.S. company purchases goods from a foreign company.

Q43. When a country intervenes in foreign currency markets to maintain a fixed exchange rate

a. it is engaged in hedging.

b. it increases the foreign exchange risk faced by its citizens.

c. it does so by using its foreign exchange reserves.

d. it smoothes out fluctuations in the level of business activity.

Q44. An increase in the U.S. demand for Japanese yen causes

a. an increase in the dollar-price of yen.

b. an increase in the demand for U.S. goods.

c. an increase in the yen-price of dollars.

d. a decrease in the supply of yen.

Q45. Other factors held constant, a rise in the price level in Japan that exceeds the rise in the price level in other countries will most likely result in

a. a decrease in the supply of the Japanese yen.

b. an increase in the supply of Japanese goods.

c. a depreciation of the dollar.

d. a decline in the level of Japanese exports.

Q46. The fact that the United States has a trade deficit means that

a. U.S. workers cannot compete with workers overseas.

b. the United States has a surplus in its capital account.

c. interest rates in the United States are low compared to the world average.

d. the United States has a deficit in its capital account.

Q47. Which of the following statements is true about the role of gifts given to U.S. citizens from foreigners?

a. Gifts are only included in the balance of payments if the gift is over $1,000,000.

b. Gifts given to U.S. citizens are not included in the balance of payments, but gifts given to foreigners are included as deficit items.

c. Gifts are included in the balance of payments.

d. Gifts are not included in the balance of payments.

Q48. Every transaction concerning the exportation of American goods constitutes a

a. demand for foreign currency and a supply of dollars.

b. demand for dollars, with no effect on markets for foreign currencies.

c. supply of foreign currency, with no effect on the market for dollars.

d. supply of foreign currency and demand for dollars.

Q49. If the capital account is in surplus, the current account will be in deficit.

a. true

b. false

Q50. The balance of payments consists of the

a. capital account, official reserve transactions account, and recent account.

b. current account, official reserve transactions account, and monetary account.

c. current account, capital account, and official reserve transactions account.

d. current account, capital account, and gold flows.

ECON 110 Chapter Notes - Chapter 19: Canadian Dollar, Apperception, Nominal Interest Rate

ECON 110 Full Course Notes

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