ECN 104 Chapter Notes - Chapter 2: Sole Proprietorship, Market System, Economic System

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15 Oct 2015

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Chapter 2: the market system & circular flow. Also known as socialism or communism: government owns most property resources and economic decision making occurs thorough a central economic plan. Enables owners to employ or dispose of their property and. In a market system, private individuals and firms, not the government, own most of the property resources (land and capital) Ensures that entrepreneurs and private business are free to obtain and use economic resources to produce their choice of goods and services and to sell them in their chosen market. Enables owners to employ or dispose of their property and money as they see fit. Allows workers to enter any line of work for which they are qualified. Ensures customers are free to buy the goods and services that best satisfy their wants. Market system depends on competitionamong economic units: basis of this competition is freedom of choice exercised in pursuit of a monetary return.

Related Questions

1. The high economic growth from the Industrial Revolution was characterized by

a. new opportunities to settle empty areas, particularly North America.

b. rapid technological and scientific innovation.

c. the expansion of national governments in Europe and North America.

d. a rapid increase in the accumulation of human and physical capital.

e. none of the above.

2. Periods of economic growth and prosperity can often be explained by

a. political paradigm shifts.

b. technological innovation

c. movement of capital

d. both a and b

e. both b and c

3. Prior to the onset of economic reform in the late 1980s, the Soviet Union and

most Eastern European countries allocated resources primarily by means of

a. markets.

b. national economic plans.

c. neither a nor b.

d. both a and b.

4. A major theme in the 1980s in the governments of England and the U.S.was

a. the appropriate role of government in the economy.

b. the pressure for expanding trade with former socialist block countries.

c. repressing inflation.

d. increasing employment opportunities.

e. none of the above.

5. One example of the expansion of internationalism in the 1990s was the development of a trade agreement between Canada, Mexico, and the United States. This agreement is known as

a. the GATT (General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade).

b. the IMF (International Monetary Fund).

c. the NAFTA (North American Free Trade Agreement).

d. the CMEA (Council for Mutual Economic Assistance).

6. The contemporary Chinese economy is of interest because

a. it combines central planning with a multiparty democratic political system.

b. it combines the market with a multiparty democratic political system.

c. it combines the market with a single-party political system.

d. none of the above.

7. In the analysis of the planned socialist economic systems, the concept of economic reform is usually referred to as

a. the replacement of the plan by the market after the collapse of the planning system.

b. the attempt to improve the operation of the planned economy without a significant shift toward market arrangements.

c. the frequent attempt, in the planned socialist economic systems, to introduce the industrial policy.

d. none of the above.

8. The modern approach to defining economic systems

a. is based on the isms of capitalism and socialism.

b. emphasizes resource allocation arrangements over incentive systems.

c. defines economic systems according to a number of characteristics.

d. recognizes that defining economic systems is impossible.

e. none of the above.

9. Which of the following is not a major attribute of an economic system (Based on the textbook)?

a. Organization of decision-making arrangements.

b. Mechanisms for providing information and coordination.

c. Economic policies.

d. The system's physical and human capital.

e. Both c and d are correct.

10. A planned economy is one in which

a. subunits are coordinated by directives formulated by a superior agency.

b. subunits are not induced by appropriate incentives to carry out plan directives.

c. market allocation is combined with planned allocation.

d. a ministerial system prevails.

e. none of the above.

11. Property ownership rights include

a. disposition and utilization.

b. disposition, utilization, and the right to use the products and services generated.

c. disposition, utilization, and team production.

d. disposition, utilization, and economic incentives.

e. none of the above.

12. Consumer sovereignty means that

a. central planning is absent.

b. consumers elect public officials.

c. consumers make the basic decisions on what is to be produced.

d. consumers are not affected by advertising.

e. none of the above.

13. Which of the following is not a characteristic of market socialism?

a. Centralized decision-making.

b. Market allocation.

c. State or collective ownership.

d. Combination of moral and economic incentives.

e. All are characteristic of market socialism.

14. Two factors generally believed to be important in the analysis of levels of decision-making are

a. incentives and ownership.

b. authority and information.

c. level of economic development and ideological focus.

d. all of the above.

e. none of the above

15. Moral incentives generally refer to

a. direct money payments made to participants.

b. supplements to direct money payments, such as bonuses.

c. rewards that do not give the recipient greater command over goods and services but rather serve to reward desirable behavior.

d. all of the above.

e. none of the above

16. Principals and agents are different people. An agent is a party

a. who has controlling authority in an organization.

b. who acts on behalf of a principal.

c. with equity rights in the organization.

d. a and b are correct.

e. none of the above.

17. According to the text, opportunistic behavior occurs when a lower-level unit of an organization can use its information advantage against the interests of its superiors. This form of behavior, it is argued, can take two forms:

a. indicative planning and directive planning.

b. planners' preferences and consumer sovereignty.

c. moral hazard and adverse selection.

d. a and b are correct.

e. none of the above.

18. According to the text, there are two extremes of organizational structure. These extremes are termed

a. planned or market

b. corporate or individual proprietorship.

c. association based or hierarchy based.

d. a and c are correct.

e. none of the above.

19. It is often assumed that individuals who participate in the organized activity do so within the constraints of bounded rationality. The concept of bounded rationality

means that

a. individuals may not in fact pursue self-interest.

b. individuals face a variety of limitations, for example, in the ability to process information.

c. agents will never pursue goals or objectives set by principals.

d. b and c are correct

e. none of the above.

20. Modern comparative economists would object to the definition of economic systems only in terms of property ownership arrangements, because

a. they recognize that ownership arrangements are not important.

b. there is some private ownership of property in every economic system.

c. ownership arrangements are only one aspect of the economic system.

d. resource allocation procedures are much more important than property ownership.

e. all of the above.

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1. In every society, choices must be made because resources are

a. Infinite, but economic want are finite

b. Finite, but economic wants are insatiable

c. Unlimited, but economic wants limited

d. Limited, and so are economic wants

2. Which question is an illustration of a microeconomic question

a. Is the quantity of wine purchased in one year dependent upon the price of wine?

b. Does government spending influence the total level of employment in the economy?

c. Is the purchasing power of the dollar higher or lower today than it was in 2000?

d. Is capitalism superior to socialism?

3. The purpose of the ceteris paribus assumption used in economic analysis is to :

a. Avoid making normative statements

b. A void the post hoc, ergo propter hoc fallacy

c. Make sure that all relevant factors are considered

d. Restrict the analysis to effect of a single economic factor

4. The profit motive is

a. Ineffective at producing consumer goods

b. Inherently beneficial to society if left alone to pursue its own self interests

c. Effective at producing goods when consumption is non-rival or non-excludable

d. Is often at odds with societies interests

5. In the system of central planning

a. There is repaid of the infrastructure

b. There is severe inflation in wholesale and retail prices

c. Economic growth leads to widespread unemployment among workers

d. The outputs of some industries become inputs for other industries

6. The market system communicates changes in supply and demand and elicits appropriate responses from businesses and resource suppliers. This is known as the:

a. Rationing function of prices

b. Guiding function of prices

c. Monetary function of prices

d. Circular flow of income

7. An increase in the quantity of automobiles supplied would be caused by which be caused by which of the following?

a. An increase in the demand for automobiles

b. A decrease in the demand for automobiles

c. Higher prices for steel

d. Higher prices for gasoline

8. All of the following would cause an increase in the demand for private airplanes at a given price, except a:

a. Decrease in interest rates

b. Increase in consumer incomes

c. Decrease in taxes on luxury goods

d. Decrease in the costs of constructing private airplanes

9. In modern economies of mass production,

a. Biological need motivates most consumption

b. The intrinsic value of goods and services motivates mass consumption

c. Affluence makes relative depravation meaningless

d. Invidious comparison motivates much of mass consumption

10. a more equal distribution of income in the United States would result in greater total consumer satisfaction. This statement is based on the concept that:

a. Income inequality is unfair

b. Income inequality is undemocratic

c. Income equality stimulates efficiency

d. Incomes are subject to diminishing marginal utility

11. While command systems suffer from incentive problems, market economies

a. Have no incentive problems

b. Suffer from incentive problems of their own

c. Tend to resolve all problems by their own dynamics

d. Have problems to the degree that there is government interference.

12. What economic concepts can be used to explain the reason that a new car purchased by a consumer and driven off a new car lot decrease in value almost immediately compared with the value of the same make and model of a car still on the new car lot?

a. Positive and negative externalities

b. Liability rules and lawsuits

c. The Coase theorem and moral hazard

d. Asymmetric information and adverse selection

13. Consider a situation where the U.S. Congress wants to place a special tax on private airplanes to increase tax revenue. This tax would only be effective in raising new tax revenues if the price elasticity of:

a. Supply is elastic

b. Supply is inelastic

c. Demand is elastic

d. Demand is inelastic

14. Under what circumstances would you expect economic profits to be zero in a particular industry?

a. During a recession

b. When there is little competition in the industry

c. When the industry is neither expanding nor contracting

d. When the demand for the product being produced is increasing

16. If economic resources are perfectly interchangeable between the two products shown on a production possibilities graph:

a. The economy will always be at full employment

b. More of one product can be produced without producing less fo the other product

c. The production possibilities curve would be straight line

d. The two products are of equal value to the economy

17. Opportunity cost is best defined as:

a. Marginal cost minis marginal benefit

b. The time spent on an economic activity

c. The value of the best foregone alternative

d. The money cost of an economic decision

18. All of the following would affect the position of a country production possibilities curve expect:

a. The quality of labor

b. The level of employment

c. The amount of the capital stock

d. Technological progress

19. The post hoc, ergo propter hoc fallacy consists of:

a. Using an example to a different point

b. Inferring causality from chronological sequence

c. Jumping to conclusions from an inadequate number of cases

d. Arguing for or against the person rather than the position being supported

20. Which is one of the five fundamental question that needs to be answered by economic system

a. What is the rate of unemployment?

b. Who will be the richest person in the economy?

c. What goods and services will be produced?

d. Why are the prices for goods and services so high?

21. The institution of private property is sustained over time by:

a. Competition

b. Bequests

c. Self-interest

d. Free enterprise

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Q3. The assumption of rational self-interest implies that people will choose to enrich themselves even if doing so violates the rights or property of others.

a. true

b. false

Q4. If you can earn $10 an hour as a retail clerk, $12 an hour as an office assistant, $16 an hour as a house painter, and $20 an hour repairing bicycles, what is your opportunity cost of working to repair bicycles?

a. $12 an hour

b. $10 an hour

c. $20 an hour

d. $16 an hour

Q5. In the graph of a production possibilities curve, both the horizontal and vertical axes measure the annual quantities of goods produced.

a. true

b. false

Q6. Scarcity arises because

a. international companies are slow to explore for new resources.

b. resources are finite and unable to meet all human wants and needs.

c. many countries waste goods because of inefficient political systems.

d. import taxes retard production.

Q7. A production possibilities curve with clothing and food on the axes shows which of the following?

I. A society cannot have an unlimited amount of each good.

II. For an efficient society, an increase in clothing production will necessitate a decrease in food production.

III. A society will always produce the maximum amount of both clothing and food.

a. II only

b. I only

c. III only

d. both I and II

Q8. All points on the production possibilities curve are efficient.

a. true

b. false

Q9. Economic growth can be pictured in a production possibilities curve diagram by

a. shifting the production possibilities curve out.

b. moving from right to left along the curve.

c. moving from left to right along the curve.

d. shifting the production possibilities curve in.

Q10. Suppose the current unemployment rate is 15 percent. If it rises to 20 percent,

a. the production possibilities curve will shift inward.

b. the economy will move closer to the production possibilities curve.

c. the economy will operate further inside the production possibilities curve.

d. the economy will move up along the production possibilities curve.

Q11. Clean air is a scarce resource.

a. true

b. false

Q12. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. A good is anything that gives satisfaction or happiness to individuals.

b. Wants may include humanitarian and altruistic goals.

c. Wants are unlimited and include all material and nonmaterial desires.

d. Economic goods are available in desired quantities at a zero price.

Q13. The current size of the U.S. labor force is less than 100 million workers.

a. true

b. false

Q14. The factors of production are

a. never as useful as people expect them to be.

b. valuable only because they are owned by corporations seeking to make a profit from them.

c. scarce resources.

d. abundant without limit on the planet.

Q15. Why do firms seek to use the least-cost combination of inputs?

a. because they won't be able to stay in business if they don't

b. because that is the combination that their employees prefer

c. because managers and supervisors find their jobs are easiest when the least-cost combination is used

d. because they want to keep costs low in order to appear to the media as a well-run business

Q16. Which one of the following best describes how economists view prices?

a. Low prices are good; high prices are bad.

b. High prices are good; low prices are bad.

c. The best price is a fair price.

d. Prices are signals of relative scarcity.

Q17. The person who creates a product innovation and brings it to market is providing the resource of

a. labor.

b. land.

c. entrepreneurship.

d. capital.

Q18. Gifts of nature used in the production process are considered

a. entrepreneurship.

b. labor.

c. land.

d. capital.

Q19. In a free market economy,

a. government decides what is produced, and producers decide who gets to consume it.

b. as a good becomes relatively more scarce, its price declines.

c. firms choose only to produce the most fashionable goods, regardless of the cost of production.

d. goods and services are allocated by a price system.

Q20. Resources are also known as

a. stocks, bonds, and other financial instruments.

b. minerals.

c. factors of production.

d. factories.

Q21. The size of the U.S. labor force has declined over the past 20 years as many jobs have been outsourced from the United States to other countries.

a. true

b. false

Q22. Which one of the following is TRUE?

a. The growth of the U.S. population over the next several decades will come from immigration.

b. Population growth makes a country poorer, because there are more mouths to feed.

c. Real per capita GDP can increase only if there is inflation.

d. Real per capita GDP can increase only if there is no inflation.

Q23. Which one of the following is FALSE?

a. The U.S. labor force will continue to grow through immigration.

b. Inflation stops economic growth.

c. Increased availability of reliable communication channels at lower and lower costs have led to companies relocating their manufacturing operations offshore.

d. The size of the U.S. labor force continues to grow despite many jobs being moved off-shore.

Q24. What is the purpose of a market system?

a. to facilitate efficient exchange

b. to encourage consumers to buy goods on credit

c. to ensure an equal distribution of income

d. to ensure that everyone is treated fairly

Q25. The market system is also called the price system because

a. people pay money in markets.

b. everything has a price tag.

c. rising prices are the signal to producers to make more of a particular good.

d. inflation is a disturbing problem.

Q26. Production refers to

a. any activity that causes a material conversion of an object.

b. any activity that results in the conversion of resources into goods and services that can be consumed.

c. any activity carried on by a firm, whether a corporation, partnership, or sole proprietorship.

d. physically producing material goods only.

Q27. An increase in the price of coffee, holding other things constant, will

a. decrease the demand for coffee.

b. increase the demand for coffee.

c. decrease the quantity of coffee demanded.

d. decrease the supply of coffee.

Q28. The supply curve shifts when the firm experiences a change in its production technology.

a. true

b. false

Q29. A surplus results when the quantity supplied exceeds the quantity demanded.

a. true

b. false

Q30. Table 3.1

Price per Constant-Quality Unit Quantity Demanded of Constant-Quality Units per Year Quantity Supplied of Constant-Quality Units per Year

$1.00 1,000 200

2.00 800 400

3.00 600 600

4.00 400 800

5.00 200 1,000

What condition characterizes a surplus?

a. Quantity supplied exceeds quantity demanded.

b. Quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied.

c. Consumers are unhappy with the price.

d. Producers are unhappy with the price.

Q31. An increase in quantity demanded is caused by

a. an increase in income.

b. a decrease in the price of a complement.

c. a change in expectations about price in the future.

d. a decrease in the price of the good.

Q32. The demand curve is downward sloping because

a. price and quantity have a direct relationship.

b. price is always constant.

c. demand is based on supply.

d. price and quantity have an inverse relationship.

Q33. An increase in the price of one good will decrease the demand for a substitute good.

a. true

b. false

Q34. The market demand curve is the vertical summation of the demand curves of all the individuals in the market.

a. true

b. false

Q35. The equilibrium price of a good is a price that everyone is happy with.

a. true

b. false

Q36. Which one of the following would cause a rightward shift of the supply curve?

a. A new tax is imposed on production of the good.

b. Some firms that have been producing the good go out of business.

c. Firms producing the good find ways of lowering their production costs.

d. There is an increase in demand for the good.

Q37. Which of the following is a determinant of demand?

a. cost of production

b. number of suppliers

c. technology of production

d. income

Q38. The market demand curve for a particular good

a. will not be affected by any of the determinants of individual demand.

b. is the horizontal sum of each individual demand curve for the good.

c. will show a direct relationship between price and quantity demanded.

d. may be less than an individual demand curve for the good.

Q39. Table 4.4

Quantity of CDs Purchased Total Utility Marginal Utility

1 75

2 135

3 185

4 35

5 25

6 15

According to Table 4.4, what is the total utility when six CDs are purchased?

a. 65

b. 260

c. 120

d. 220

Q40. A rational consumer will never purchase a product when its

a. marginal utility is decreasing.

b. total utility is decreasing.

c. marginal utility is slightly positive.

d. marginal utility is negative.

Q41. The price elasticity of demand becomes relatively greater as more substitutes are easily available.

a. true

b. false

Q42. Which of the following statements is true with respect to total utility and marginal utility?

a. Marginal utility is always equal to total utility.

b. Total utility will always be negative when marginal utility is positive.

c. Total utility is minimized when marginal utility is zero.

d. Marginal utility can decline as total utility rises.

Q43. Table 4.3

Quantityof Soda Marginal Utility of Soda Quantityof Pizza Marginal Utility of Pizza

1 50 1 100

2 25 2 80

3 0 3 60

4 -25 4 40

After consuming what quantity of soda does the consumer in Table 4.3 experience diminishing marginal utility?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 1

d. 4

Q44. If the price elasticity of demand is 0.5, a 10 percent increase in the price will cause

a. the quantity demanded to decrease by 20 percent.

b. the quantity demanded to decrease by 50 percent.

c. the quantity demanded to increase by 50 percent.

d. the quantity demanded to decrease by 5 percent.

Q45. Which one of the following would make the demand for satellite subscription TV relatively less elastic?

a. The cost of administering the satellite service is lowered.

b. Cable TV service becomes less widely available.

c. Other networks of wireless entertainment become more widely available.

d. The cost of transmitting satellite signals is lowered.

Q46. A price increase will cause a relatively large drop in quantity demanded when

a. demand is perfectly inelastic.

b. the price elasticity of demand is 0.

c. there is very little time allowed for consumers to react.

d. the consumer has easy access to a number of substitute goods.

Q47. Table 4.6

Price Quantity Demanded

$20 90

$16 110

$12 130

$ 8 150

According to the data in Table 4.6, what is the elasticity of demand between a price of $20 and a price of $16?

a. 0.60

b. 0.75

c. 0.90

d. 1.25

Q48. Price elasticity of demand is the responsiveness

a. of the quantity demanded to changes in supply.

b. of the quantity demanded to changes in income.

c. of the quantity demanded to changes in price.

d. of the quantity demanded to changes in quantity.

Q49. Everyone who views the latest adventure movie in theaters will derive the same utility from seeing it.

a. true

b. false

Q50. The law of diminishing marginal utility asserts that total utility becomes negative when marginal utility begins to diminish.

a. true

b. false

ECN 104 Chapter Notes - Chapter 2: Sole Proprietorship, Market System, Economic System

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